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03:00
sort of
Also it depends a lot on the professor
I am trying to understand the a step in the following proof I just want to make sure my reasoning is correct
Like, at least in my school, the curriculum is not set in stone at all
@BalarkaSen share.pho.to/AflDh Consider the following
Each element of G acts as a deck transformation and the covering space is normal since g_2g_1^{-1} takes g_1(U) to g_2(U)
so what I am trying to understand is normality issue so we have that by Y/G what we mean is actually (Y/G,G)
so now if we take the fibre over G is of the form of g_i(U)
so is why fibers are of the form g_i(U) ?
Is that correct @BalarkaSen ?
Like there are vague standards, analysis is supposed to cover the basics up to stuff like metric spaces and uniform convergence, and then linear algebra, multivariable calculus, Lebesgue theory, and functional analysis. Beyond that you have leeway
One professor used to make it heavy on p-adics and Fourier analysis on groups
03:04
fourier analysis on groups what?
With the professors now it does stuff like differential forms, some ODE, and Marianna likes to do a bit of basic geometric measure theory and topological games
@Adeek Actually I'm a little busy right now. maybe someone else can help
alright
I will ask on main I guess
So you can give a topology to a group which "plays nicely" with its operation
yeah
@Daminark many covering spaces arise this way
03:07
Meaning that the operation is a continuous function on $G^2$, and the map from an element to its inverse is also continuous on $G$. Then you can define something called the Haar measure which is compatible with this, and talk about $L^2(G)$ and do Fourier analysis. Turns out, when you have locally compact abelian groups, there's a nice theory to handle this, I think called Pontryagin duality or something
(I know little of this, only vaguely)
Oh that's neat @Adeek!
What... are covering spaces?
@Daminark you can think of them as subgroups of $\pi_1(X,x_0)$
But there is a geometric description
That sounds pretty cool actually
First homotopy group of $X$ centered at a base $x_0$?
yeah
(Meaning fundamental group lol)
(I'm slow)
03:09
Anybody can solve this challenging junior high math problem with other method ?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2237789/what-is-an-alternative-method-either-advance-intermediate-or-beginning-for-solv
thanks in advance
So geometrically they are locally copies of the original space
in some strong sense
Hmm, that's interesting
There is a correspondence between subgroups of the fundmental group and a particular unique covering space.
Nice
yeah its elegant
03:21
Kinda funny how aside from the normal stuff like fields and vector spaces that people do in analysis and prior, the main groups I've dealt with are finite groups
@Daminark look like you are interested in abstract algebra, is there a way to solve my problem with an abstract algebra alternative way?
I can try for sure!
But note that I never really took the class, I just kinda did a bit of group theory for a Sylow paper and blasted through a book in order to (not really but almost) get some background for a class on algorithms in finite groups
So I'm kinda inexperienced. Still, it should be fun!
@Victor looks like Cardan's formula for the cubic at a glance
Yeah there's no clean way of doing it, it seems
Like you can't just say "By the Sylow theorems we get _____"
@DHMO Sets are not doors
@Daminark ?
03:30
Your comment on the $E^1$ post
I know what I commented
what do you want to say?
I just found that amusing
@Daminark do you know why I said that?
I assumed it was a pun on sets being open or closed?
More than that
I don't just comment randomly
03:33
Whoa cauchy sequences of equivalence classes of cauchy sequences is doing my head in
@Excalibur42 what the hell?
What is it then?
Closure of a metric space by defining an equivalence relation between Cauchy sequences
@Excalibur That sounds like saying completing a metric space?
Yeah
03:35
@Daminark because (a) is asking whether a set is open
and OP said that the set is closed
Oh, so you were going for the whole, closed and open not being mutually exclusive
ya
Yeah theres this step: Let $(\overline{x}_n)$ be Cauchy, then given $\epsilon >0$ there exists $N_1$ such that $n,m \geq N_1$ implies $D(\overline{x_n},\overline{x_m})<\epsilon$, where $D(\overline{x},\overline{y})$ is defined by $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}d(x_n,y_n)$.
