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00:03
Would a question about math journals be welcome here?
rehi @Semiclassic
Sure @Benjamin
Like what, @Benjamin?
I can't for the life of me understand that, @Semiclassic.
aaaaahhh three's two of us noooooooooooooo
It talks about a variable parabola and then we end up with the equation of a circle.
00:05
I also can't grok that question
Oh yeah, there are two Benjamins. Worse than having two Teds.
@TedShifrin Yes, I got buzzed yesterday about another Benjamin's post.
Two Benjamins with very similar avatars, too.
What journal would be most appropriate for a paper introducing a new trigonometric function?
Well, the pings goes on the first four or five letters, so you're screwed, Benjamin. One of you should change names :P
00:08
can you change how your name displays? my MSE name is my full name, haha
A "new" trigonometric function? This sounds dubious. Say a bit more.
@TedShifrin I am fine to just deal with it because the discussion I ran into actually turned out to be interesting.
anyway, you had some sort of question about a paper or journal?
But this why I always refer to MikeM and DanielF.
@TedShifrin Not wholly new, but a function that is combination of other trigonometric functions to get a new and interesting result in the pattern of circles and arcs.
00:12
Depending on the mathematical content and depth, possible the MAA's Mathematics Magazine or American Math Monthly.
But I've certainly turned down articles for those.
@TedShifrin What is the average length for papers in those journals?
I don't know for sure. I would say something like 5 printed pages.
There are shorter ones, for sure.
Best for you to take a look at them (probably can't see them on line without a membership) ...
@TedShifrin I can get them through the library.
I think.
@TedShifrin It is a nice short paper, probably about that length, if not shorter so it should fit that. I will definitely take a look. Thanks!
At some point if you want to email it to me, I'll be happy to give you an opinion, Benjamin.
@TedShifrin Once it is a bit more polished, I'll look at that.
00:15
Sure thing.
Do those journals allow preprint publication?
What do you mean by "allow"?
@TedShifrin Do they permit authors to publish preprints on ArXiv?
I'm not sure that ArXiv wants things of this level, but I'm not sure about that. I have no idea, actually, but most journals know that people post pre-publication research-level stuff on the ArXiv.
@TedShifrin I didn't mean ArXiv per se, just a major priority of mine is open access.
00:22
I cannot speak with authority on this.

