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3:00 PM
You can definitely estimate a size. The point is by mean value theorem $\phi$ is Lipschitz: $|\phi(x) - \phi(y)| \leq C |x - y|$ where $C = \max_{x \in I} |\phi'(x)|$, $I$ being the interval where $|\phi'(-)| < 1$.
So let's see what Banach fixed point theorem says explicitly.
 
[Day 3: Trial number 12] Evaluate the integral such that the evaluation highlights as many of its symmetries as possible
$$\int x^n \sin x e^x dx$$
I hope I can stop making careless mistakes!
 
@Alessandro Wait, no, I didn't read what you said correctly. I don't understand the question: if $I$ is the nbhd of $\alpha$ in which $|\phi'| < 1$, it's precisely where the convergence is guaranteed...?
Why's that not a "relation"
 
I've a quick question about Steenrod Squares. I want to compute explicit generators of H_5(K(Z_2,2);Z_2), and according to UCT, H_5(K(Z_2,2);Z_2)=Z_2+Z_2. According to Serre's Theorem about the cohomology rings of K(Z_2,n), it should be generated by image of the fundamental class i in H^2(K(Z_2,2);Z_2) via iterated Steenrod Squares. In particular, I should be able to find 2 non zero composition of iterated Steenrod Squares evaluated in i. I'm only able to find one of them, Sq^2Sq^1(i)
 
I see, the theorem you quoted does not mention that. Strange.
 
@Balarka I'm not sure, it's phrased in an horrible way in my textbook, I know that there is a nbhd $I_1$ of $\alpha$ in which convergence is guaranteed and that $|\phi'(\alpha)|<1$ (so by continuity there is a nbhd $I_2$ of $\alpha$ in which $|\phi'(\alpha)|<1$), what I'm trying to understand is whether $I_1=I_2$
I'm quite certain that $I_2\subseteq I_1$
 
3:06 PM
the other sequences are zero evaluated on i, (1,1,1) or (1,2) or (3). Can't find another one sadly
 
$I_2$ can be any closed neighborhood of $\alpha$ contained in $I_1$.
 
Hmm, that's weird. The theorem before that is basically a specific instance of the contraction theorem: if $\phi\in C^0([a,b])$, $\phi([a,b])\subseteq [a,b]$ and $\exists L<1$ such that $|\phi(x_1)-\phi(x_2)|\le L|x_1-x_2|$ then there is a unique fixed point $\alpha$ of $\phi$ in $[a,b]$ and the sequence $x_{k+1}=\phi(x_{k})$ converges to $\alpha$ for all $x_0\in[a,b]$
 
"Contained" was not strict. If $I_1$ is closed then $I_2 = I_1$ is totally fine.
 
yeah so in general the nbhd with guaranteed convergence is at least as big as the one in which the derivative is bounded by $1$
 
right
 
3:17 PM
Why is $\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2})\cup \mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{3})$ not a field?
 
it doesn't contain $\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{3}$
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Ah ok. Thanks!!
 
3:31 PM
Can any right triangle be inscribed in a circle? I'm thinking the fact that a inscribed angle = 90° is pointing to the diameter.
 
@PichiWuana yes, and you've just explained why.
 
ANY triangle can be inscribed in a circle
 
Oh hahaha
 
@BalarkaSen I was just about to say that
 
for a right triangle a semicircle is enough
 
3:33 PM
Can any triangle be inscribed in a semicircle?
 
for example?
 
literally anything. one of the interior angles have to be 180/2
 
Equilateral triangle?
 
not really
If one angle is obtuse, then it is certainly possible
because the inscribed circle would have the center outside of the triangle
so the triangle would occupy less than a semicircle
 
3:35 PM
oh i'm dumb yes
 
@SteamyRoot the semicircle has its diameter touching the ground
make one tip of the equilateral triangle touch the center
never mind i'd just draw a diagram
 
for some reason i was assuming center of the circle is supposed to lie on a side but of course that's nonsense
@DHMO that is not inscribed. one of the vertices is not on the circle
 
@BalarkaSen semicircle.
 