Lol, some people might not pick up on this, I didn't realize you were addressing that mistake, I'm just like "Wait no it's totally open because intervals, also completely unrelated kek that's funny DHMO"
@Daminark and I don't care about those people
03:38
but I don't get why $\lim d(x_n,y_n)$ implies there is a $N_2$ such that $k \geq N_2$ implies $d(x_k^n,x_k^m)<\epsilon$
I mean, for what it's worth, that group of people is likely to include the OP
I dont know exactly what im being asked to do
@Daminark then you can help me clarify
way to many indices to even bother writing out
(I don't quite care about the OP either)
@WillNjundong $\displaystyle \int_0^x 7 \ \mathrm dt = 7x$
@Daminark you didn't address (a)
03:41
@DHMO i see thank you
@Daminark imgur.com/pg3jrq2 send help
just that last sentence
I might just write an answer outright in the case of (a), it seems like the answer given was just random
@Daminark just add "just like what you did in (a)" to your comment
@Excalibur42 Elements in the Cauchy sequence are equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences. So saying that $d(x_n,x_m)$ is small, you're saying (by how you defined the equivalence classes) that $d(x_n^k,x_m^k)$ is small for whatever representatives you chose
And did so @DHMO
@Daminark thanks
03:48
.......yep okay I think I got it
No problem!
And awesome!
Whoa why does showing that any $\overline{x} \in \overline{X}$ is the limit of a sequence in $\varphi(X)$, where $\varphi$ identifies elements of $X$ with constant sequences, give that $\varphi(X)$ is dense in $\overline{X}$?
Another characterization of density is that $A$ is dense in $B$ if for any $b\in B$, there exists a sequence in $A$ converging to it
Because the limit of a sequence in $A$ is either a point in $A$ or a limit point of $A$
ah...okay that seems actually trivial when you put it that way
Yeah there are a lot of concepts which aren't intrinsically hard, but the presentation can make them sound like it
Hey @s.harp and @Tim
04:02
@Daminark Hey Dam.
How's it going?
@Daminark Pretty good, I've read through about half of last nights messages before I got fed up. But I've got tea so I'm happy.
You?
Finishing up the analysis pset (last problem is to show that $\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}}$ is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Q}$)
@Daminark what the hell
how are they homeomorphic?
It's a bit of a surprise, the vague idea is to sort of take a bunch of open intervals that exclude the integers, and then find subintervals of each and keep this construction going
04:15
Wait, what is the topology on $\Bbb N^\Bbb N$?
Discrete and then product
Which is equivalent to the cylinder topology on the countable game
can someone explain where they got $77/2$ here?
Basically, a branch of the game is a point, and you define a base for the topology by way of looking at all the branches that are diverge at some spot
@WillNjundong you need to add the contribution from the previous section
@Daminark I know nothing about game theory
@WillNjundong or you can just use the area of trapezium
It's not game theory in the sense that you see in economics, or surreal numbers a la Conway (though those are cool nonetheless)
04:21
@DHMO but then Im still confused as to how they got 77
Well damn. I just realised a homeomorphism and an homomorphism are not the same thing. I am in way over my head
The idea is that you just model a game as just the set of decisions, so it works like a tree
@WillNjundong 0.5[7][(x-2)+(x-9)] = 7x-77/2
So as an example, a game where each player has 2 choices can be modeled by the binary tree
Which, under the game topology, is homeomorphic to the Cantor set
god
04:24
So let's say you generate the topology on some game, you can talk about Borel sets
Is $\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}}$ countable? Seems like it should be.
@TimTheEnchanter no it isn't
and it is a common misconception
@Tim $2^{\mathbb{N}}$ is the set of sequences of 0 and 1, which isn't countable
But yeah, the cool thing is that given a game (2 player), if the set of branches that lead a player to victory is Borel, then someone has a winning strategy
Wait so binary trees are uncountable as well then?
@TimTheEnchanter correct
04:27
infinite binary trees, note
We didn't actually go for the proof of that statement, it's kinda heavy (would've taken us quite a few lectures) and we were mostly concerned with using Banach-Mazur to prove things, such as that the typical continuous function is not monotone in any interval
Hey @Mike!
How's it going?
you're so constantly excited
i'm writing, so a solid feh
@MikeMiller Ah yes
04:31
Haha, that's pretty true. I dunno, excitedly mutters something vaguely justifying this state
Hey @Balarka!
What's up?
Wait so if I construct a map from $P(\mathbb{N}) $ to the set of all sequences of 0 and 1, as $ \forall A \subset \mathbb N $, $\space A \mapsto { a_n}$ $\space, a_n = 1$, $n \in A ,\space a_n = 0$ , $n \notin A$, that would be a bijection?
04:48
Yup
And if an operation on the first set was $A \cup B - A \cap B$ and the operation on the second was XOR'ing the sequences, that would be a homomorphism under these relations?
Or do the two sets mapped by the homomorphism need the same operation?
