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22:00
@Zach I have to work on manifolds for now, but I may play eventually
Zach has things to think about, but he's just being procrastinative, as usual.
$(x + y + z)^2 = 2(x^2 + y^2 + z^2)$
Huh?
me too
I have tacos to eat.
Isn't everyone procrastinative?
22:01
You're supposed to be asleep, Balarka.
I sure am
@TedShifrin with ur subtitution or @MeowMix's substitution?
am i now
"Work on manifolds" for me means "initiate the process of procrastinating on manifolds"
No, Zach's substitution was not good. Mine.
22:01
Huh?! I tried my hardest!
You have manifold ways of procrastinating on manifolds, Demonark, we know.
But I still have to expand that ugly terms.
For sure
Well, the original are more ugly than the eq I got with ur substitution.
With classwork the easiest thing for me was to spend some time immediately after being given the assignment, going through them and seeing which ones I can think through immediately and memorizing the ones I didn't know how to do.
22:02
Multiply each side by 0. Therefore, it is true. braces for smack
I am forgetting Zorn's lemma. halp
I'd usually come up with the solution while doing whatever.
at least with sort of challenging rigorous mathematics type exercises.
That's probably not a good strategy for the busywork my calc students get.
@BalarkaSen it's just the axiom of choice
:P
Oh yeah Ted's is kinda better lol
not helpful man
22:04
If you have a partially ordered set, whether or not every chain has an upper bound, there is a maximal element
Another problem: how to prove $x^2+1=0$ has no solutions in $\mathbb{R}$.
(I already proved it, no need help)
It might be more helpful (understandable) than "if in a poset every chain has an upper bound then there is a maximal element"
prove that $x^2 \geq 0$ for $x$ in R will suffice
@Daminark "whether or not"? are you trying to troll
22:06
The way Zorn's lemma is stated is super useful and a lot easier for me to understand then AoC or WOP.
Yeah, that's the easy way :P
Ok, got it. Thanks everyone.
There's like one or two problems in Atiyah and MacDonald where its easier to use the straight AoC
Yeah @Balarka, it was if every chain has an upper bound
I did some manipulations.
22:07
and I always felt those were really challenging.
I have only seen AoC used in ways that were very much... off to the side/intermediary
It's easy to miss AoC
But if Zorn's lemma comes up it looks you in the face
eg in the proof that Noetherian module iff every submodule is finitely generated
there's plenty of proofs that use Zorn very explicitely
I think generally in specific applications its difficult to find products where existence of elements is interesting, but posets on the other hand are plentiful and many of your techniques not involving AC (likes bases of vector spaces) already use posets pretty explicitly.
@Balarka That one's probably easier to do with Zorn.
Ya it's obvious with Zorn
22:26
That makes sense @PVAL
The main scenario I've seen thus far that used the axiom of choice was in Banach-Tarski, in designating certain points as the starters for the orbits
23:06
I've written a proof on an open cover for $\mathbb{Q}\cap [0,1]$ with no finite subcover
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2250567/an-open-cover-for-mathbbq-cap-0-1-that-does-not-contain-a-finite-subcover

Does the line : Then, the finite subcover has the form $\{(\frac{\sqrt 2}{2},2), O_{n_{1}}, O_{n_{2}}, ... ,O_{n_{k}}$ for some $k\in \mathbb{N} \big \}$.

require more justification or it's clear enough?
23:31
@LittleRookie: It seems fine to me.
Of course, @LittleRookie, what's going on is that $O_j\subset O_k$ when $j\le k$, so finitely many $O_j$ might just as well be replaced by $O_{\max j}$.
Hey folks, if there exist some upper triangular matrices A, B, and C which solve AA^\dagger + BB^\dagger = CC^\dagger, is there a cheap way to calculate C given A and B?
Hi I'm here
@Evan: What's \dagger?
23:34
adjoint
conjugate transpose, rather
Got it.
Upper triangular makes it easy, I guess.
I'm not even sure C is unique or whatever, but does this look like anything familiar to anyone?
Can't we just take $C=A+B$?
you'll get cross products, right?
23:36
gn, @MikeM
sleepy
Well, let's write $A=D+U$ and $B=D'+U'$, @Evan.
Hi.
I have a question about the system: $\begin{cases} x'=-y \\y'=x \end{cases}$
I got as eigenvalues $\lambda = \pm i$ and I got as eigenvectors $\mbox{col}(is,s)$ where $0\neq s \in \mathbb{R}$
Yeah, I take it back, @Evan.
The solution curves are circles centered at the origin, @Topologicalife.
so if I take $s=1$ I got as eigenvectors $(0,1)$ and $(1,0)$, is that correct?
23:40
No, where did your $i$ go?
Yeah, I know, but I got a problem I can't solve in my resolution.
$(\pm i,1)$.
Yeah but I'm writing $(\pm i,1)$ as $(0,1) + i(1,0)$
You can't diagonalize working over $\Bbb R$, @Topologicalife, only working over $\Bbb C$.
so I can build my real basis with $(0,1)$ and $(1,0)$
23:42
With respect to the real basis you wrote, you'll get a matrix of the form $\begin{bmatrix} \cos t & -\sin t \\ \sin t & \cos t\end{bmatrix}$, not a diagonal.
Fun fact: getting cut with fine glass hurts.
In other words, you'll get back to your original skew-symmetric matrix ($t=\pi/2$).
Hello, everyone. Got some small question: If $G$ is a Lie group. Does the set of all left invariant vector fields on $G$ consitute a $C^{\infty}(G)$-module or $K$-vector space?
Okay, let me rewrite it...
Very dangerous game, Zach.
23:43
It wasn't on purpose...
I had to pick up the large shards of glass that fell.
I just finished vacuuming.
I take it you broked something glass, Zach?
Mhm. A bowl of fruit.
Luckily, I already ate all the fruit.
So it was just a bowl.
@Sergey: The latter. Putting in a general function on $G$ will ruin invariance.
You need constants.
@TedShifrin Thanks
To get the complex eigenvectors I solve $(A- \lambda I)w_1 = 0$ where $w_1 = \mathbf{u} + i\mathbf{v}$. Now I obtain ther real basis $\mathbf{u},\mathbf{v} \in \mathbb{R}^2$. If $w_1 = (a+bi, c+di)$ then $\mathbf{u} = (a,b), \quad \mathbf{v} = (c,d)$ so that ...
23:47
@Topologicalife: I know the game.
You're going to get back to your original matrix.
@Ted Sorry I haven't been doing a lot of math as of late. Sometimes I like to focus on programming and general computer stuff more than math.
No, you mean to use $(a,c)$ and $(b,d)$.
@SergeyDylda Note that a left-invariant vector field is determined by its value at a point.
The key point being that $G$ acts transitively on $G$ (i.e., one orbit).
And for that reason, I'm conflicted about CS and pure math...
23:50
Zach, wait 5 more years to worry about it.
now I can construct a matrix $C=\begin{bmatrix}{a}&{b}\\{c}&{d}\end{bmatrix}$ and the solution will be $Ce^{\mbox{Re}(\lambda)} \begin{bmatrix}{\cos (wt)}&{-\sin(wt)}\\{\sin(wt)}&{\cos(wt)}\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}{c_1}\\{c_2}\end{bmatrix}$
@TedShifrin Can we say that push-forward is not $C^\infty$ linear thus left-invariance is ruined?
agreed
Oh @TedShifrin, that is what my book says. So I suppose is an error.
@SergeyDylda No, fX is just no longer an invariant vector field.
23:52
Well, @Topologicalife: You can check the details of what I said directly. You want real and imaginary parts of the complex eigenvector.
You are right, yeah.
@SergeyDylda: Pushforward by whom?
But I didn't notice it until you said it.
Thank you so much, I'm going to give it a look.
@Ted With the way things are heading it seems like in 50 years you'll have to know what you want to do from when you're 5 :P
Demonark: At the rate things are going right now, the world may not be here in 5 years.
23:53
I'm probably going to be going to the college all my siblings went to.
Eh, I'm a bit more optimistic than that
@TedShifrin By derivative induced by left translation map
For it to be linear over $C^\infty$ functions, the function has to be constant on orbits.
I hate being sad and gloomy. But we're all doomed to die some day.
Yeah, my fault for being less than optimistic ...
23:55
And the news doesn't help either.
I suppose. Though if the world ends in 5 years there will be no need to spend my 30s panicking about tenure so I dunno
If the world ends in 5 years I won't be able to do any algebraic geometry stuffs.
@TedShifrin I checked what you said and I still have the same problem
@Topologicalife: Can you succinctly and clearly tell me what the problem is?
$Ce^{\mbox{Re}(\lambda)} \begin{bmatrix}{\cos (wt)}&{-\sin(wt)}\\{\sin(wt)}&{\cos(wt)}\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}{c_1}\\{c_2}\end{bmatrix}$ isn't a solution for my problem.
Yeah.
23:56
@Meow Are you referring to the news in general or is there some meteor coming that I haven't heard about? I basically don't know what's happening in the world right now
Psets leave no time for such things
Sensationalism is what I meant.
@Topologicalife: The eigenvalues are $\pm i$, whose real part is $0$.
The solution of a system of linear ode's is $Ce^{\mbox{Re}(\lambda)} \begin{bmatrix}{\cos (wt)}&{-\sin(wt)}\\{\sin(wt)}&{\cos(wt)}\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}{c_1}\\{c_2}\end{bmatrix}$ where $C$ is the matrix I said a few lines before. Are you agree with this?
My problem is that solution doesn't hold for my system.
Also ha ha @Zach if the world ends in 5 years I'll still be able to do algebraic geometry in 2 so :P
$C=\begin{bmatrix}{0}&{1}\\{1}&{0}\end{bmatrix}$
23:57
Lol jk I'm sure you'll do great
@Ted Is there eigenv[alue/ector] stuff in your LA / MV book?
@Topologicalife: It does too. No, you left out a minus!
Yes, Zach, all of chapter 9.
Isn't $C$ supposed to be your original matrix giving the ODE?
Sometimes I wonder if I'm going to be a complete failure at math. Like not know how to prove anything. Basically, I'm scared of doing my own research without a Ted to consult for a hint.
23:59
No, $C$ is the matrix formed by $\mathbf{u}$ and $\mathbf{v}$
Zach: You have a long way to go.
"a Ted"
I do.
10 years+
Actually, maybe not that much.

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