The Story of Large Numbers, a dive into the unknown

Apr 1 at 0:14, 9 minutes total – 2 messages, 1 user, 0 stars

Bookmarked Apr 1 at 0:24 by Simply Beautiful Art

The Story of Large Numbers, a dive into the unknown: 2nd chapter

13 mins ago, 5 minutes total – 2 messages, 1 user, 0 stars

Bookmarked 7 mins ago by Simply Beautiful Art

Chapters 1 and 2 are available for those looking for a simple read
Are you calling me a simpleton, @Simply?
@TedShifrin No, the 'simple' was my trademark ;)
hi @Adeek
Why does everyone name themselves ramanujan? I know he's awesome and all, but c'mon, I've seen so many of your unoriginal username lol
00:37
I concur, @Simply.
I should have named myself Gauss or Riemann.
for example? :P dont know any other MSE user named ramanujan
@SimplyBeautifulArt These look interesting. What about $ω^ω^ω^ω^...$
@ramanujan_dirac
https://math.stackexchange.com/users/419835/srinivasa-ramanujan
https://math.stackexchange.com/users/235721/ramanujan
https://math.stackexchange.com/users/276533/ramanujan
@Benjamin Not finite. At least not yet
in a world dominated by the work of grothendieck and serre, ramanujans work can never be overappreciated
00:39
@SimplyBeautifulArt Okay.
@Benjamin Heard of the fast growing hierarchy?
@SimplyBeautifulArt Maybe, but not with that term. What is it?
@Benjamin A way to classify function growth rate using ordinals
It works like this:
@SimplyBeautifulArt No, I haven't seen that.
$f_0(n) = n+1$
$f_{\alpha+1}(n) = f_\alpha^n(n) = f_\alpha(f_\alpha(...f_\alpha(n)...))$
$f_\alpha(n) = f_{\alpha[n]}(n)$
where $\alpha[n]$ means to take the $n$th term in the fundamental sequence of $\alpha$ if $\alpha$ is a limit ordinal.
00:42
@ramanujan_dirac: Suffice to say some of us appreciate his intellect but are not big fans of that mathematics.
@SimplyBeautifulArt That makes sense, I should go read more about this.
@Benjamin It grows extremely rapidly. Everything I've written in chapter 2 of the above 'Story' eventually grows slower than $f_{\omega2}(n)$
@TedShifrin: thats exactly my point. i would be happy if there was more place in academia for that sort of math, and if journals were not dominated by category theorists (for example)
@SimplyBeautifulArt As would be expected given its finite nature.
Journals are far from dominated by category theorists.
But how does what I say make you say "that's exactly my point"? I don't like Ramanujan-style math.
I don't like category-style math, either.
00:45
@Benjamin Well, I've seen some python programs that have functions on the order of the Large Veblen Ordinal, if that makes any sense to you.
@SimplyBeautifulArt Don't know much about it as it is not an area I do much with, but I know enough to know it is sizeable.
@Benjamin Well, if you wish, you can learn how to write large computable ordinals just as @Secret is learning.
TGIF btw guys
@SimplyBeautifulArt I wouldn't mind learning, I always can make some free time for math.
@SimplyBeautifulArt Yes, definitely.
LOL ... someone just said "Shit. I see my mistake now." after I'd pointed out he hadn't read the question right and he insisted he was right. :P
The definition of the one argument ordinal collapsing function is given as follows:
$\Omega$ is the first uncountable ordinal
$C(\alpha)_0=\{0,1,\omega,\Omega\}$
$C(\alpha)_{n+1}=C(\alpha)_n \cup\{\gamma+\delta,\gamma\delta,\gamma^\delta ,\psi(\eta):\gamma,\delta,\eta\in C(\alpha)_n,\eta<\alpha \}$
$C(\alpha)=\bigcup\limits_{n<\omega}C(\alpha)_n$
$\psi(\alpha)=\min\{\beta:\beta\notin C(\alpha)\}$
@Benjamin You will need some MathJax and a lot of brain space if you aren't familiar with this area of math
