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00:00
@SylentNyte better computers
@Socrates yea ive already b4een running the script for an hour
00:12
Hi all
Latest question
1
Q: Conjecture about $A(z) = \lim b^{[n]} ( c^{[n]} (z) ) $

mickLet $b(z),c(z)$ be analytic on the strictly positive reals. Let $^{[*]}$ denote composition. Conjecture : If $A(z) = \lim b^{[n]} ( c^{[n]} (z) ) $ Such that 1) the limit ( $A(z)$ ) exists for all strictly positive real $z$. 2) the sequence $a_n(z) = b^{[n]} ( c^{[n] } (z) ) $ is bounded i...

@StellaBiderman We have that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{(1+x^4)^n}=-\frac{1}{x^4}$, right? So, for $x\neq 0$ the series converges, and from the Weierstrass criterion, it follows that $\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin (x)}{(1+x^4)^n}}$ converges uniformly. But what about $x=0$ ?
can there be a proof about proofability, without actually proofing something?
00:39
Yes
When the number of tools for a potential proof have a known countable structure , we can sometimes do it
But USUALLY we show undecidable in zfc or such , although that might be equivalent to the above sometimes
Hope those mean something to you
@robjohn @Ramanujan my last question may be at your level
01:09
What does a closed question imply ? No more possible to comment / answer ?
01:26
Nevermind
1
Q: Conjecture about $A(z) = \lim b^{[n]} ( c^{[n]} (z) ) $

mickLet $b(z),c(z)$ be analytic on the strictly positive reals. Let $^{[*]}$ denote composition. Conjecture : If $A(z) = \lim b^{[n]} ( c^{[n]} (z) ) $ Such that 1) the limit ( $A(z)$ ) exists for all strictly positive real $z$. 2) the sequence $a_n(z) = b^{[n]} ( c^{[n] } (z) ) $ is bounded i...

Goodnight !
@mick Or good morning!
Can differential equations have non-continuous solutions? if so, could someone give an example?
Yes , poles and singularities ?
Also , not sure if you accept it as a differential equation but look at the " fabius function " @SimpleArt
01:41
Thanks
01:58
If your feeling a little stressed today...
 
3 hours later…
04:48
Last night dream has a horror element: There's an invisible gate where if your numerical representation is not coprime with the gate, you will be diced into cubes in midair, each cube being rotated, and then diced again into oblivion. Interesting while in the dream I am aware of this, no actual scene of the slicing is ever shown in the dream's events
3
@Secret I'll be 1 then.
05:02
@BalarkaSen can you check this when you come back math.stackexchange.com/questions/2096939/…
@MikeMiller if you could check it aswell it would be nice.
 
3 hours later…
07:36
@Adeek You're looking at the map $I \times S^{n-1} \to B^n \to Y$, where the first map is the quotient map you defined. This is continuous because both $I \times S^{n-1} \to B^n$ and $B^n \to Y$ are continuous. That's the nullhomotopy.
I have no idea what $X$, or $F$ is, or why it's relevant.
No, look at the first comment
Hi @Balarka
Hi @Alessandro
@AlessandroCodenotti when should we use that type for differentiation ?
I only know that it can be used in Lagrange mean value
What do you mean with "that type"?
If F(x) = sin x then ?
08:22
I don't really like that definition of differentiable since it doesn't generalize well, differentiable should mean approximable by a linear function
I don't understand what's the question @Ramanujan
$F'(x) = \frac{\sin x - \sin 0}{x-0}$ ?
@AlessandroCodenotti
$F'(0)=\lim\limits_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin x-\sin 0}{x-0}$
If the limit exists (which it does)
Yes
But f'(x) = cos x
08:27
That's $F'(0)$
And it agrees with the fact that cos0=1
ok,thanks
08:39
Total no. Of local maxima and local minima of f(x) =
cap
cap
Hi, is $f(X)$ always a random variable if $X$ is a discrete random variable?
My book says yes, but what if $f$ isn't measurable?
Few questions I couldnt solve :'(
Help me , please?
@AlessandroCodenotti
My phone has troubles loading that image, can you type here the question you're having problems with?
09:05
can i prove equilateral triangles have the same angles by rotating them?
09:16
@AlessandroCodenotti : Do something , Im dead without you :(
09:37
@AnimeshAshish it would certainly help if you upload it, so that we can read. otherwise type it
09:52
10:24
for question number 61 what did you tried @Ramanujan
How on earth does one visualise an object with continuum many degrees of freedom?
You visualize an object with $n$ degrees of freedom (whatever that means) and then let $n=2^{\aleph_0}$
NB reading some introductory quantum field theory btw
::roll eyes:: It wonders me how can physicists contain a $2^{\aleph_0}$ sized object in their finite brains
10:47
@aquire that's not my question
ok what's yours?
1 hour ago, by Socrates
@AnimeshAshish it would certainly help if you upload it, so that we can read. otherwise type it
ah ok @Ramanujan
@aquire btw I got a=1 , how to get b?
?
can't a = -1 @Ramanujan
i got $$a^2=1$$
how did you get a=1?
11:01
@aquire so "a" can't be negative
why?
$$$$
1
Q: Why sqrt(4) isn't equall to-2?

