Is it fair to say this:
$x(\lambda p)'(x) - 2(\lambda p)(x) = \lambda xp'(x) - \lambda p(x)$
$ = \lambda (xp'(x) - 2p(x))$
$ = \lambda 0$
$ = 0$
$x(\lambda p)'(x) - 2(\lambda p)(x) = \lambda xp'(x) - \lambda p(x)$
$ = \lambda (xp'(x) - 2p(x))$
$ = \lambda 0$
$ = 0$