00:52
@SimplyBeautifulArt I am not great at MathJax, but I can do LaTex and I have brain space.
@Benjamin Well, let me explain the first value: $\psi(0)$.
Since we can never have negative numbers, we don't need to worry about the condition $\psi(\eta)$.
$C(0)_0=\{0,1,\omega,\Omega\}$
Benjamin: See the LaTeX in chat link up there >>>>> ^^^^
Now add these, multiply them, and exponentiate them.
$C(0)_1 =\{0,1,\omega,\Omega,1+1 ,\omega+1,\omega +\omega,\omega\omega ,\omega^\omega,\Omega+1,\Omega+ \omega,\dots\}$
$=\{0,1,2,\omega,\omega+1,\omega2 ,\omega^2,\omega^\omega,\Omega\text{ stuff}\}$
We then do this again. Add, multiply, and exponentiate all of these to get $C(0)_2$
@SimplyBeautifulArt So, this is somewhat similar to $\aleph$ notation.
$\psi(0)$ is the smallest ordinal you never can reach
@Benjamin Meh, I don't really know about that...
00:57
@TedShifrin I have it. Is MathJax basically LaTex?
Yes, with a few tweaks
Yup, Benjamin. I hardly ever tweak.
So, as you might be able to notice, the smallest ordinal you can't reach is...
$$\psi(0)=\omega^{\omega^{\omega^{\omega^{\dots}}}}$$
20 mins ago, by Benjamin
@SimplyBeautifulArt These look interesting. What about $ω^ω^ω^ω^...$
The thing you hinted to earlier
Now, $\psi(1)$ is even larger...
$C(1)_0=\{0,1,\omega,\Omega\}$
Now, add these, multiply them, and exponentiate, but you may also take $\psi(\eta)$ under the following conditions:
$\eta\in C(1)_{n-1}$
$\eta<1\implies\eta=0$
Clearly, $0\in C(1)_0$, so...
$C(1)_1=\{0,1,\omega,\Omega, 1+1,\omega+1,\omega+\omega,\omega\omega,\omega^\omega ,\Omega+1,\dots,\Omega^\Omega,\psi(0)\}$
I am following with pencil and paper.
So now everything to the left of $\Omega+1$ will end up producing everything less than $\psi(0)$. Likewise, we may now do things with $\psi(0)$ to get even higher. The smallest ordinal we can't reach is...
$$\psi(1)=\psi(0)^{\psi(0)^{\psi(0)^{\psi(0)^{\dots}}}}$$
01:03
parenthetically remarks: in favor of pencil and paper.
How do I visualize $|z1 -z2| \geq |z1| - |z2|$
xD
Especially for math
@BAYMAX Triangle rule implies the use of triangles
@Benjamin Are you good so far?
Yes, @BAYMAX, draw a triangle and think about lengths.
@SimplyBeautifulArt Is $$\psi(2)=\psi(1)^{\psi(1)^{\psi(1)^{\psi(1)^{\dots}}}}$$?
Yes @Benjamin
And so it continues on like this...
01:05
@SimplyBeautifulArt But what would $$\psi(0)^{\psi(1)^{\psi(2)^{\psi(3)^{\dots}}}}$$ be?
until we reach $\psi(\omega)$. Let's look at its construction:
the length of a side of a triangle is less than the sum of the lengths of the other two sides and greater than the difference of the lengths of the other two sides.
Yes good @SimplyBeautifulArt
@Benjamin That would be $\psi(\omega)$, since every higher psi function is a fixed point of the previous
yes@TedShifrin
@SimplyBeautifulArt Okay.
01:06
@Benjamin That is, notice that $\psi(1)=\psi(0)^{\psi(1)}$ and so on...
like how the third side is thought of as $|z1 -z2|$
@SimplyBeautifulArt That makes sense.
if we treat $|z1-z2|$ as third side
we can apply the triangle rule
and we get the result
Precisely, @BAYMAX, if two sides are $z_1$ and $z_2$, the third side will be $\pm(z_1-z_2)$.
Now, $\psi(\omega)$ looks like this:
$C(\omega)_1=\{0,1\omega,\Omega,1+1,\omega+1,\dots,\Omega+1,\dots,\psi(0),\psi(1)\}$
Eventually, you will notice we will construct every natural number, and since every natural number is less than $\omega$, we may take $\psi(k)$ for each $k<\omega$. Likewise, each $\psi(k+1)$ is larger than anything you can reach from $\psi(k)$