Semicircle is half a circle
 
3:37 PM
yes
 
semicircle doesn't contain that diameter
 
what the hell
 
Not the boundary of half a disk
 
that's new to me
the diagram on wiki includes the diameter
but the one on mathworld does not
 
read the definition, not the diagram
a semicircle is in particular an arc
 
3:39 PM
Euclid's definition includes it though
> A semicircle is the figure contained by the diameter and the circumference cut off by it. And the center of the semicircle is the same as that of the circle.

(The Elements: Book I: Definition 18)
 
that seems to indicate it's half a disk, not a one dimensional object we think of it as. nobody actually uses that defn
 
Euclid defines things differently
In particular, his circle is our disk
 
that's interesting
 
and our circle is something he always describes as the "circumference of a circle"
 
i learnt something new today
how do you describe the wrong semicircle then
I'm interested if every triangle can be inscribed in a wrong semicircle
 
3:41 PM
Boundary of half a disk?
 
let's just call it the wrong semicircle
@BalarkaSen thoughts?
 
Wouldn't that be kind of trivial?
 
But, are all 90° angles that point to the diameter inscribed in the circle?
What I mean is that I have an ellipse
 
@SteamyRoot so you mean yes?
why?
 
Look at the diagram you drew before
 
3:44 PM
 
Choose one angle to touch the diameter
make the opposite edge parallel to the diameter
and let the center of that edge be "right above" the center of the semicircle
Hmmm... actually, that might not work
You'll have to pick the right angle first.
 
@DHMO Well, equilateral triangle is a ctrexample
 
@BalarkaSen it can be inscribed in the wrong semicircle
just as demonstrated above
 
@DHMO oh you want to do it with the wrong one. shrug.
 
Hmmm. My idea works if you pick the largest angle to be the one touching the diameter.
 
3:51 PM
In my ellipse D and E are the focal points. F is a point in the first quadrant and on the ellipse. DFE = 90°. Can I take DE as a diameter, $(0,0)$ as the center of a circle, and F as a point in the circle?
 
@SteamyRoot nice. I tried it in geogebra
 
And then FO = EO = DO
 
@PichiWuana what is your question?
 
If I can take that as a fact.
 
you don't need the ellipse at all
 
3:54 PM
hmm
 
@PichiWuana let O be mid point of BC
construct foot of perpendicular from O to AB as D, to AC as F
by definition, ODAF is a rectangle
OA is a diagonal of the rectangle, so ΔOAD = ΔAOF
i'm probably making everything complicated
by intercept theorem, CF=FA
by SAS, ΔAOF = ΔCOF
similarly, ΔOAD=ΔOBD
so ΔOBD = ΔOAD = ΔAOF = ΔCOF
so OB = OA = AO = CO
 
Finally
THE
****
IS
DONE
!
[Integral symmetries] Cauchy Riemann theorem like analogues in reals:

$$\frac{d^n}{dx^n}f=\lambda\int^{(m)}fdx$$

(where $f=\sin, \cos,e^x$ (possibly more?),$\lambda \in \mathbb{R}$)

For example

$$\int x^n \sin x e^x dx$$
Consider

$(uv)''=u''v+2u'v'+uv''$

Plug $u=\sin x$, $v=e^x$. Then

$(uv)''=-uv+2u'v+uv$

Note how the antisymmetry of $\sin x$ wrt the functional $()''$ results in cancellation. Hence

$(uv)''=2u'v$

Now it is easy to check that $\cos x$ is also antisymmetric wrt $()''$ thus we could have start with $u' =\sin x\implies u = -\cos x$. Hence
 
@Secret what would fit in the asterisks... "fuck" doesn't fit there.
oh, "shit" fits there.
 
I have been working for 3 days on this ever since simpleart gave me that challenge. It should not took that long but I keep making careless mistakes after careless mistakes
 
what is the challenge?
 
