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2:00 PM
sorry typo: I mean there are no countable subsets
$(W,\preceq)$, the surreals and $\mathbb{R}+\omega_{\alpha}$ will be quite useful sets and proper classes to help me build some geometric intuition (if there exist a well defined one) on sets of these sizes, and thus a better intuition of different levels of continuua
@AkivaWeinberger If there is no well ordering on the cardinals due to lack of choice, then $\mathfrak{c}$ may not even be an ordinal, and thus the expression $\mathfrak{c}+\omega_1$ may not obey the ordering of the ordinals, I guess....
 
2:16 PM
@Secret what is a "countable element"?
 
@arctictern that's a typo, I mean countable subset
 
you're saying W has no countable subsets? what?
 
not sure, I might have overlooked something...
Let me check again...
 
any infinite set has countable subsets
 
@arctictern why?
why can we always construct a subset A from a set S where A has a cardinality less than S?
 
2:21 PM
@arctictern I know that sounds intuitive in terms of partitions, but then you will expect W to suffer from a similar notion of "rationals are uncountable" contradiction? when some order preserving map embed it to one of its subsets of one level lower in cardinality. Or is it because the countable subsets of W are never dense, thus discrete and hence avoided this problem?
 
Let W be infinite. Pick w_1. Then pick w_2 distinct. Then pick w_3 distinct. Etc.
Get countable subset.
Order has nothing to do with this.
@DHMO S can be bijected with an ordinal, which has every other ordinal and hence every lesser cardinal as a subset.
 
ok nvm, yes if all subsets of W are discrete, then that will avoid the "rational is uncountable" contradiction
 
@arctictern interesting.
 
@Secret have no idea what you're talking about.
 
@Secret "discrete" is a topological term. topology is built on top of sets. we don't need topology to talk about sets.
 
2:26 PM
> Observe that $\{r×R | r∈R\}$ is an uncountable collection of pairwise-disjoint non-degenerate ⪯-intervals of $R^2$. Hence, $(R^2,⪯)$ cannot be embedded into (R,≤R) in an order-preserving manner; if this were not the case, then RR would contain uncountably many pairwise-disjoint non-degenerate intervals, so by picking a rational number from each of these intervals, we would end up with uncountably many rational numbers ⎯ contradiction.
 
not sure how that's relevant to countable subsets of infinite sets
 
How does W avoid this problem as if there exists a order preserving map to embed it into one of its countable subsets, then we can conclude that the countable subset have uncountably many elements, hence contradiction in a similar manner to how if there is order preserving map from some larger set to the reals, will conclude a countable subset (the rationals) will have uncountable elements?
So the only way out is that the countable subset cannot be dense, otherwise uncountably pairwise disjoint intervals of W will contain countable elements hence result in the countabe subset have uncountable elements?
 
indeed, the existence of an embedding of W into a countable set would be a problem, because it mean an uncountable subset fits inside a countable one. you get a contradiction just from cardinality, no order to speak of. but I never said anything about embedding W into a countable subset.
 
Hello there.
 
So is it possible for W to have the same ordering of the reals as long it does not contain the reals as a subset (because the answer said that cannot happen)?
 
2:34 PM
@Secret Michael defined W to be well-ordered, so no it can't have the same ordering as the reals
@Mahmoud hello
 
@arctictern (Assuming the axiom of choice)
 
@arctictern ok, I see.
 
good morning guys
 
Greetings @GFauxPas.
 
if the cross product isn't zero, is it invertible? left- or right- I mean
 
2:42 PM
The map of Mathematics probably requires a hyper-dimensional space to draw faithfully but heh, better than nothing.
 
does that have context Mahmoud
also your link doesnt work
oh, found the answer. there is no identity for cross product. oops
 
Correction : heh
@GFauxPas What do you mean ?
 
@GFauxPas Is what invertible? What do you mean by left or right?
 