Also, you will also be able to fill in all the gaps and construct all the in between ordinals
01:09
consider the right angled triangle 3,4,5@TedShifrin
@SimplyBeautifulArt Just to note: I definitely see connections to $\aleph$ notation.
Thus, the smallest ordinal we can't construct is...
$$\psi(\omega)=\sup\{\psi(1),\psi(2),\psi(3),\dots\}$$
What am I supposed to consider, @BAYMAX?
@Benjamin Well, it is set theory-ish
01:09
got it
@SimplyBeautifulArt True.
one of the vertices in origin
then one side islength is z1
@Benjamin So what would be $\psi(\omega+1)$?
other length z2
Right triangles won't be anywhere near the problem.
01:10
and vector rule
?
@SimplyBeautifulArt Can you have non-integer ks?
Make a very flat triangle (with one angle almost 0).
@Benjamin No
@ramanujan_dirac hi
Make a very flat triangle (with one angle almost 0).
here comes equality right?
01:12
@SimplyBeautifulArt $$\sup\{\psi(1),\psi(2),\psi(3),\dots\,\psi(\omega-3},\psi(\omega-2},\psi(\omega‌​-1}, \psi(\omega}$$
Right, that's where you see that you need slightly better than equality.
@Benjamin $\omega-k$ doesn't make sense though
You also used } instead of )
@SimplyBeautifulArt True, but it is out of habit.
nice1@TedShifrin
@SimplyBeautifulArt Thank you, I missed that.
01:13
thanks@TedShifrin@SimplyBeautifulArt
Of course, @BAYMAX.
@Benjamin Well, $\psi(\omega+1)$ is just an infinite tower of $\psi(\omega)$
:) >>>
$\psi(\omega2)$ is just the limit of $\psi(\omega+k)$
@Benjamin You get the general idea? Or am I going too fast?
@SimplyBeautifulArt Can you have $$\psi({\psi({\omega}))}$$
@SimplyBeautifulArt I get the general idea and will probably review this later to be sure.
01:15
@Benjamin Yes, you can have that
We then have this:
Let $\alpha$ be the following ordinal:
$$\alpha=\psi(\psi(\dots\psi(\omega)\dots))$$
It is extremely large, no doubt
bye all.
@BAYMAX Bye.
And we clearly have $\psi(\alpha)=\alpha$
@BAYMAX bye
But what is $\psi(\alpha+1)$?
@Benjamin@SimplyBeautifulArt bye,good day.
@Benjamin Well, let's look at its construction
01:18
@SimplyBeautifulArt I am sort of lost on this one.
$C(\alpha+1)_0=\{0,1,\omega,\Omega\}$
$C(\alpha+1)_1=\{0,1,2,\omega,\omega+1 ,\omega2,\omega^2,\omega^\omega, \Omega\text{ stuff},\psi(0),\psi(1),\psi(\omega)\}$
Is it equal?
$C(\alpha+1)_2=\{0,1,2,3,4,\omega+(0,1,2,3),\omega(2,3,4),\omega^{\omega+1} ,\dots,\Omega \text{ stuff}\\,\psi(0),\psi(1),\psi(\omega), \psi(0)+1,\psi(1)+1,\dots,\psi(\psi(0)),\psi(\psi(1)),\psi(\psi(\omega))\}$
Sorry, I have to go for now, but I will keep considering this and try to figure it out.
@Benjamin Wait! Before you leave!
Notice that you can never truly do $\psi(\dots)$ an infinite amount of times. Therefore...
$$\psi(\alpha+1)=\alpha$$
Likewise, for bigger ordinals, $\psi(\beta)=\alpha$
01:23
@SimplyBeautifulArt Okay, this is sort of the lines along which I was thinking.
Even $\psi(\Omega)=\alpha$
But $\psi(\Omega+1)$ is different
@SimplyBeautifulArt So, it forms a maximum. Can it ever be larger?
@Benjamin Write down the rules of this function a few times and see if you can spot what's so diffferent about $\psi(\Omega+1)$
@Secret Can also read the above stuff
@Benjamin Every maximum shall be exceeded, except for the impossible. Which would be the set of uncomputable ordinals
@SimplyBeautifulArt Well, I will read it later and try to figure it out. Goodbye. Should I read the stuff you showed secret?
@Benjamin Lol, I suppose it is good stuff to read under the bed sheets in candle light
and good night!
01:33
Hello, people. Is there anyone who is familliar with tensor/exterior algebras?
 