4:08 PM
in Simply Beautiful Art's room, 2 days ago, by Simple Art
@Secret can you take this integral without IBP?$$\int x^2\sin(x)e^x\ dx$$
(Please let me type the nxt msg before responding)
For simpleart's challenge, I do managed to find a IBP free way to evaluate it, and then some careless mistake or something result in the integral to get wrong ans, but simpleart said it is fine as my ans agrees with the form of the ans of that integral

When doing his challenge, I got lazy (and at the same time I want to test my hypothesis on integrand symmetries) thus I generalise his integral to the one above

I then found (as you saw in that long wall of text), the n power version of that integral has a close form which is captured by the symmetry of the integrands
(The IBP free method to do simpleart's integral is the starred message of today)
 
NB whenever I got lazy, I went into generalisation mode to derive a universal formula for all types of problems similar to the problem I am working in. However because generalisation proofs are in general hard, paradoxically, it result in a lot more work than simply blowing through the problem directly
 
@Secret I really like your passion.
 
Alternately, I have a weird metric on measuring effort. To me the more I need to repeat the exact same thing, the more effort it takes
 
4:32 PM
can someone prove $\int_{-1}^0 \frac{e^x+e^{1/x}-1}{x}dx=\gamma$?
 
@Sophie trapezoidal rule?
 
what?
 
In mathematics, a Riemann sum is an approximation that takes the form ∑ f ( x ) Δ x {\displaystyle \sum f(x)\Delta x} . It is named after German mathematician Bernhard Riemann. One very common application is approximating the area of functions or lines on a graph, but also the length of curves and other approximations. The sum is calculated by dividing the region up into shapes (rectangles, trapezoids, parabolas, or cubics) that together form a region that is similar to the region being measured, then ...
basically the definition of definite integral
 
I know that $\int_{-1}^0 \frac{e^x-1}{x}dx=\sum_{h=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{h+1}}{h\cdot h!}$
@DHMO I know this, but how do you use it to prove the integral is exactly $\gamma$? I already know it is pretty close numerically, which is why I'm wondering
 
@Sophie just an idea; I haven't tried it
 
4:38 PM
Got a very simialr looking expression in this page
In mathematics, the exponential integral Ei is a special function on the complex plane. It is defined as one particular definite integral of the ratio between an exponential function and its argument. == Definitions == For real non zero values of x, the exponential integral Ei(x) is defined as Ei ⁡ ( x ) = − ∫ − x ∞ e − t ...
In fact the $\int \frac{e^{x^{-1}}}{x}dx$ bit migh be related to the exponential integral
 
this came up because I think $\int_0^x\frac{e^x-1}{x}dx\sim \gamma-\ln(-x)$ as $x\to -\infty$
 
that's what I'm looking for, I think
 
4:59 PM
this guy says there's no perfect cuboid arxiv.org/abs/1506.02215
 
@Sophie isn't this one of the million dollar questions?
 
nope
 
no?
right
 
So if there is no perfect cuboid, then it should not be possible to have a perfect hypercuboid since at least one of its (n-1)D faces will need to be a perfect cuboid
 
@Secret there you are, generalizing again :p
 
5:05 PM
There's no particular reason to believe that paper.
 
There are papers on the arvix claiming all sort of outrageous things from P=NP to the Goldbach conjecture...
 
Well, I am not even sure what's the significance of (non)existence of parallepippeds where the diagonals are all integers
 
cuboids @Secret not parallelpipeds
 
that paper define 'cuboids' as some kind of parallelpipped
Goldbach's conjecture is one of the oldest and best-known unsolved problems in number theory and all of mathematics. It states: Every even integer greater than 2 can be expressed as the sum of two primes. The conjecture has been shown to hold up through 4 × 1018, but remains unproven despite considerable effort. == Goldbach numberEdit == A Goldbach number is a positive integer that can be expressed as the sum of two odd primes. Since four is the only even number greater than two that requires the even prime 2 in order to be written as the sum of two primes, another form of the statement ...
What happens if we can show there exists integers that are not sum of two primes?
 
The Goldbach Conjecture is disproved ?
 
5:15 PM
@MikeMiller why not?
 
That's a 45 page paper with essentially no explanation, no sketch of the proof just random likely meaningless equations
 
Hello there
 
No I mean: Suppose there exists integers that are not sum of two primes, what does that mean?
 
5:33 PM
Probably nothing. The interesting part will be the techniques used to prove that there is (or there isn't) such an integer
 
I see
 
Are any of you guys acquainted with graphs? (graph theory)
 
does $\int_\pi \frac{1}{t}dt=\ln(x)$ for a real positive number $x$ for any contour $\pi$ that goes from 1 to $x$ in the complex plane?
 
