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06:02
Hey @Astyx!
06:36
Ohi
What's up ?
Not much, how about you?
Same
Mygr8 to dc real quick
@LeakyNun You probably can compute the order of all elements in $(\Bbb Z/n\Bbb Z)*$ in $\mathcal O(n\ln n)$. I'm not convinced you can a priori compute the order of a specific element out of the blue in $\mathcal O(\ln n)$ (at best $\mathcal O(n)$)
I might be totally wrong though
Oh also hai @Alessandro
07:11
@arctictern bring back @anon
le sigh
back
2
Welcome @anon :-D
thnx
A room needs its owner.
 
1 hour later…
08:17
I wasn't really there, hi @Dami
How are exams going ?
It's over, it's done (cit. Frodo after destroying the one ring)
Precious.
When will you have the results ?
I'll have an oral exam in analysis in September, but the written part went very well and I have no other exams
Oh cool !
08:20
I already did, just 30 minutes ago
What about yours? Did you get the results?
I got my marks (but not my rank) for Polytechnique
And I think I have good chances of being accepted
that's great
when will you know for sure?
In a week or so
Not too sure
The derivative of a uniformly continuous function is assymptotically bounded right ?
what does asymptotically bounded mean? eventually smaller than a constant?
You can't have $(u_n)_{n\in \Bbb N}$ going to $\infty$ and $f'(u_n) \to_{n\to\infty}+\infty$
There is a real $m$ and a bound $M$ such that for all $x\ge m$ $|f'(x)|\le M$
(I am making this terminology up)
08:24
hmmm I'm not sure
No, it seems I'm wrong
Only the converse is true
I mean $\sqrt{x}$ is uniformly continuous and has unbounded derivative in a nbhd of $0$, can one costruct a uniformly continuous function that "looks like" $\sqrt{x}$ in $0$ at all integers? I think so
But its derivative is bounded around $\infty$
@Astyx Boundedness of the derivative implies Lipschitz continuity which implies uniform comtinuity, but not the other way around. Consider $f(x)=\sin (x^n)/(1+x^2)$ for $n\ge4$, as $x\to\pm\infty $
yeah, but I want to construct a function that has at all integers the same behaviour that $\sqrt{x}$ has in $0$ @Astyx
08:27
Oh right I see why I am wrong
I omce asked a pretty comprehensive question on the matter, you may want to look at it: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1837681/…
@VincenzoOliva Wait, the derivative of that function isn't bounded is it ?
It should be read "in order", that is first number (0), then (1) etc.
@Astyx Indeed. Didn't you ask if u.c. implies boundedness of the derivative?
The answer is no
[Old news]
Oh yeah I'm being silly
Thanks a lot !
08:31
Hey @AlessandroCodenotti
@Astyx Nah, you're welcome!
@Vincenzo I see you're Italian as well! Where do you study?
There are at least two types of maths people:
1. Amateur mathematicians which explores maths by intuition and inventing their own exploration tools
2. Professional and/or amateur mathematicians which explores maths by following a systematic procedure of proving and constructions
NB It is an open question whether there are professional mathematicians that explores maths mostly intuitively
I would never be able only to follow procedures @Secret, to do math I need to feel what's going on
(this being said, I'm not a professional, yet)
I suspect this guy might fit the token for that open question:
In mathematics, inter-universal Teichmüller theory (IUT) is a theory created by Shinichi Mochizuki (2012a, 2012b, 2012c, 2012d). It is an arithmetic version of Teichmüller theory for number fields with an elliptic curve, introduced by Shinichi Mochizuki (2012a, 2012b, 2012c, 2012d).This theory is considered to be the most fundamental development in pure mathematics in several decades. Other names for the theory are arithmetic deformation theory and Mochizuki theory. Several previously developed and published theories in the previous 20 years by Shinichi Mochizuki are related and used in many ways...
08:35
@Alessandro Yep, in Milan. What about you? I'm investigating on the procedure of making students handwrite what the say in an oral exam. This is very often done in my university, does it occur in yours, at least for undergraduates? I feel like it would be better to use a keyboard and a monitor, provided one has been taught LaTeX
For me, I am an amateur who kinda straddles somewhere in the middle of the two extremes
Then the printed document would be manually signed. I even asked a question in the math educators Stack Exchange, I'm interested in what happens in other countries, too.