05:04
Hi chat
@AlessandroCodenotti buongiorno
Thanks for the link @Balarka
I should really learn about homology
@TimTheEnchanter That would be a group homomorphism. You can get even ring homomorphism, namely $(P(X), \triangle, \cap)$ is a ring homeomorphic to $(\mathbb Z_2)^X, \oplus, \odot)$. I guess there are a few posts on the main site about this.
user97303
hey
user97303
Suppose you have span{v} and span{w} over GF(q), where v and w are vectors
05:14
I have mentioned this in my answer here. But I guess there are several other posts mentioning this correspondence.
user97303
is it still true that if $span{v} \cap \span{w}$ is nonempty then v is in span{w}?
@DHMO Turns out, this space is a thing in descriptive set theory, called "The Baire Space"
@Daminark what space
$\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}}$
I see
user97303
05:16
this is a really basic question but I only ever learned about lin alg over the reals and complex
@chell Well, you always have zero vector in the intersection. You probably meant "non-trivial" rather than "non-empty". If you meant this, it is true in any vector space over arbitrary field.
user97303
Yeah, that's what I meant, thank you
@AlessandroCodenotti I advocate learning homology.
There is a theorem saying that this is the unique non-empty, Polish, 0-dimensional space such that any compact subsets have empty interior
@AlessandroCodenotti Hey Alessandro
05:17
By Alexandrov and Urysohn
@MartinSleziak Ah thanks Martin
There's another by Brouwer stating that the Cantor space is the unique perfect, non-empty, compact metrizable, zero dimensional space
(All this up to homeomorphism)
@chell If you have $x\ne0$ which belongs to both spans, then $x=cv=dw$ for some scalars c, d. So you get $v=c^{-1}dw$ and $v\in\operatorname{span}(w)$.
To make things a bit more confusing, there is a difference between the Baire space and a Baire space.
Yeah, we had talked about that as well
However, the Baire space is a Baire space.
05:21
Actually in class we made it even worse
Because a set can also have the property of Baire
user97303
It just seemed very unintuitive to me because I was trying out examples and it seems like this might not be true. Say over $GF(3)$, $2(1,2) = (2, 1)$ so you can get $(1,1)$, $(2,2)$, $(0,2)$, $(0,1)$ in the span
I forget the exact condition, I believe it was equivalent to having an associated winning strategy in Banach-Mazur
Something about its symmetric difference with some open set being first category or whatever
This fact didn't come up too much though
@chell If you have a field with three elements, then span of single vectors consists of 3 vectors. For example $(1,1)$ is not in the span of $(2,1)$ if that's what you meant there.
Since you have some questions related to linear algebra, I should mention that there also is Linear & Abstract algebra. But I have to admit that it is not very active.
user97303
Oh nevermind, I thought $(1, 1)$ is the difference between $(1, 2)$ and $(2, 1)$. Wow I'm a derp.
user97303
calculations are hard :(
07:01
0
Q: How many Digits in $3^{2020}$

Koolman I know n+1 = number of digits in $3^{2020}$ but how to find number of digits . How can we do it without using a calculator .

Anonymous
07:21
@Koolman You need to remember the value of log(3). That's it.
Anonymous
I don't think there is any simpler method than that.
Anonymous
Or there could be a hack using binomial theorem
Anonymous
$(9)^{1010}=(1-10)^{1010}$
So, I've got a question
You could prob also use the Taylor series. $\log(1-x) = -\sum x^k/k$; plug in $x= 2/3$. That converges pretty fast.
(don't use $\log(1+x)$!!! that's alternating and would take ages to converge)
07:27
Don't think he can use logs or taylor
(Because of the limitations on the allowed methods)
Ah, no calculators. Oh well!
Yeah, I never liked these kind of questions
Well if it's multiple choice then the $9^{1010}$ tricks like that would tell you something.
Plot twist: The choices are all 1 away from each other
07:30
Haha
well, you're probably screwed then
Rehi @Mike!
But yeah, they prob had far away stuff, like doing this without a calculator is going to be one of the vague estimate type problems
You know, how $\pi^2 = e^2 = 3^2 = 10$, that kind of thing
@blue i don't think this hack will work here
@BalarkaSen you know jee does not allow calculators
I don't.