I mean if $a \times b = c$ does there exist $a^{-1}$ such that $=a^{-1} \times (a \times b) = b$ or $(a^{-1} \times a)\times b = b$
but as I found online
such would need an identity element for cross product
but there is none
$a, b \in \mathbb R^3 \text{ or } \mathbb C^3$
 
> A common example of this is the cross product of vectors; in this case, the absence of an identity element is related to the fact that the direction of any nonzero cross product is always orthogonal to any element multiplied – so that it is not possible to obtain a non-zero vector in the same direction as the original.
from Identity element on Wikipedia
 
2:50 PM
right
 
If $a\times b=c$ then there exists an $a'$ such that $a'\times(a\times b)=b$. However $a'$ will depend on both $a$ and $b$. When $b$ is nonzero there does not exist an $e$ such that $e\times b=b$, since $e\times b$ must be orthogonal to $b$.
 
one of these days I have to go and continue Laplace transform stuff on PW DHMO but I got distracted
 
ok
 
What's PW ?
 
proofwiki.org
DHMO I started my abstract algebra class, I can tell already I'm going to enjoy it :)
 
2:51 PM
Oh, okay.
 
great site
 
@GFauxPas congratulations! do you have any questions to share?
 
is there a good notation for $\{f \in X^X: f \text{ is bijective} \}$?
the professor didn't remember a good notation
 
@GFauxPas i'm not aware of a notation for bijectivity
 
Afaik there's no standard notation for it.
 
2:53 PM
other than the symmetric group in some cases
 
@GFauxPas Perm(X), Sym(X), S_X, Aut(X)
 
@GFauxPas I do know that surjective functions can be written as $\{f \in X^X: \operatorname{Im}(f) = X \}$
 
Hmmm... The first 3 I've seen before; but I would advise against using Aut...
 
he was using $S(X)$ or $\operatorname{Sym}(X)$ but he said he wasn't happy using it
isn't that only if $X$ is finite?
 
2:56 PM
I guess there's no reason to limit yourself to finish cases
what does automorphism mean here, I only know the meaning for two vector spaces
that is satisfies group axioms?
 
That's why I would advise against using Automorphism to define the set of bijections.
 
automorphism depends on what category you're working it. in the category of sets, it just means the group of bijections from a set to itself. (usually this isn't done though.)
 
It tends to mean that the map also "preserves the structure" of the object your map is on.
 
Is it possible to have a $> \mathfrak{c}$ set that has the same ordering as the reals, contain the reals as a subset, is not a proper class like the surreals or $\mathbb{R}+\omega_{\alpha}$, and does not contain order embedding that result in the rational uncountable contradiction? I think I have looked hard in MSE and cannot find anything similar?
 
@SteamyRoot that's not really "also," it's build into being a morphism in the category in the first place :P
 
2:59 PM
right but it requires an operation as part of its definition
 
@Secret what do you mean by "same ordering as the reals"?
 
If you're talking about bijections from $\mathbb{Z} \to \mathbb{Z}$ and you denote the set as $\operatorname{Aut}(\mathbb{Z})$, most people would assume you mean a group automorphism of $(\mathbb{Z},+)$.
 
@GFauxPas or topology
 
I didn't take topology so that's out of my zone :P
 
or differentiable structure. or incidence structure. or...
 
3:00 PM
@arctictern Not well ordered, has the same linear ordering as the reals in the sense of 1,2,3.... Basically the real line but with more elements, but don't become so large and become a proper class
 
"has the same linear ordering as the reals in the sense of 1,2,3" Huh?
 
@arctictern With "also", I meant to clarify what an automorphism is "more" than just a bijection from a set to itself.
 
how do we describe the usual ordering of the reals (I think that's the description I am looking for)
1<2<3... ?
 
"the usual ordering on the reals"
probably
 
@Secret Use words.
 
3:02 PM
You can describe it lexicographically by using the decimal notation of any number...
But everyone knows what you mean with the "standard order on the reals" like @GFauxPas mentioned.
 
@Secret $a \le b \iff a \subseteq b$
 
you might want the properties of "complete" and "totally ordered" and "least upper bound property"
 
Ok yes. So the polished question is: I want a $> \mathfrak{c}$ set, that has the standard ordering on the reals, has reals as one of its subset, is not a proper class like surreals or $\mathbb{R}+\omega_{\alpha}$, and does not have order embedding maps to result in the rational uncountable contradiction.

The issue in trying to construct this set, is that the reals are already complete, thus there seemed to be no way to put extra elements in?
 
do not say "standard ordering on the reals," it doesn't make sense to use that to describe sets that are not the reals
 
> has reals as one of its subset
 
3:08 PM
Meaningless.
"Standard ordering on the reals" applies to the reals, it does not apply to sets that are bigger than the reals.
You need to say things that mean things.
 