I think research mathematicians operate by intuition more than you think @Secret
They just get really good at translating that intuition into formality
But it's p rare that people operate immediately via formality, heuristics typically precedes that
@VincenzoOliva I'm in Trento. I've had a few oral exams where I had to write on the blackboard and a few more where I had to write on a sheet of paper, some professors want you to write everything you say, others are satisfied with much less as long as what you say is complete and correct, I don't think there's a precise standard
For me:
structures and questions I constructed and raised are guided by prior experience, generalisations, dreams and memory correlations, but when exploring these structures, I tried to be rigorous by following well establish principles. In the event I need to invent things, they are phrased in a language that mathematicians can understand (though to be honest, my mastery of the terminology is still poor. Combined with my weird personality, people can sometimes have trouble understand my attempt in translating my ideas into the maths language)
08:41
@Alessandro The blackboard does make sense, but how about writing in a sheet of paper? What do you think of typesetting instead? Personally, that extra care I have to put for clear but fast writing is kinda distracting, so I'm looking for other experiences
@Daminark Hmm, guess I still need work to better understand mathematicians and maths people culture and thought process
shrugs
this could be.
@VincenzoOliva I don't know, that's not a problem for me
Hi Steamy
08:58
Is every connected semisimple subgroup $G$ of $GL(n,\mathbb{R})$ a subgroup of $SL(n,\mathbb{R})$? I read that $G$ is perfect, i.e. $[G,G] = G$, and hence each $g \in G$ has to have determinant one in Mostow's book on Rigidity. But I don't quite understand why $G$ must be perfect when it is semisimple (My Idea: Maybe $G/[G,G]$ is semisimple too and since its abelian, it must be trivial, i.e. $[G,G] = G$?)
Ah and $G/[G,G]$ must be connected since $G$ is connected. This could actually work out...
Hey @s.harp
Hello @Daminark
and everybody else
How've you been?
confused
About?
09:03
Usually about my thesis, sometimes about people and social interactions! With non-negligible mass also about myself
People are definitely pretty confusing. What's your thesis on?
Also hey @Tobias
The general idea is to find a procedure that allows one to optimise a "dirty" system in a non-generic way.
How would you represnt $\sqrt{-121}*i$ in terms of $i$ and why?
I see
@Abcd Using the sqrt sign is a poor idea when dealing with complex numbers
09:07
@TobiasKildetoft Why?
I am new to complex numbers (Started this chapter today)
I think the solutions are: $-11$ and $+11$
Never mind...
Bye
09:30
I don't understand where the $i$ disappeared in this proof.
Can someone please tell why there's no i in the proof?
(Please ping me)
@Abcd I am not sure where you mean the $i$ disappeared
09:46
@TobiasKildetoft in the proof
which part of the proof don't you understand?
@Abcd But there is not supposed to be any $i$ there
@TobiasKildetoft after "therefore"
@TobiasKildetoft why?
The definition of the norm does not involve an $i$
@anon finding the modulus of the complex number -a-bi
09:48
well, -a-bi is (-a)+(-b)i. do you know what the definition of |x+yi| is?
Yes, why does the definition not involve $i$.
it's sqrt(x^2+y^2) isn't it? well, in that case, |(-a)+(-b)i| must be sqrt((-a)^2+(-b)^2)
@Abcd Because that is the way the definition is
|z| is defined to be the magnitude of z. length is a real number.
Proof by definition.
09:50
@TobiasKildetoft Does eliminating $i$ help us in finding the complex number's distance from zero. If yes, how?
The reason is the definition.
length is a real number. it can be found with the pythagorean theorem. draw a triangle.
@Abcd Now you are asking something completely different
You were asking about this specific proof, which uses the definition of the norm. Why the norm is defined as it is is not related to this proof
@TobiasKildetoft So please answer that so that I can inter-relate stuff
Basically, multiplication of complex numbers should add angles and multiply lengths
09:52
@Abcd anon already answered that part
@anon I don't know how to draw triangles for complex numbers @TobiasKildetoft
the ray there is the hypotenuse. x is the base, y is the height.
