I've written a proof on an open cover for $\mathbb{Q}\cap [0,1]$ with no finite subcover
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2250567/an-open-cover-for-mathbbq-cap-0-1-that-does-not-contain-a-finite-subcover
Does the line : Then, the finite subcover has the form $\{(\frac{\sqrt 2}{2},2), O_{n_{1}}, O_{n_{2}}, ... ,O_{n_{k}}$ for some $k\in \mathbb{N} \big \}$.
require more justification or it's clear enough?