In plain english, I want a real line of size $> \mathfrak{c}$ and preserve as many properties of the reals including all the subsets, but is not a proper class. I don't know how to describe that better
 
@Secret What is a "real line"? What does that mean? If it means the real number line, there is only one up to isomorphism, and does not have size $>\frak c$.
 
@Secret $\mathcal P(\Bbb R)$
 
@arctictern He means that $(\Bbb R,<)$ can be embedded into it (where $<$ is the standard ordering)
 
@AkivaWeinberger Yeah, I got that part. That's not what I'm talking about.
 
3:13 PM
@Secret I'm confused. $\Bbb R+\omega_\alpha$ isn't a proper class.
 
@DHMO that has (an isomorphic copy of) R as a subset, but it is not linearly ordered for example
 
@arctictern how do you know it isn't linear ordered when i haven't given it an ordering?
 
@DHMO it comes with one. in the absence of defining an ordering the default is assumed.
 
hello, can i deduce $(f_3)$ from (f_1) where
$(f_1)$: $f\in C([0,\infty[\times\mathbb{R})$ and for some $2<p<2^*, c_0>0$ $$|f(r,u)|\leq c_0(|u|+|u|^{p-1})$$

$(f_3)$ $f(r,u)=o(|u|),|u|\rightarrow 0,~\text{uniformly on } \mathbb{R}^+$
 
@AkivaWeinberger yeah, I must confused because I saw ordinals, and I recall the ordinals form a proper class. Do your set has the standard ordering?
 
3:15 PM
The $\Bbb R$ part has the standard ordering, yeah
@DHMO It's consistent with ZF that that doesn't have a total order.
 
Can we prove the well-ordering of natural numbers under Peano's formulation without resorting to set theory?
@AkivaWeinberger but ZFC says that it has a well-order.
 
@Secret Maybe you want the surreals (not all of them, but maybe the ones with birthday less than $\omega_1$ or something)
That includes the reals
 
@AkivaWeinberger Hmm, that might work
The cool thing about it is that DHMO taught me Dedekind cuts and conway construction behave similarly to dedekind cuts
Before DHMO taught me that I don't understand surreals
Wrote recipe into notebook
[More recipe requests] What if now I want another set $S$ that has the following properties:
1. $|S| > \mathfrak{c}$
2. $(\mathbb{R},<)$ can be embedded into it (where < is the standard ordering)
3. The whole set is complete, has least upper bound property, totally ordered
4. Is archimedian
5. Not a proper class
6. No order embeddings to trigger the rational uncountable contradiction
 
Complete and Archimedean?
What does #6 mean
 
6 mins ago, by DHMO
Can we prove the well-ordering of natural numbers under Peano's formulation without resorting to set theory?
 
3:24 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Not having any maps that exists such that one can prove the uncountable disjoint number of interval will lead to the contradiction that rationals are uncountable
 
@DHMO Isn't that essentially the axiom schema of induction?
 
@AkivaWeinberger que?
 
The last axiom of PA
The axiom (schema) of induction
 
@AkivaWeinberger I know what it is.
 
9
Q: Complete ordered field is an Archimedean field that cannot be extended to an Archimedean field

Pr0babilityAs a bonus problem, our professor of real analysis asked us to prove that the real numbers (a complete ordered field) cannot be extended into an Archimedean field, with no definition of what he meant by extending. I have tried using proof by contradiction to show that if we have some set, $\math...

Ok nvm, its impossible, the only space left behind to fill in new things are the infinite and infintesimals
 
3:26 PM
@DHMO Suppose there is a proposition $P(x)$ such that $\exists x,P(x)$. Well-ordering means that there's a minimum $x$ that satisfies it.
Suppose there's no minimum. Clearly, $\lnot P(0)$ (since otherwise $0$ would be the minimum)
Also, if $1$ through $n$ don't satisfy it then neither does $n+1$
By induction, no $x$ can satisfy it. Contradiction.
 
@AkivaWeinberger formulation of well-ordering principle in terms of Peano arithmetic: $\forall S[S \subseteq \Bbb N \implies \exists n[n \in \Bbb N \land \forall x[x \in S \implies \exists c[c \in \Bbb N \land n+c=x]]]]$ (have fun decoding this)
@AkivaWeinberger what is $P$?
 
Ok, so that means, $\mathbb{R}+\omega_{\alpha}$, $\mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{Z}}$, $\mathbb{R}^{\mathbb{R}}$, $(W,\preceq)$ and the surreals will keep me busy in helping me to develop more algebraic and geometric intuition for higher level infinite sets
Writes in notebook. Infinite sets discussion concluded for now...
 