@Abcd If you have a complex number $a+bi$, you can think of it as an ordered pair of real numbers, so on $\mathbb{R}^2$ this becomes $(a,b)$
Lol sniped
@anon Interesting!
@Daminark "ordered pair of real numbers"?
@anon no you had sniped me with the picture :P
09:55
@Abcd We define complex numbers in terms of ordered pairs of real numbers
So, you know a complex number by its real part and imaginary part, yeah?
@anon what next?? How to prove?
@Daminark Yes
yes, as we learn in intermediate algebra, an ordered pair of real numbers (x,y) represents a point in the plane
@Abcd You may know the diagram as the representation of a complex number in the Argand plane.
09:56
@TimTheEnchanter Oh. I haven't reached Argand plane yet
@Abcd the proof that |-z|=|z| is already there in the picture...
@Daminark I deleted and edited because you cut off my response
@Abcd Well the picture anon posted is it.
So, in a sense, if we christen the first coordinate as being the real one, and the second as the imaginary one, you can represent a point in the plane using two numbers as in the picture anon drew
@anon sorry :/
Work with the point P(x,y). @Abcd
@anon why is modulus of z = x^2 + y^2
09:57
oh, you mean the proof the length is sqrt(x^2+y^2)? that follows from the pythagorean theorem. this is something you should have learned well before complex numbers...
@anon But there's an i too
@TheRaidersofLasVegas why not iy instead of y
@Abcd What do you think the modulus is?
@TimTheEnchanter distance from origin
@TheRaidersofLasVegas so yes it should become x^2 - y^2
@Abcd Must distance be a real number?
09:59
@TimTheEnchanter Umm....yes(unsure)
a^2+(bi)^2 would indeed be a^2-b^2, but we're not talking about a^2+(bi)^2
@Abcd Exactly, that's why we define it as the length of the hypotenuse of the right triangle with $real$ length sides.
So the 'i' doesn't enter the diagram at all here.
draw a+bi as a point in the plane, draw the triangle, the sides have length a and b (no i, lengths don't involve i), so by the pythagorean theorem the magnitude is sqrt(a^2+b^2)
Okay, thanks @anon and @TimTheEnchanter and others too.
10:03
Also I just realized that Ted's name was Shifrin. For some reason I thought that his name was Shrifin all this time.
ohi @Steamy
@Tim :O
ohi
Actually, his name is Theodore :^)
@SteamyRoot -,-
10:05
Nonabelian cohomology hurts my brain >.<
That's sooo Balarka like @Daminark :P
Oh yeah he showed me that
@SteamyRoot Well, you only get a few ones anyway
@Daminark This is the dankest thing I've seen in a long time.
10:07
@Steamy So, I'm guessing this isn't $K(G,n)$ stuff
@SteamyRoot And most of them are not even groups
@Daminark What's $K(G,n)$ again? :P
Wait hmm, are there cohomology theories for which there does not exist classifying spaces?
$K(G,n)$ is the Eilenberg-Maclane space
Which is defined to have all of its homotopy groups be trivial, except for the nth one, which is $G$
@Daminark You can do cohomology with no spaces at all. No sure if one can somehow still get classifying spaces
Ordinary cohomology can be given by $H^n(X;G) = [X,K(G,n)]$
10:10
Oh, meh.
I just work with cycles and cocycles and such
What does "cohomology with no spaces" entail?
@Tobias
And, yeah, as soon as you get to $H^n$ with $n \geq 1$ they're not groups in general anymore
@Daminark cohomology is something you associate to a chain complex
@Steamy Eh, Peter's influence
But they are pointed sets, which means there's a notion of exact sequences and neutral elements
10:12
@SteamyRoot Don't you also have to stop at like $n=2$ or $n=3$ for the nonabelian stuff?
Not necessarily, but it gets really whacky there.
@SteamyRoot Hmm, I thought I recalled them no longer being defined for larger $n$
Serre just goes "One would also like to define $H^n$ for $n \geq 2$ but I'm not going to bother, here's a reference"
@Tim truly, I've used it a good bit. That and the MLG violin, especially for sniping (which happens a good bit in this chat :P)
Apparently Dedecker and Giraud did some work on that.
Luckily, in my case, I don't need to deal with them.
10:16
@Daminark You are doing the Lord's work.