@Sophie good luck passing through the origin
if $\pi$ doesn't pass through the origin, then yes.
the origin is the only pole of $f(z) = \dfrac 1z$.
 
@LucasHenrique this is like asking someone if they're familiar with number theory. Maybe they'll say yes and then you'll ask something bizarre about inter-universal Teichmuller theory. Maybe they'll say no and you'll ask an introductory question they did know how to answer. So if you state the question you're more likely to get an answer
 
5:45 PM
@Sophie no
it will be ln(x) + 2pi i times the number of times the contour goes around 0 counterclockwise
 
Ok then :p
My problem is the following: I have, for each vertex of a graph, the set of vertex it's connected to
I want to build a graph that is closed given this information
How can I do this?
 
What do you mean with "closed"?
 
Eh... I want to build "a circle"
(I have neither vocabulary nor theorical basis on graphs, the book just solves problem using graphs without an introduction)
A cyclic graph
 
If your graph is not directed you and for $v$ a vertex $N(v)$ is the set of vertexes connected to it you get the set of edges to be $\{ v\to w \mid w\in N(v) \}$
 
if you have the set of vertices any vertex is connected to then your graph is already determined
 
5:50 PM
Knowing what vertices are connected to what other vertices completely describes the graph
 
that's how you define a graph. The dots and lines interpretation is "just" a representation
 
I don't know how can I represent my graph tho
I need to prove that, given the set of vertices, it's possible to create a cyclic graph
(I know it's a cyclic graph)
It's given by the table (each number is corresponding to a different graph)
 
[Random Rambles]
Suppose the Goldbach conjecture is true. Then for all even integers $2n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, there exists $m,r \in \mathbb{Z}^+$ such that it can be wrote as $2n=(2m-1)+(2r-1)=2(m+r-1)$, where $2m-1$,$2r-1$ are primes.

Rewriting the equation, we get

$n=m+r-1$

$m-r=-(n+1)------(*)$

which is an equation of a 3D linear subspace in $\mathbb{R}^4$

By taking cross sections $n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, the problem becomes the above equation always have a solution in terms of integers $m,r$ such that they corresponding to the aforementioned primes
 
If you just have vertices take the graph so that all vertices are connected to each other
 
$1: 6, 7, 9\\
2: 3, 9, 10\\
3: 2, 9, 11\\
4: 10, 12\\
5: 7, 11\\
6: 1, 8, 12\\
7: 1, 5, 12\\
8: 2, 6\\
9: 1, 3\\
10: 2, 4, 11\\
11: 3, 5, 10\\
12: 4, 6, 7$
I want to prove that it's possible to find a path that it's possible to walk at every vertex exactly one time and end in the first vertex
 
5:59 PM
draw the graph on a piece of paper and it shouldn't be hard
 
Hi @Ted
 
@Sophie I have been trying... but it is hard :|
 
Hi @Astyx
 
Comment vas-tu ?
 
Actually is $gcd(1,-1)$ well defined...?
 
6:02 PM
It's 1 @Secret
 
you could write a program to do it. Shouldn't be hard, but maybe it is
 
Ça va, merci, et toi?
 
Hi @TedShifrin
 
Hi @Balarka
 
Ça va ça va, plus que semaines mois avant les concours donc la pression monte
 
6:03 PM
Hmm...
> This Diophantine equation has a solution (where x and y are integers) if and only if c is a multiple of the greatest common divisor of a and b. Moreover, if (x, y) is a solution, then the other solutions have the form (x + kv, y − ku), where k is an arbitrary integer, and u and v are the quotients of a and b (respectively) by the greatest common divisor of a and b.
 
Il faut toujours de la pression :P
@Balarka: What hast thou to report?
 