Anonymous
Hush. Don't mention that word here, koolman =P
07:34
fine
Anonymous
Soon 5 people will pounce on you asking for your phone number
Anonymous
lol
why
for whatsapp group ??
we shall meet again in India / as though we had buried education there / and we shall pronounce for the first time / the blessed word with no meaning ("JEE")
@Daminark Haha
Anonymous
07:35
@Koolman Well, I am thinking. If I get it I'll let you know :-)
SBM
SBM
Yes, JEE everywhere is like, really not that good of an idea
08:07
Hi chat
@Astyx salut
SBM
SBM
Hello @Astyx
08:25
A pretty picture said to be something from algebraic topology that I have no idea what it means
@Secret each arrow is a group operation on the right
each point is a result
you start at the identity $e$
$a$ is of order $2$ and $b$ is of order $3$
as shown from the beautiful cycles
Ah I see
it's literally infinite if you don't restrict it much
you can always go $ababababab...$
:36755691 I don't think $a$ and $b$ commute
@Secret do you think it can represent any group familiar to us?
08:30
@BAYMAX Seeing things in your mind's eye. If your brain don't allow you to see it, you will not see it. Thus one need to convince one's brain to let you perceive it (suddenly, all that esoteric advice make sense to me, lol)
@DHMO Well, I guess it will ran into problem for something like the tarski monster group, since there are too many prime elements
08:48
@Secret what is a prime element?
Oh, every element is a prime
Sorry, I mean, an element that is of prime or prime powered order
For example?
there's also another group in mind that is also quite large, but I need to recall its name, give me a sec
Can you construct a subgroup of the group above?
@Secret I'm referring to this group
where $a^2=b^3=e$
In mathematics, specifically in group theory, the Prüfer p-group or the p-quasicyclic group or p∞-group, Z(p∞), for a prime number p is the unique p-group in which every element has p different p-th roots. The Prüfer p-groups are countable abelian groups which are important in the classification of infinite abelian groups: they (along with the group of rational numbers) form the smallest building blocks of all divisible groups. The groups are named after Heinz Prüfer, a German mathematician of the early 20th century. == Constructions of Z(p∞) == The Prüfer p-group may be identified with t...
give me a sec when I construct your example...
Let's see...
Imposing additionally this relation $ab=ba=e=ab^2=a^2b$ should give us a finite subgroup
08:57
$=$?
I doubt it is a subgroup. $(ab)(ba) = abba$ which is not in the set
Or did you mean to equate those five elements?
I thought equating elements is not allowed
O wait, sorry, you mean to find a subgroup, not to make one using the given group and change its structure
yes, that is what I mean
I suspect that the only subgroup is $\langle a \rangle$ and $\langle b \rangle$
You know, any other subgroup generated from other elements go to infinity, intuitively
It's an infinite group, thus we don't have the nice decomposition theorem to say it is a direct product of finite p-groups. But yes, it definitely have the cyclic groups $\langle a\rangle\cong \Bbb{Z}_2$ and $\langle b\rangle\cong \Bbb{Z}_3$ as subgroups. Whether there are others I need to check...
09:18
hi, is anyone on?
@WillNjundong just ask
Good morning math chat. Would someone like to play a (mathematical) game with me?
@MeesdeVries depends on what game it is
We start with an empty 3 x 3 matrix. We take turns adding one (let's say real) entry to the matrix. Player 1 wins if the matrix is invertible. Player 2 wins if it is not.
what the hell
09:20
find $G'(x)$ for $$G(x) = \int^x_3 5t dt$$
this is tic-tac-toe kind of lol
I suppose!
@WillNjundong use the fundamental theorem of calculus
Background: the game is trivial if the matrix has even dimensions; then player 2 can just copy any move player 1 makes in an even row, in the odd row above; and any move in an odd row, in the even row below.
So we start with $\begin{bmatrix}0&0&0\\0&0&0\\0&0&0\end{bmatrix}$
09:21
It is also trivial for a 1 x 1 matrix (exercise for the reader).
Making 3 x 3 the first non-trivial case.
Yeah, I think *s might be better than 0s, though, because 0 is a valid move.
right? @MeesdeVries
Round 1:
\begin{bmatrix}*&*&*\\*&*&*\\*&*&*\end{bmatrix}
Do you have a preference for turn order?
not really
Alright. I might as well go, then:
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&*&*\\*&*&*\\*&*&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
09:24
heh
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&*\\*&*&*\\*&*&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
RIP LaTeX
$$\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&8\\ *&*&*\\ *&*&*\end{bmatrix}$$
@DHMO Just looked at some solved examples and understood this theorem. that was easy XD . I dont go to class, so I had no idea what you were talking about lol.
@WillNjundong google is your friend
I think I win once you play in the same row or column as me. Then I can complete that row or column, and since you have to start in the remaining $2 \times 3$ block, I win.
well if I don't play in the same row, then you win immediately
09:28
How's that?
how is that not
Uh, I don't know, that's why I'm asking :P
because there are 6 diagonals
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&8\\ *&0&*\\ *&*&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
NB: I know nothing about the tools of game theory
@Secret how is your search?