3
@Tobias Peter mentioned once that you could sorta define homotopy on simplicial sets without thinking about them yet as topological spaces, is it that kinda thing?
I'm only dealing with $$1 \to H^0(\mathbb{Z},N) \to H^0(\mathbb{Z},G) \to H^0(\mathbb{Z},G/N) \to H^1(\mathbb{Z},N) \to H^1(\mathbb{Z},G) \to H^1(\mathbb{Z},G/N) \to 1$$
for $N \triangleleft G$
@TimTheEnchanter vengeance?
@Daminark homotopy is not (co)homology. (co)homology can be seen as a purely algebraic thing (or in fact an abelian category thing)
@SteamyRoot Hmm, so in some sense the LHS spectral sequence with the entries switched
@TheRaidersofLasVegas Dankness must be shared.
10:20
Ah. Lol I guess I'm too used to it as overlaying on homotopy theory or something. But huh, that's nifty
@TobiasKildetoft Yup.
The nice thing is, while $H^1$ is (in general) not a group but an orbit space, you can define the "neutral element of $H^1(G)$" as the orbit of the neutral element in $G$.
And if you define $\operatorname{ker}(f) = f^{-1}([e])$, the preimage of this orbit, then the sequence is exact
10:35
@SteamyRoot Neat. I never really did any nonabelian cohomology, though apparently it has some uses for algebraic groups (there is a paper of Stewart on it that I keep meaning to read)
11:11
any1 got a ping?
I got a ping but unable to find out by whom and where?
user84215
when?
just a min ago!
@BAYMAX Was not in this room. Might be in another room
ok
I never tried MSE on Android !
any1 can share their experience?
12:12
Yo
does anyone know where can I find @Ted 's book on abstract algebra?
Maybe in portuguese? :p
We've decided the sequel should be called Lovecraftian Mythos: The Things That Should Not Be Known Approach
12:36
Good morning
Good morning to you / Good morning to you / You look kind of drowsy / In fact, you look lousy / Is this the right way / To start a new day?
12:51
@AkivaWeinberger My idea of trying to derive a "generalised comoving frame" might be similar to what you interpret form that message. Picture the usual euclidean metric as a regular grid of squares. Now as time progress, the grid become distorted by some continous deformation parametrised by time.
For the simple case of train stations which I investigated with semi, it seemed to simulate the impression of objects moving about because there distance literally changes due to the deforming metric tensor (and hence the metric)
The open question is whether it can always be done for arbitrary motions of n objects, by picking a suitable continous deformation that is parametrised by one parameter such as time
If the answer is positive, then we can always find a frame in a dynamical system such that all objects of interest become frozen in place, and the movement is implicated by the time varying metric tensor
PS: I don't think I know what a homeomophism class is
user84215
Why do the bold command and shift + Enter not work with each other properly ?
@aminliverpool only single-line messages can be formatted
user84215
I mean for example
user84215
**hjkkjjkj** njknjknjkbnjk knknknk
jnjknjnj jnjnj kn **knknkn**
user84215
13:07
I used one bold command for each line.
I know
2 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
@aminliverpool only single-line messages can be formatted
The message is multi-line, so it cannot be formatted
user84215
Thanks.
13:47
I need to use Fourier's integrals in C++. Is it possible to compute them with any of the new built-in functions of C++17 (http://en.cppreference.com/w/cpp/experimental/special_math) ? or do I have to implement my own solver?

Said otherwise: can Fourier's integrals be expressed as a function of some elliptic integrals (and others, see link above)?

[is this a question I should ask on the main site?]
pardon, brainfart on my side, FRESNEL integrals, not Fourier
14:02
::sprays chat room with air freshener::
sorry ::flogs himself::
::brings out the whip:: How many lashes should we give him?
::1, 2, 3, ... 6, 7::
Let that^ be a lesson to you.
Fourier indeed.
14:21
ouch :(
but I guess that the answer to the question is a "no", right?
14:36
@Secret Two things are in the same homeomorphism class if they're homeomorphic
(And here "class" is appropriate since I guess it's a proper class and not a set)
Did you see the conversation I had with Balarka?
Speaking of, I have a simpler solution which I'll send him later when he rejoins the chat
Last I saw him he said he was about to travel 2000 kilometers
Nobody's in the room right now to help pal. They'll usually ping you @Federico
(2 megameters?)