2 hours later…
03:31
Hey @Adeek, sorry I was watching a play for my theater class at the time :P
03:42
Is difference of two increasing functions increasing?
Doubtful.
Actually a montonically incresing function is differentiable almost everywhere
As a simple counterexample, $x$ and $2x$ are both increasing but $x-2x$ isn't increasing.
yes
Like how functions of bounded variation imply function to be differentiable almost everywhere
?
Couldn't tell you.
03:46
ohhh
see the amazing sequence
I hope you may appreciate it, here is the statement -
"Every absolutely continuous function is of bounded variation and hence is differentiable almost everywhere."
Now I got the first part
A monotone function has only countably many discontinuities
now I wanna show bounded variation implies differentiable almost everywhere
Thus, so does one of bounded variation
now a function of bounded variation can be written as ifference of two increasing functions
now the difference of two incresing functions nedd not be incresing in general but can be Monotone I guess ----- ".."
and now montone functions are differentiable almost everywhere
so functions of bounded variation implies differentiable almost everywhere.
.............
Oh wait if you already know that monotone functions are differentiable almost everywhere you're done
Say $f = g-h$ where $g$ and $h$ are monotone
03:51
is this true that difference of two incresing functions is a MONOTONE .
Call the set of points where $g$ is not differentiable $E_g$
@Semiclassical@Daminark
And similarly for $E_h$
Then the set of points where $f$ is not differentiable is a subset of $E_g \cup E_h$, which is measure 0
Like, if two functions are differentiable at a point, so is their difference
@BAYMAX still no. for a piecewise continuous case, take $f(x)=2x$ for $x\geq 0$ and $f(x)=x<0$.
So even though functions of bounded variation are not necessarily monotone, it doesn't matter
03:53
Then $f(x)-f(-x)=x$ for $x>0$ and $-x$ for $x<0$.
Both functions are increasing, but their difference is increasing for $x>0$ and decreasing for $x<0$.
Ok NOW I SEE THAT THIS IS NOT TRUE FOR ALL FUNCTIONS
SO THIS MUST BE TRUE FOR A SPECIAL SET OF FUNCTIONS
AND HENCE HERE COMES THE ORIGINAL STATEMENT OF THEOREM - :)
"Every Absolutely continuous function is of bounded variation and hence is differentiable almost everywhere"
I think the piecewise continuous functions is not absolutely continuous function@Semiclassical
Presumably not. But I imagine one can product a smoothed version of the above.
@BAYMAX Yeah, take $f(x)=x\left(\dfrac{2-e^{x}}{1-e^x}\right)$.
For large positive $x$, that behaves as $x$. For large negative $x$, it behaves as $2x$. In between, it interpolates between the two.
04:10
hmm
And then one can take $f(x)$, $-f(-x)$.
Both are monotonically increasing, but the difference between the two is an even function.
Hence, can't be monotonic.
so in general difference of two increasing imply monotone in general is not true.
I have to think other way around.
MMM
MMM
04:50
Hello everyone
Anyone interested in Maple software then come and join us here
67
Maple