Hi Ted
 
Hi @Danu ... I'm back after 7 1/2 hours of no electricity last night :(
 
Oh yikes
 
@Secret To me $\gcd(a,b)$ was defined as the only positive integer $g$ such that $g\Bbb Z = a\Bbb Z + b\Bbb Z$
 
6:04 PM
A good omen, I'm sure :)
In any case, I'm kind of in despair with a calculation that we talked about last week :(
 
When I worked on my thesis, I spent months at a time stuck/confused!! :)
 
@Ted Oui c'est sûr, enfin ce qui m'ennuie un peu c'est d'être "obligé" de faire de la physique, du français et de l'anglais pour les concours alors que je préférerais que des maths. Mais bon, c'est la vie :)
 
$m-r=-(n+1)$ is a linear Diophantine equation of the form $ax+by=c$ where $a=1$,$b=-1$ and $c=-(n-1)$. Since $gcd(a,b)=1$, $c$ is trivially a multiple of the gcd for all $n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$. Therefore this equation always had a solution (as expected for linear subspaces as they span the whole codomain).

The question however is defining a lattice of primes to restrict the values of $m, r$
 
@TedShifrin I'm off by a sign at least in one place---but the sign problem arises from stuff I don't understand so I've been unable to correct it.
 
A mon avis, il faut apprendre plus que les maths pour avoir une bonne éducation :)
 
6:07 PM
LA PHYSIQUE
 
@Danu: This is why topologists like $\Bbb Z_2$ classes :P
 
@TedShifrin I always felt $\Bbb Z_2$ was a cop-out.
 
Well, sometimes it's all you got :P
 
I guess I'll have to go back to Kotschick and ask him to explain :(
 
Hi.
 
6:09 PM
Le fait est que tous les cours de maths que je reçois sont du même prof pour un programme assez conséquent (concours obligent), et donc on ne fais que "survoler" des notions de maths (j’exagère un peu)
Enfin bon, je n'ai cas arrêter de me plaindre et réussir les concours :p
HI @Mahmoud
 
Evidemment, tu vas mieux mais il te faut te plaindre quand même :P
@Astyx: Pity the students who were stuck with me for 4 or 5 classes in their college careers :D
 
N'est pas français qui veut ! :p
 
Hi @Mahmoud
 
reading math in german is far easier than I expected
 
Once you know the key words in the subject you're reading about, @Sophie.
Buongiorno @Alessandro
 
6:14 PM
Il faut se plaindre pour que tu n'oublies jamais que les concours no reflectent pas le noyau des Mathématiques. @Astyx
 
Where can I read about inducing an order?
 
qu'à* (see three messages above)
Can't believe I made that mistake
 
Hell if I can count all your messages.
I guess Balarka is ignoring me ... I shouldn't complain.
 
@Astyx Good! I saw that sentence and did a triple-take, then decided my knowledge of French was insufficient.
 
$$\lim_{x\to +\infty} f(x)=L \iff (\forall \epsilon)(\exists \delta)(\forall x\in D_f) : x\gt \delta \implies |f(x)-L|\lt \epsilon$$ @TedShifrin I feel (more of think*) that the part of $x\gt \delta$ isn't enough to ensure that $x$ gets unbounded.
 
6:20 PM
But I guess I wasn't wrong :D
 
My English has become better than my French it seems :p @Danu
 
I would use a letter like $M$ rather than $\delta$, but it's right, @Mahmoud. If you say $x>1000$, then certainly $x$ must be allowed to go off to infinity.
 
@TedShifrin But the quantifier is $\exists$
 
How does one show $GL_n^+(\Bbb R)$ is connected ? Is using transvections and dilatation matrices with a positive coefficient a good way ? What other proofs are there ?
 
It's like saying $|x-a|<0.1$ doesn't force $|x-a|$ to be tiny, tiny. But as you shrink $\epsilon$, you will presumably get $\delta$ smaller (or $M$ larger in the infinity case).
The easiest way is the $QR$ decomposition, @Astyx. You can write every invertible matrix (uniquely) as the product of an orthogonal matrix and an upper-triangular matrix with positive diagonal entries.
 
6:23 PM
@TedShifrin Okay thanks, I'll see some concrete cases. $:)$
 
@Mahmoud: It's the exact same logic as for the usual limit definition.
 
Do orthogonal matrices form a connected set ?
 
Ones of positive determinant do.
 
Naw
 
The easiest way to prove this is to give a normal form for orthogonal matrices. The easiest way I know to do that uses the spectral theorem, but you can do an induction argument.
 
6:26 PM
To see it, look at the (continuous) function $\det$
@TedShifrin Why not ^
 
Yes, I meant positive determinant @Danu
 
I said positive determinant 5 lines up, @Danu.
 