@skullpatrol ok, thanks :)
np
You could ask on the main site @Federico
and then post a link to your question in here
A lot of people do that.
Sorry for the whipping :-)
Done
0
Q: Can Fresnel integrals be expressed as a function of other functions/integrals?

FedericoI need to use Fresnel integrals in C++. Is it possible to compute them with any of the new built-in functions of C++17? or do I have to implement my own solver? Said otherwise: can Fresnel integrals be expressed as a function of some elliptic integrals (and others, see link above)?

prays not to have messed up the tags
14:56
@AkivaWeinberger The connection between our questions with ricci flow seems quite interesting, though I must admit my topology is still poor thus part of the conversation I don't quite get it, but I will get there eventually...
Can someone help me understand an answer? I don't understand the steps after $f(x,y)=y^TC_{n-1}x^TC_n-x^TC_{n-1}y^TC_n\leq 0$. Here is the post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1771525/…
The part of the discussion about knots seemed to make sense to me intuitively, but how the manhattan metric fail to embed in higher dimensional space is not quite without reading a proof
and suppose I understood the part about ricci flow correctly, our questions both concern about a 1 parameter deformation but without the need to satisfy some kind of diffusion equation like in ricci flow
In any case, manifolds are homogenous, which means (I believe) there's always a homeomorphism that sends one set of $n$ points to any other set of $n$ points
So we can take the metrics inherited from those, and then average them as discussed
So you mean the averaged metric will have the required property that its homeomophism class will be preserved by any continuous 1 parameter deformations?
*connected manifolds
By averaged metric I mean $\lambda d_1+(1-\lambda)d_2$, so $\lambda$ is the parameter
But yeah, if $d_1$ and $d_2$ are homeomorphic, so is the averaged thing, even as $\lambda$ changes
15:26
Interesting. Hmm... so feeding this into my idea, if I have n mutually incompatible reference frames (due to accelerations, I cannot find a single inertial frame for all moving objects) and in each frame I try to write a time varying metric tensor to capture all the motions seen in the frame, then I am basically introducing a one parameter deformation to my given metric.
Now, if the metric tensor in these n reference frames are homeomophic then I can potentially average all n of them to get the averaged metric tensor which by the above argument should preserve the homeomophism class
16:11
This doesn't appear to be on the starboard yet, so...
5 problems, $1000 each, they look fun, made by Conway.
https://oeis.org/A248380/a248380.pdf
2
Oh yes, and the last problem has already been solved, so actually 4 problems remain
@Federico Oh, hi
16:35
Whoa, cool
$13532385396179=13\times53^2\times3853\times96179$
@SimplyBeautifulArt hi! and thanks for the "real only" tip! :)
so it solves the last problem as claimed
:P np @Federico
16:53
Hey!
I just needed little help. When I am in an elevator going upwards with acceleration with a. What is the apparent gravitational force g+a or g-a. Just wish to understand this intuitively so that I can later derive Atwood machine formulas.
Research Effort: Had discussion with a person on physics.SE, read 3 books - Mechanics Part 1, Concepts of Physics and Resnick Halliday
Have you ever been in an elevator
Do you feel heavier or lighter
@AkivaWeinberger It's been a while since I have been in an elevator :(
(when it's just starting to ascend or ending a descent)
@Abcd …Where do you live?
@AkivaWeinberger India. There is no dearth of elevators here but I rarely use them. Moreover, I am so busy at home and school that I have no time to visit Elevator places.
In any case, it's $g+a$ if it's accelerating upwards
or, actually, is $g$ a vector here?
16:58
@AkivaWeinberger Yes
I don't know if I should treat it as $\approx9$ or $\approx-9$
@AkivaWeinberger How?
@AkivaWeinberger Downwards negative 10 and upwards +10
Well, if it's accelerating upwards at 9.8 m/s^2, then you don't feel weightless
That only happens if it's going down 9.8 m/s^2, aka freefall
@AkivaWeinberger Yes.
@AkivaWeinberger Depends which way I'm going
16:59
But now I'm not sure if $g$ and $a$ even have the same sign when you're accelerating upwards
So how do I know the apparent gravitational force?
@AkivaWeinberger Very unsafe elevator

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