Proposed Q&A site for students, teachers and researchers who are using Maple for symbolic and numerical computation.

Currently in commitment.

05:38
Hello
 
4 hours later…
09:24
Is it possible to have a "short line"?
09:39
@Secret What do you mean?
I'm having some trouble with functional analysis problem - I think I am not understanding something, I have no idea how to proceed
Should be a rather simple question..
I am not sure, recall that a long line is $[0,1]\times \omega$, thus it seemed longer than the real line due to the topology effectively ballooning up each point in the interval into a countable set.

Therefore, a short line will be something like $[0,1]\times ?$ where ? will be some number or set such that the resulting line is still an uncountable set, but "shorter" because e.g. infinite many points in the interval [0,1] get identified into one single point still within the interval
Ah, hm
10:38
I'll pop my question:
I am defining $L$ as a linear operator in $l^2$, defined by the infinite matrix $(a_{ij})_{i,j=1}^\infty$.
We say that $\sum_{k=-\infty}^\infty sup_{i\in N} |a_{i, i+k}|< \infty $
(Where $a_{ij}=0$ if $j<=0$)
Hi @Danu.
Hi Balarka
I am asked to show that $L$ is bounded - and more so the bound is the above sum. How do I even approach such a proof?
Wanna check a dumb proof of a linear algebra fact that I wrote down?
Maybe. What's the fact?
10:41
I wanna show that any complex structure on a vector space $V^{2n}$ is compatible with (i.e. orthogonal wrt) an inner product
So I do induction: Pick $x_1\in V$ and set $x_2=Jx_1$. Those are linearly independent.
Then complete to a basis and declare it to be orthonormal to find $V=\operatorname{span}(x_1,Jx_1)\oplus V'$ where $V'$ has a basis of the form $x_2, Jx_2,\dots, x_n, Jx_n$ by induction assumption. THen declare that basis to be orthonormal to obtain the inner product I want
That works, right? Really all I need to show is that I can find a basis of the form $x_1, Jx_1,\dots x_n,J x_n$
@BalarkaSen Whaddaya think?
Ok, and how's the inner product defined using that basis?
That basis being orthonormal
Then $J$ is orthogonal
Ah, so you're defining <-, -> to be orthonormal on that basis and then extending (bi)linearly
Yah, that most certainly works
yeah
I always feel so dumb when doing linear algebra
There's so little to work with
So when I don't immediately see something it's weird: Don't know what to try :P
I almost always try to think of R^n and C^n when I want to figure out why something is true, and when I see it's obviously true there I try to figure out what made it true.
10:49
hmm
Eg your proof is pretty natural if you think about C :)
So now I can answer the question Ted linked me yesterday
Cool
I'm trying to remember some differential topology but failing.
What difftop?
I was thinking to show that $||Lx||\leq K \cdot ||x||$ for all $x\in l^2$, where $K$ is that infinite sum..
10:56
@Danu There's a slick proof that nondegenerate (Morse) critical points are isolated which does not invoke Morse lemma. I have been trying to remember that for the last 5 minutes; I know it's in G-P but I don't want to look.
@BalarkaSen Oh, really? Morse functions in G-P? I must've forgotten that too, haha
Ah, Lefschetz critical points
Right, I remember
ya it's a single section of the first chapter
The Lefschetz stuff is in ch 3
If $f$ is a smooth function, the critical points are zeroes of $Df$ and the nondegenerate ones are such that $DDf$ is nonvanishing. One has to do inverse function theorem with $Df$ to prove isolation.
@Danu: Remind me the definition of omega-compatibility?
10:58
Or something like that.
@MikeMiller $\omega(-,J-)$ inner product
The proof that the space is conctractible that I nkow is the one in McDuff
it uses some annoying linear algebra stuff which is not very elegant
I'm probably not going to write that out in the answer I'm writing.
Though I probably should. But I don't want to spend time on it right now.
I already wrote it out once in my own notes
Hey guys, any example of a topology that is neither first nor second countable, thus making its limit points unable to be described by converging sequences?
Disjoint union of a a space which is not first countable and a space which is not second countable
Or $\omega_1+1$ should also work
I see
But are there more extreme examples, where the uncountable set itself is neither first nor second countable, and has no subsets that is either first or second countable?
11:15
Ah, my first suggestion is kinda pointless, since second countable implies first
No, singletons will always be second countable subspaces, as well as all finite subsets
So for general topological spaces, we can always talk about approaching limit points via converging sequences?