(which I should have explicited)
 
Oh, sorry.
 
Glad to see @Danu is obsessed with minus signs :P
 
6:27 PM
It's my fault really
 
@TedShifrin Hmm... is it easy to prove that $GL^+$ is connected? Because then Gram-Schmidt is very elegant
 
I'm suggesting this approach to prove precisely that, @Danu. The $QR$ decomposition is based on Gram-Schmidt.
 
Hi chat
 
Hi @Semiclassical
 
@TedShifrin I forgot what all those decompositions mean :P
 
6:28 PM
what is inducing an order?
 
But I explained it, dammit.
Hi @Semiclassic.
 
Will probably have questions for you later, @ted. (On mobile right now)
 
@TedShifrin I didn't read back :P
 
A topological space is of finite type if only a finite number of homology groups are non-zero?
(Thats a question about what the definition is)
 
6:33 PM
Is the spectral theorem : "All symmetric real matrices are similar to a diagonal matrix." ?
 
@Astyx: You need the generalized version for normal operators.
 
Right, haven't done that yet
 
It also tells you that there is an orthonormal diagonalizing basis made of eigenvectors
 
You can do an induction argument. Look for invariant $2$-dimensional subspaces on which it is a rotation.
 
6:37 PM
Yes, it's quite obvious that $SO_2(\Bbb R)$ is connected
Since we have a parametrization
 
I'm claiming you can find a basis in which it looks like a bunch of such $2\times 2$ blocks, and then $\pm 1$ in the remaining diagonal slots.
 
For the general case $SO_n(\Bbb R)$ ?
 
Yes.
 
Okay, I'll think about it after supper
Bye !
 
Bubye.
 
6:51 PM
@TedShifrin Nothing much to report. I think I do see how to prove G-B using a Poincare-Hopf argument though.
@Socrates Nice!
@s.harp Maybe it means it's homotopy equivalent to a finite CW-complex?
 
Hi all! I have a couple of questions regarding a concentration inequality about a function of normal variables. Could anyone help? Thanks?
So, I leave it here; if anyone could take a look, that would be great!
Let's suppose that $X=(x_1, \ldots, x_n)$ is a vector of i.i.d. (standard) Gaussian variables and $f\colon\Bbb{R}^n\to\Bbb{R}$ is L-Lipschitz wrt to the Eucledian norm. Then, the following concentration inequality holds for all $t>0$: $$P(\lvert f(X)-\Bbb{E}[f(X)]\rvert\geq t)\leq 2\exp(-\frac{t^2}{2L})$$.
My basic question is the following: Suppose that I have a formula for computing $\Bbb{E}[X]$, without the need of sampling from the Gaussian. Now, I would like to know, how many samples I should draw from the Gaussian, so that the estimation I obtain for the (sample) mean, is approximately the same as that I get from my formula. As you may imagine, I'm interested in a relation between the sampling size (say $N$) and the dimensionality $n$.
I'm not sure, though, if the concentration inequality can help.
Thanks for taking the time reading my question!
Typo: I meant a formula from computing $\Bbb{E}[f(X)]$...
 
7:17 PM
Hey everyone!
 
@Perturbative Hello there
 
In $3(b)$ above, since $X$ and $X'$ are just 'symbolic', does the result that the topology on $X'$ is finer than on $X$ essentially assert that the topologies induced by the metric $d$ on $X'$ and $X$ are equivalent?
 
@Ted My initial idea was that, as a corrolary of the Gaussian elimination, any matrix of determinant 1 can be written as a product of $T_{i,j}(\lambda) = I_n + \lambda E_{i,j}$ for $i\ne j$ and $\lambda \in \Bbb R$.
So to show $GL_n^+(\Bbb R)$ is connected, you only need to show that for any invertible matrix of positive determinant $P$ you can go continuously from $I_n$ to $P$ in $GL_n^+(\Bbb R)$.
So write $P$ as $$P = \det(P)T_{i_1,j_1}(\lambda_1) \dots T_{i_n,j_n}(\lambda_n)$$
And consider $$P(t) =((1-t) + t\det(P))T_{i_1,j_1}(t \lambda_1) \dots T_{i_n,j_n}(t \lambda_n)$$. We have $P(0)
 
7:38 PM
Hi.
This should have been simple to understand, but I'm still struggling.
 