Stepo Possible Duplicate: Square roots — positive and negative $\sqrt{4} = -2$. WolframAlpha says "false"! Now lets take a deeper look to my idea. Well...we know that, $$2^2 = 4 \iff \sqrt{4} = 2$$ $(-2)^2 = 4$ so why can't $\sqrt{4}$ be equal to $-2$? I'm a little bit confused // Than...

Check accepted answer for this
@aquire In his problem, if $a$ were negative the limit would grow without bound.
@Fargle and if "b" was also infinity,than a can/can't be negative?
@Ramanujan b can't be infinity.
11:08
If there was no "a"(-ax term) then b will be?
If a were 0, b would have to be infinity for this to make sense, because $\sqrt{x^2 - x + 1}$ grows without bound.
But it would be more accurate to say that the equality couldn't be true.
Ok,now how to find "b" ?
To find b, you can use the fact that $\sqrt{x^2 - x + 1} < x$ for large $x$, so that the limit without $b$ would be negative.
Since taking away $b$ would give $0$, $b$ has to equal the value of that limit, so $b$ is negative.
By process of elimination, (B) is the right answer.
@Fargle by taking "x" out of sqrt LHS=RHS ( I may be wrong so correct me)
@Ramanujan How I got the inequality: We know that $\sqrt{x^2} = x$ for positive $x$, so if we take away a little bit inside the square root, it'll be less than $x$.
11:16
$x\sqrt{1-1/x + 1/x^2 } < x$
$x=\infty$ 1/x =0
Hi @Fargle
Wrong?
I'm very nervous about "plugging in" infinity.
Hello @Balarka.
OK,so infinity/infinity doesn't make sense
But how to exactly get solution?
That I'm not sure of, it requires more advanced techniques than I remember how to use.
11:36
I think angle ABC is needed to calculate angle BAC
Or not?
I want to check the pointwise and uniform convergence $\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{nx-n^2}}$, $x\in (0,1)$.

Do we use the Weierstrass criterion?

We have that $\left |\frac{1}{nx-n^2}\right |=\frac{1}{n^2-nx}=\frac{1}{n(n-x)}$.
By what function could we bound it?
@Fargle What's new?
Do you know about normal convergence @MaryStar ?
what is sgn(x)?
The sign of $x$ ? @Socrates
11:53
then I'd say f(x)=|2sgn(2x)|+2 has a removable discontinuity at x=0
@Astyx I looked the definition now in wikipedia. Do we have to show this one first?
You don't have to
12:04
@Astyx WHat else could we do?
Well, what methods do you know for proving convergence ?
The Leibniz criterion, but we don't need it here. The Direct comparison test, the Ratio test, the Root test. Maybe there are also some others that I don't remember now. @Astyx
12:25
@MaryStar hi have you done wierstrass test?
Yes, but by which function can we bound $\frac{1}{n(n-x)}$ ?
For example we have that $\frac{1}{n(n-x)}\leq \frac{1}{n}$, right? But the series of $\frac{1}{n}$ doesn't converge.
Am thinking about it hold on :)
hmm
when you take derivative of $\frac{1}{n(n-x)}$
you get -( nx-n^2)*n = 1/( n-x)
for x in (0,1) its maximum when x = 0
you could compare this serie with -1/n^2 for wierstrass
13:26
So, I'm asked to show that every irreducible polynomial over $Z_p$ of degree $\neq 3$ doesn't divide $x^{p^3}-x$. But one of degree 1 obviously could, couldn't it?
Or am I missing something here..
Doesn't every polynomial of degree 1 divide it actually?
13:51
Yeah, necessarily does
14:05
I suppose they mean of degree 2 or higher then
Probably, thanks!
14:43
@MaryStar You can bound it by ${1\over n(n-1)} = {1\over n-1} - {1\over n}$ of which the series is easily computable
15:15
@Ramanujan
@Astyx But the original series begins from $n=1$, but the series for ${1\over n-1} - {1\over n}$ cannot begin from $n=1$, right?
That doesn't matter here
Try to understand why
15:31
We have that $\displaystyle{\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{nx-n^2}=\frac{1}{x-1}+\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{nx-n^2}}$.
From the Weierstrass criterion we have that $\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{nx-n^2}$ converges uniformly. But what about the whole series?
What do you think ?
@Ramanujan Hint: $(\sqrt{\alpha}-\beta)\times (\sqrt{\alpha}-\beta)=\alpha-\beta^2$
@aquire for finding "b" ?
correction: 2nd - should be +
yep
my internet connection is bad bear with me.
make use of this:
$$(\sqrt{\alpha}-\beta)\times (\sqrt{\alpha}+\beta)=\alpha-\beta^2$$
Let me try
15:43
To find this without calculating the derivative can we justufy this as follows?
$n^2-nx>n^2-2n^2=-n^2$
And so:
$\left |\frac{1}{nx-n^2}\right |=\frac{1}{n^2-nx}<-\frac{1}{n^2}$
Or is it better to justify it using the derivative?
@Astyx I don't really know...
Using derivative seems a bit overkill for me
Just say that $n^2-xn\sim n^2$ and $\sum {1\over n^2}$ converges
Thus by series comparison $\sum{1\over n(n-x)}$ converges
So you have pointwise convergence
@aquire iam not getting :( so first step is I need to multiply and divide by $(\sqrt{x^2 - x +1}+ ax + b) $ ?
Ahh. So, we cannot use it as I did wieth "<" so that we can use the Weierstrass test for check for uniform convergence? @Astyx
Now evaluate the difference between the general term and the limit :
$$\begin{align}\left|\sum_{n=1}^{+\infty}{1\over n(n-x)} - \sum_{n=1}^{N}{1\over n(n-x)}\right| &= \left|\sum_{n=N+1}^{+\infty}{1\over n(n-x)}\right| \\
&\le \sum_{n=N+1}^{+\infty}{1\over n(n-1)} \text{for $N\ge 1$}\\
&={1\over N}\\
&\to 0 \end{align}$$
@MaryStar not sure what you mean by that
So you have uniform convergence on $]0, 1[$
16:01
@Astyx We have that $n^2-xn\sim n^2$ and $\sum {1\over n^2}$ converges. Do we have then that ${1\over n(n-x)}\leq {1\over n^2}$, so that we can use the series comparison test?
16:12
@Ramanujan yep
What I got is$ b+\sqrt x =1$
@aquire
have you considered the limit @Ramanujan?
16:38
@MaryStar Sure, however you have to point out that the terms are positive
Hey.
I'm reading my book here about signals, and it states at one point that: $e^{i\omega} + 2 + e^{-i \omega}$ is equal to: $2 + 2cos(\omega)$.
How is this the case?
have you got up to this point @Ramanujan?
$$
\begin{align}
0=&\lim_{x\to\infty}\left({\sqrt{x^2-x+1}-ax-b}\right)\\
=&\lim_{x\to\infty}\left[\left({\sqrt{x^2-x+1}-ax-b}\left)\times{{\sqrt{x^2-x+1}+ax+b}\over{\sqrt{x^2-x+1}+ax+b}}\right]\\
=&\lim_{x\to\infty}\left({(1-a^2)x^2-(1+2ab)x+1-b^2}\over{\sqrt{x^2-x+1}+ax+b}\right)\\
\end{align}
$$
@Owatch Euler's formula $e^{i\omega}=\cos \omega+i \sin \omega$.
Yeah FML. @Semiclassical
I was reading the one for $sine$
It's right below it on my formula sheet.
Happens.
16:49
Thought I
had caught a mistake. :(
@MaryStar hi. do you know primitive roots?
Hi @MikeMiller.
lol.
Hi @Balarka.
I feel like I should write down random things on the internet about differential forms while simultaneously revisiting it. I dunno where.
I don't wanna TeX it. Maybe I'll open up a chat and start writing garbage.
16:56
I only got an A on M5 :( It didn't like my speed.
If you like. Whatever gets you inspired.
Oh. Wasn't the S-streak already broken?
I redid some of the training maps
Yeah, but I'd still like as many as I can get. No partkcular reason.
Ah, gotcha
I suspect you play less aggressively than you need to get an s-rank.
My advisor told me to think about other things while I write. So at less I've got that now.
ah, i see now
17:01
One day or another I'll ask you to teach me about differential forms @Balarka
@Alessandro All the more reason I should write stuff up
@euclid Hello!! Tell me your question. