Guys let $R$ be a commutative ring, and let $I=\langle X+Y,X^2+1\rangle$. My book claims we have the following isomorpshim:
$$
\big(\mathbb R[X][Y]/\langle Y-(-X)\rangle\big)\big /\langle\overline X^2+\overline 1\rangle\cong\mathbb R[X]\big/\langle X^2+1\rangle.
$$
So I know that $\mathbb R[X][Y]/\langle Y-(-X)\rangle\cong \mathbb R[X]$. But now it seems that $\mathbb R[X]/\langle \overline X^2+\overline 1\rangle\cong \mathbb R[X]/\langle X^2+1\rangle$. Could someone explain that to me? Btw, $\overline X^2+\overline 1=X^2+1+\langle X+Y\rangle$.