Let $S_n=H_0\triangleright H_1 \triangleright \ldots \triangleright H_r=\langle 1\rangle$ and $H_{i-1}/H_i$ be abelian.

Why can the above not hold when each $H_i$ contains all the cycles of length $3$ ?
 
@Mahmoud For a given $a > 0$, if we let $|x-a| < a$, we have that $-a < x-a < a$. Add $a$ throughout, you get $0 < x < 2a$. In particular, $x$ is positive so that $f(x) = 1$, so by the limit definition, $|x-a| < a \implies |f(x)-f(a)| = 0 < \epsilon$.
Does that make more sense?
And @Perturbative that's not exactly what it's asking. $X'$ is denoting a space, so that means we've already specified some topology on it. What the question is saying is that any set that was open under the metric space topology generated by $d$ is also open under the pre-determined topology of $X'$
The way you said it was a bit off, because a metric isn't defined on a topology, it's defined on a set, and can generate a topology, so now we're asking to compare two topologies on the same set.
 
7:55 PM
@Daminark Why did it have to be $0\lt x\lt 2a$ ?
 
Well, $|x| < y$ means that $-y < x < y$. So applying it to this particular scenario, $-a < x-a < a$. Well, if you add $a$ to the expression, you get $0 < x < 2a$
 
I know right, but I don't see why did it make the implication hold.
In which $a$ plays the role of $\delta$
@Daminark
 
The point is that it makes $x > 0$. By the definition of the function, this means that $f(x) = 1$. Well, $f(a) = 1$ as well, so that $|f(x) - f(a)| = 0$, which is less than any $\epsilon > 0$ you could've chosen.
 
@Daminark Thanks.
 
let $ f : I \to R \ ^ n$ be a continuously differentiable function. $ I \subset R$ open interval.

Define $g: I \ ^ 2 \to R \ ^ n $ by $ g(x,y) = Df(x)$ if $ x = y$ and $ g(x,y ) = \dfrac{f(x)-f(y)}{x-y}$ else.

I need to prove that $ g$ is continuously differentiable in $I \ ^ 2 {- \{ (x,x) : x \in I \}} $ and continuous in $I \ ^ 2 $. im not sure how to do that..someone see a way?
 
8:42 PM
never mind. solved it :-)
 
Latex is not compiling in this chat
I'm still seeing the raw code
 
use the latex in chat link in the room desc
 
See top right
 
ok it's working now
 
Good
 
9:08 PM
so appearantly one can order any set with "negative" elements (not neccessarily negative in the usual terms)
 
is any1 here?
 
no
 
@Socrates I am not sure what you mean by negative there
 
additive inverses
 
@Socrates What does that have to do with ordering?
 
9:10 PM
mmh, maybe I misunderstood
 
I'm curious about this: given some polynomial $p$ of degree $m$, does $p^k$ yield a polynomial of degree $m \times k$?
 
If $R/I$ is a quotient ring with ideal I in R, then can I define the set ${a + I: a \not\in I}$ to be an ideal of $R/I$?
 
@SalehenRahman Yes
@Hawk That will not be an ideal
 
@TobiasKildetoft Thanks! Where can I read more about this?
 
But why not?
 
9:12 PM
@Hawk Try any example to see that
@SalehenRahman This follows from the fact that the degrees get added when you multiply polynomials
 
@TobiasKildetoft math.stackexchange.com/a/2107749/346682 this only works with additive inverses
 
@Tobias, right, thanks!
 
@Socrates So what you really wanted to say was that knowing which elements are positive leads to an ordering when you have additive inverses (and require that the ordering is compatible with addition)
 
I frankly don't know what I wanted to say. I don't understand this. Is $\mathbb{N}$ not orderable?
 
of course it is.
 