One reason I wonder about that is I seemed to rely on sequences too much when trying to find limit points given a topology, and wonder if I can always use this method, or have to get used to ways of finding limit points in the absence of converging sequences
I recall DHMO said finding limit points require taking arbitrary intersection of neighbourhoods
I guess I can't answer that question Ted linked after all
what was the q
Show that the space of complex structure $\mathcal J(V)$ is homotopy equivalent to the space of symplectic forms.
In a first countable space sequential closures coincide with the actual closures, that's not true in general
11:21
What I can say is that each $J$ lies in some $\mathcal J(V,\omega)$ and that that is contractible
ah i see
But I don't know much about the space of symplectic forms with which $J$ is compatible. Maybe it can be easy since I have some kind of convexity going on
Yeah, right. That's nice.
So that space is contractible too
Hmm, I guess I need to figure out how to train my arbitrary intersection computation skills...
Because the space of inner products is convex
I really suck at computing arbitrary unions and intersections because they are not very visual
11:24
@Danu And that's the proof, more or less
Right. I need to arrange things in my head, but I think that should be enough.
Right, so I associate to $J$ some $\omega$, unique up to homotopy
Consider the space of pairs $\mathcal J \times_{comp} \mathcal S$ of a complex structure and a symplectic form such that $J$ is $\omega$-compatible
then use that $\mathcal J(V,\omega)$ is contractible
There are projection maps from $\mathcal J \times_{comp} \mathcal S$ to each factor, and you just proved that their fibers are contractible. You need to know the bonus fact that the projection map is a fibration, but this is probably not that bad?
But in any case once you know that you can apply the homotopy LES to see that this bigger space is equiv to each of the other spaces.
Do I really need it to be a fiber bundle?
11:27
fibration is weaker than fiber bundle
have to have homotopy extension for discs
fiber bundle is probably pretty hard to prove
just a fibration in the sense of Serre then, I guess
I run into a little bit of trouble here since I know 0 homotopy theory
one probably doesn't need Serre fibration to have homotopy LES but i don't recall
I think a Serre fibration is pretty close to the minimal requirement, you don't need a Hurewicz fibration
That's the least you can get away with.
11:31
Ah I see, Serre says you have HLP wrt disks (hence CW complexes) and Hurewicz says for every space. not the other way round
So can any of you finish up the proof and write it out?
2
Q: Space of all complex structures on $V$ is homotopy equivalent to the space of (linear) symplectic forms on $V$

HasekHow can I prove that the space of all complex structures $I\colon V\to V$ is homotopy equivalent to the space of all non-degenerate skew-symmetric $2$-forms $\omega \in \Lambda^2V$? Skew-symmetry is seems to be related with the property $I^2=-\operatorname{id}_V$, but I can't formalize it to com...

'cause I don't know no fibrations
That's what I thought, the proof I know passed through the LES of a pair & you definitely need that homotopies from disks lift
That $\mathcal J(V,\omega)$ contractible is kind of ugly and proven on pages 64-65 of McDuff and Salamon's intro to symplectic geometry
@Benjamin Yeah I agree now.
can any one help m in searching out the source of this question
5
Q: Measure theory qualifying exam questions

Chris GartlandThe following question is a qualifying exam question, though I don't see how these two parts are related. (a)Let $(X, \mathcal F, \mu)$ be a measure space with $\mu(X)=1$ and suppose $F_1 , F_2, ...F_7$ are 7 measurable sets with $\mu(F_j) \geq 1/2$. Show that there exist indices $i_1<i_2<i_3<i_...

11:33
Oops, there are two Benjamins. Sorry, other Benjamin.
@BalarkaSen It's fine.
Actually, that book also says it's "easy to see" that the projections are (locally trivial) fibrations in this setup
@Danu there's a theorem of Serre's that's useful here, I'm trying to recall the source, but basically if you have local trivializations you have a Serre fibration
might be in switzer
Local trivialization means you're already a fiber bundle, or am I misunderstanding?
I'd assume so
11:45
Hi chat
@Danu It seems I haven't recieved the notes :/ (not that it is urgent or anything)
Huh.
Did you check your spam folder?
Good call
Cool, thanks again !
Beware of the many typos!
SBM
SBM
oh, hello
[Random] We have:
$$\sum_{i\in S} a_i$$
$$\prod_{i \in S}a_i$$
We should have:
SBM
SBM
11:53
wait what?
series
$$E_{i\in S} a_i=a_1^{a_2^{a_3}\cdots^{a_n}}$$
I'll mumble here since it might help me figure it out:
So I was thinking of writing $Lx=(\sum_{k=1}^\infty a_{1k}\cdot x_k, \sum_{k=1}^\infty a_{2k}\cdot x_k, ... )$. Then I should try to rearrange that so I can see the norm of $Lx$ as the norm of $x$ times some series of scalars - then somehow limit said series with that series of $sup$..

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