@DHMO Peano is first-order. You can't have $\forall S,S\subseteq\Bbb N$.
First order means you can't talk about sets.
That's why I phrased it in terms of propositions, which are the next best thing.
 
What are the equilibrium points of $x'=\cos x, y'=\sin y$? Is it only the solutions of $\cos x=0$ and $\sin y=0$?
 
For each proposition, you can talk about it in PA
 
3:30 PM
@AkivaWeinberger what is the last axiom, formally?
@OskarTegby what is "equilibrium point"?
 
@DHMO There's infinitely many, one for each proposition.
 
@AkivaWeinberger it's an axiom schema?
 
In mathematics, specifically in differential equations, an equilibrium point is a constant solution to a differential equation. == Formal definition == The point x ~ ∈ R n {\displaystyle {\tilde {\mathbf {x} }}\in \mathbb {R} ^{n}} is an equilibrium point for the differential equation ...
 
It just feels to simple, but maybe that's how it is.
 
3:32 PM
@OskarTegby $\displaystyle \int \frac {\mathrm dx} {\cos x} = \int \ \mathrm dt$
 
Yeah. I tried to solve that but for $\sin y$. I got $-\log\left(\frac{\cos x+1}{\sin x}\right)=C-t$, and got kind of confused on how to continu.e
 
@DHMO Actually, I was wrong; there is a second-order version of PA (in which induction is just one axiom), in addition to the first-order version
You can't really prove anything in second order theories, though.
 
@AkivaWeinberger in your proof, what is $P$?
 
(Gödel's theorem only applies to first order things, for example)
A proposition. Thing of it as me trying to show that $A:=\{x\mid P(x)\}$ has a minimum.
 
3:35 PM
@AkivaWeinberger why?
 
I want to solve that for $x$, but the Wolfram said nope and I agreed.
 
That would make $n+1$ the minimum, but we were assuming (for contradiction) that there is no minimum
@DHMO I need to go
 
oh, ok
@AkivaWeinberger hasta luego
 
Hasta la vista
 
Take care, @Akiva!
 
3:38 PM
 
I'm not sure that I follow exactly.
 
The log part has some interesting looking graph
 
True.
 
@OskarTegby $\log(\tan(x/2)) = -\log\left(\frac{\cos x+1}{\sin x}\right)=C-t$
 
It says something about solutions there, so I'm happy with that. I just wonder how the complete computations looks like.
Yeah @DHMO
How come the sign changes?
 
3:42 PM
$x'=\cos x, y'=\sin y$, that's 2 separable ODEs in t, right?
 
@OskarTegby because i took reciprocal inside
 
What's that in this case?
I just don't see how that gives a change of sign.
I feels that I'm missing something obvious
 
@OskarTegby -lnx = ln(1/x)
 
Of course. Yes. Sorry!
Now I follow.
To get the answer we just solve $\log(\tan(x/2))$ for $x$. Right?
 
yes
 
3:47 PM
Okay. Great! Thanks! I'm sorry for my blunder there. Insert excuse about Friday here.
 
$\ln (\tan x+\sec x)=t$
$-\ln(\cot y+\csc y)=t$
$\implies ln (1+ \frac{1}{sin(x)cos(y)}+\frac{1}{cos(y)}+\frac{1}{sin(x)})$
 
I feel you.
 
Get some semi nice plots, not sure if it is because computation time exceed or they are realy that nice
Ok that's some really jagged function...
 
@Secret wait, you're chinese?
 
I am born in HK, but live in aust
 
4:00 PM
:o
so you speak cantonese?
 
indeed
 
i've never known...
you know i'm from hk right
 
yup you told me before. I don't know otherwise
 
this is so scary
 
this is the internet after all
 
4:03 PM
Hi !
 
@Mahmoud i just met my compatriot here
for so long yet never know
 
@DHMO What a small world !
I hope to discuss something :
I recently came across these spooky words : ''The discipline of Mathematics can govern the deeds of men''.
How can this possibly make sense ?
 
I have no idea.
 
(Assuming it's true)
 
Can someone help me please
 
4:10 PM
The word ''men'' is meant to include all people, not just Mathematicians, but most people actually hate Maths ..
 
$N$ is Homeomorphic to the unit sphere, how to explain that $N$ separate the space into two components the interior containnig the origin and the exterior ?
 