9:27 PM
Okay I i just tried it on $Z/2Z$ and ${1 + 2Z}$. First $1 \not\in 2Z$ and second we see that $2Z(1 + 2Z) = 2Z$ and $(1 + 2Z)(1 + 2Z) = 1 + 2Z$. Meaning $Z/2Z{1 + 2Z} = {2Z, 1 + 2Z} \not\in {1 + 2Z}$. But I tried applying this to this proof I am reading on $R/M{a + M}$ and they claim it is an ideal. Am I missing something? imgur.com/a/1DmWh. I know they are assuming $a + M$ has no inverse.
For some context, I am writing the proof without using R/M is a field and using the alternate condition that R/M contains only 2 trivial ideals and I am not using any correspondence theorems
 
@Hawk The thing they claim is an ideal is the one generated by $a + I$ in the quotient, not the set of all elements of that form
(not sure why one would go through this proof before the correspondence though, as that makes it much more conceptual)
 
@hawk If you observe that 2Z is the set of "even integers" and 2Z+1 is the set of "odd integers" then it's easy to see how the equations hold
 
any LC fans here?
also, anyone who gets paid for being a mathematician?
not teachers
 
9:43 PM
What's LC
and I used to get paid (and will again in about half a year)
 
kinda curious what level of skill does one need to be competitive and earn a decent amount, by actually doing things one loved
@TobiasKildetoft if you were an LC fan, you'd know ;)
lambda calculus
I just bloody love that world mate
I wish I could float in lambdas and be happy
 
Not sure how much the salary really depends on skill, as most universities have fairly fixed salaries
 
again, not teachers
and if you mean uni researcher, then maybe
 
Right, researcher
 
but uni research is not what I'm looking for
 
9:45 PM
nobody else wants to pay me for my research
 
I'm a web developer by day, and an LC dreamer by night
well, not for personal research
which is why I was wondering what other options are out there
 
It's simple, you just have to solve one of the millenium problems
 
yeah, right -_-
wait until trump says he's the world's greatest mathematician
 
rehi @Ted
 
rehi @Balarka
 
9:49 PM
@TedShifrin do you mean with trichonomy "either a<b, b>a or a=b"?
 
Yes, @Socrates, with exclusive or.
Oops, no, $a<b$, $b<a$, or $a=b$.
 
and why does this fail with 0 being negative and positive? Oh, yes, a typo!
 
@Ted I guess you didn't read my proof ? :)
 
exclusive or, @Socrates
Precisely one of the three occurs.
Nope, Astyx. What proof?
 
9:52 PM
Oh. Wait a minute.
 
ah, if we say 0 is positive and negative, that implies 0<0 and 0=0, or how you mean?
 
You don't have to, don't waste time on me !
 
So I'm not sure I know that your first step is true, @Astyx.
 
Using only transvections one can always diagonalize any matrix and have only 1's in the diagonal except $a_{n,n} = \det(A)$. Then using transvections again one can triangularize any matrix.
 
@Socrates: I guess I want to say precisely one of the following occurs: $x$ is positive, $x$ is negative, or $x=0$. ... If your definition of "positive" is $x\ge 0$, then that violates precisely one.
 
9:55 PM
oh, I didn't thought this way
 
I guess I've never thought through this, @Astyx. So how do you do $\begin{bmatrix} 0 &-1 \\ 1 & 0\end{bmatrix}$ and $\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 0 \\ 0 & 1/2\end{bmatrix}$?
 
@TobiasKildetoft somewhat unrelated, but in the proof I linked. Because $a \in R - M$ (R without M), then $r{a}$ is a principal ideal?
 
For the first matrix : Add the bottom line to the first. Remove the first from the bottom one. Add the bottom one to the first.
 
@Hawk $Ra$ is always a principal ideal, by definition
 
@Tobias I'm a bit confused by the correspondence theorem (I just googled it after you mentioned it), so I see how the existence of a bijective map from subgroups of $G/N$ to subgroups of $G$ containing $N$ follows from the third isomorphism theorem, I'm not sure what it's meant with "those $2$ sets have the same structure"
 
9:59 PM
@Socrates You need to assume that for positive A and negative B, A>0 B<0 and A>B. For any positive A you can find a smaller positive A'=A/2 and for any negative B you can find a larger B'=B/2. Then since 0/2=0 you get 0>0 and 0<0 giving contradictions in both cases
 
@AlessandroCodenotti That probably refers to their structure as a poset
also, the correspondence preserves normal subgroups
 

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