09:29
HELLO,is the metric space $(R,d)$ where $d(x,y)=|\exp(x)-\exp(y)|$ is complete ?
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&8\\ *&0&*\\ *&5&*\end{bmatrix}
Six diagonals...?
yes
because they can wrap
@DHMO Nah, nothing interesting I can find so far except any subgroups other than the cyclic ones, if it exists, must be infinite
OK, sure. But what does that have to do with playing in a different row?
well if you play in a different row, then the two elements would be one of the six diagonals
wait
if i make it invertible now, do i win?
09:31
No, I'm trying to make it invertible.
so we have to wait until the asterisks are filled?
wait what?
oh, I didn't read the rules carefully enough
Player 1 tries to make it invertible, player 2 tries to make it singular
I thought we were trying to make it invertible lol
never mind
i think you already won
due to my misunderstanding of the rules
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&8\\ *&0&*\\ -5&5&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
09:34
Do you want a rematch? :P
4
Q: Number of subgroups of an infinite group

In78Is there an infinite group with only a finite number of subgroups?

@MeesdeVries sure
Yeah, in that case, the remaining ones will be the unions of the cyclic groups
(I would put a 2 in the left asterisk now, and then no matter what you put on either of the other asterisks I just make the next number something inconceivably large.)
@N3buchadnezzar When dealing with duplicates, you might also use the dedicated chat room. And if everything else fails, there is also this thread on meta.
09:35
can someone help me please
Oh, hmm. How's this for a winning strategy: every number player 1 plays is much, much, much larger than all preceding numbers?
@MeesdeVries just try
I think I can defeat you still
Alright. I'll repeat my first move from before.
I mean
continue the game
Oh, huh. OK.
09:36
so it's your turn
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&8\\ 2&0&*\\ -5&5&*\end{bmatrix}
and i win
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&8\\ 2&0&*\\ -5&5&-40\end{bmatrix}
$$
Because row 1 and row 3 are linearly dependent
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&8\\ 2&0&10^{20}\\ -5&5&-40\end{bmatrix}?
the determinant is still 0
0
Q: Mapping of a horizontal line $y = c$ by $w = \frac{1}{z}$ onto which region?

BAYMAXI was trying to solve this problem , so $y = c$,suppose for ease let us take $c > 0$. so $w = \frac{1}{z} = \frac{1}{x + iy} = \frac{x - iy}{x^2 + y^2} = \frac{x - ic}{x^2 + c^2} = \frac{x}{x^2 + c^2} - i( \frac{c}{x^2 + c^2})$. Now as $w = u + iv$,comparing we get $u = \frac{x}{x^2 + c^2}$ a...

09:40
@MeesdeVries are you convinced?
Yeah. Huh. How about that.
I don't actually see the dependence moving before my eyes though.
@MeesdeVries do you want a rematch?
Haha, sure.
Do you want to start now?
doesn't matter
Because? You'll win either way? :p
09:42
sure :p
so who starts?
so I make it invertible now?
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&*&*\\ *&*&*\\ *&*&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
Yeah.
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&*\\ *&*&*\\ *&*&*\end{bmatrix}
hey it's the same move lol
Yeah, I'm learning.
09:45
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&*\\ *&*&2\\ *&*&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
Hmm.
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&0\\ *&*&2\\ *&*&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&0\\ *&*&2\\ *&0&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
$0$ is not necessarily bad, I believe
I think you've won this one...? Then again, I thought I won the last one even when the matrix was completely filled.
I am not seeing how I have won lol
@MeesdeVries are you here?
Yeah, I'm trying to think about whether I've already lost, seeing if I can derive a good next move from failing to show that. :-)
09:54
sometimes one needs to take a leap of faith
@MeesdeVries it's been 8 minutes
Fine, fine.
I apologize.
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&0\\ 0&*&2\\ *&0&*\end{bmatrix}
Yeah, you're right. I'm more frustrated with myself than with the game. :-)
lol
I see what you're trying to do
$$
\begin{bmatrix}1&-1&0\\ 0&*&2\\ 3&0&*\end{bmatrix}
$$
I genuinely don't really know. Like. This is an easy win if you put a 0 in any of the remaining spots, but I don't think you will.
09:58
definitely linearly independent.
I think @TedShifrin or @BalarkaSen or @Semiclassical might be interested in this game... but we would have to wait for their active hours.

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