@Vrouvrou $N$ is homeomorphic to the unit sphere, not necessarily equal?
Isn't this the Jordan curve theorem for $3$ dimensions?
 
no just homeomorphic
i don't know this theorem
 
Well, actually, if all we know is that it's homeomorphic to the sphere, then we don't know that the origin is in the interior @Vrouvrou
 
Jordan-Schoenflies
 
4:14 PM
@BalarkaSen Isn't Schoenflies the one that fails in 3D
 
I don't remember. I think in 2D Scoenflies says both sides are disk
 
You want the Jordan–Brouwer separation theorem
 
That's true. Schoenflies only fails if you don't assume locally flat.
 
@AkivaWeinberger Ah right
I never remember the names
 
4:17 PM
hi chat
 
Hi @Semi @Balarka @Akiva and everyone
 
Hey
 
Hey @Semiclassical @AlessandroCodenotti.
 
@AkivaWeinberger i asked a professor he told as it is homeomorphic to the sphere one compenent is inside and the auther is outside
 
Well, assuming the origin isn't on $N$ itself, you can just define the component containing the origin as the "interior", and the other as the exterior.
 
Hope i am in the correct room. Can Hamiltonian path be a simple cycle too?
 
Hi chat
 
@Astyx bonjour
 
Comment vas-tu ?
 
bien merci
 
4:26 PM
Are homeomorphisms exclusive to mapping between topological spaces ? Can we call a real valued function that ?
 
Changed your profile pic ? @Mahmoud
@DHMO Any news of these integrals ?
 
@wdika Any Hamiltonian path which is in fact a cycle is a simple cycle.
 
Yes, @Astyx You're the first person to notice :D
 
@AkivaWeinberger what is the relation with my question ?
 
(If it's a Hamiltonian path that's not a cycle, then of course it can't be a simple cycle in particular.)
 
4:27 PM
I doubt I am :p
I might be the first to point it out
 
Yes, precisely, buy we can't tell since I can't read people's minds, at least not through a virtual chat room anyway :P
 
@Semiclassical I am trying to solve that exercise. " Given an undirected graph G(V,E) and a subset of the edges F, is there a simple cycle on G that goes through all edges of F? Show that this problem is NP-Complete"
 
@Secret 你識唔識打中文?
 
And i was thinking that this graph contains an undirected hamiltonian path. So that means its Np-Complete. Do you think i am on the right way?
 
@DHMO The translation doesn't make sense.
 
4:32 PM
@DHMO 識,不過打中文好煩
 
Could not tell you. I know nothing useful about complexity of graph theory problems.
 
this is why I use english online
 
@Mahmoud few translators can translate cantonese
 
@DHMO Okay ._.
 
@Secret 你用乜嘢輸入法?
 
4:34 PM
@DHMO Currently 冇裝輸入法,using Google translate mainly to type word by word
 
@Secret :o 我用倉頡可以打得好快
不如你學倉頡
 
@Semiclassical Ohh ok thanks anyway!
 
I have tried, my 倉頡 is still shit
later...
 
@Secret practice makes perfect
@Secret 再唔係你可以用廣東話拼音輸入法
 
@Mahmoud is it iqra in you profile in Arabic?
 
4:50 PM
@Ramanujan Yes indeed :)
 
@Mahmoud what for?
 
@DHMO It means ''read'', and it is the first spoken word of the Quran, to the greatest prophet, it highlights the importance of knowledge.
 
@Mahmoud I see
@Secret do you listen to cantopop?
 
@Vrouvrou That link is the 2D version. If you go to the "generalizations" section you find the version for all dimensions.
> Let $X$ be a topological sphere in the $(n+1)$-dimensional Euclidean space $\Bbb R^{n+1}$ $(n > 0)$, i.e. the image of an injective continuous mapping of the $n$-sphere $S^n$ into $\Bbb R^{n+1}$. Then the complement $Y$ of $X$ in $R^{n+1}$ consists of exactly two connected components. One of these components is bounded (the interior) and the other is unbounded (the exterior). The set $X$ is their common boundary.
 
5:14 PM
It's an interesting question on what surfaces (or $n$-manifolds) the ($n$-dimension analogue) of the Jordan Curve Theorem still holds :O
 
@SteamyRoot For all smooth embedded surfaces in R^3.
Generalizing, all smooth hypersurfaces in R^n
 
What does (un)bounded mean on a generic surface?
 
All smooth embedded surfaces?
 
Don't you need genus 0?
 
A general curve on a torus need not separate the torus in 2 connected components though
 
5:24 PM
In R^n
So you were asking for curves in surfaces, I misunderstood.
 
Ah, yeah... otherwise the question becomes a lot less interesting, judging by your answer :P
 
You probably need at least 2g embedded essential curves in a surface to disconnect it.
Nah, garbage. 3 curves disconnect a genus 2 surface
 
i undersatand thank you @AkivaWeinberger
 
Can't you define the genus of an orientable surface as how many circles you can cut before disconnecting it?
 
You'd definitely need to work with essential curves
 
5:34 PM
In fact just 1 does... I am silly
 
Otherwise, taking any point and a really tiny circle around it; disconnects any surface.
 
@AlessandroCodenotti You can disconnect the genus 2 surface by a single essential curve
 
Ooooh...
 
What's an essential curve?
 
Not nullhomotopic. Does not bound a disk on either side.
OK, yes, the minimal number should be g - 1.
Any surface is connected sum of g torii. g - 1 curves (boundary of the disks you're connected summing along) disconnect it
 
5:37 PM
Hmmm...
 
For g > 1
 
Right, but, doesn't that disconnect the original surface into $g$ punctured tori?
 
Yes. (some once punctured, some twice)
Why's that a problem?
 
Ah, I was only really thinking about disconnecting in $2$ components
Hmmm, actually, the number of punctures could be anywhere up to $g-1$ if you connect all other handles to a central one.
A single curve, yes, but a single essential curve? :O
For any surface of genus $\geq2$, it does.
 
Sure, any of those g - 1 I mentioned are essential.
g > 1
 
5:42 PM
Ugh, I can't get my brain to work right now.
Not sure why.
 
Poke it
 
I think we're going around in circles. The interesting question to ask here is what is the maximum number of disjoint curves you can cut out from the surface without disconnecting it.
That should be g.
 
@DHMO nope, there aren't much of these in aust
 
@Secret but you can use youtube and spotify
 
I did listen to some in the past, but really not much
 
5:44 PM
I see.
 
@Semiclassical have you tried switching it off and on again?
2
 
@AlessandroCodenotti I suspect what I need to do in this particular problem is switch off my math brain and switch on my physics brain :P
 
Would be nice if you could switch like that without rebooting your brain
 
(which in this case really means "think of this in terms of linear algebra rather than algebraic geometry")
 
user189740
Would a tree have any vertices in its block-cutpoint graph?
 
5:54 PM
W-when was it decided that linear algebra was physics rather than math?
4
 
Quite arbitrarily. I'm not being terribly serious.
 
Actually... if that's the case, maybe I should try to get a double PhD...
 
What I have in mind when I say that is that the problem emerges from the eigenvalue problem for a certain Hermitean operator. That's bread-and-butter in quantum mechanics.
So I should think of this particular question in terms of the original formulation in terms of linear algebra, which is directly physical, rather than the algebraic-geometry reformulation I made of it.
aaanyways, back later
 
Hi.
How do I prove $\overline{\sigma_p} \subseteq \sigma_p \cup \sigma_c$ where $\sigma$ is the continuous spectrum of a bounded operator in a hilbert space.
Err, where $\sigma_c$ is the continuous spectrum, and $\sigma_p$ is the point spectrum
 
6:10 PM
How to prove that a set has a small ball around the origin ?
 
I think we'll need more information on the set...
 
By hand? If it's open it has that
 
Yeah.
 
That's the definition of a neighborhood of the origin
so you'll have to give more info on the set, yeah
 
If it's metric you can equivalently look for balls
 
6:17 PM
@SteamyRoot i have this set $N=\{u\in X\setminus\{0\}, I'(u)u=0\}$ it is the Nehari manifold , in the book he says that $N$ separate $X$ into two compenents, the compenent containing the origin contain a small ball around the origin
so what we must to prove using the functional $I$
to prove that there is a ball around the origin
?
 
Is $N$ is closed?
 
Yes it is the inverse image of \{0\} by a continuous function !
 
Then its complement is open, right?
 
yes
 
What does it mean for a set to be open?
 
6:30 PM
it is a neighbohood of all it's point
so it contains a ball
containing the point
@AkivaWeinberger
But why the compenent containig the origin must be in the complement of N ?
someone here ?
 
This midterm in analysis has proven that I can't ODE
 

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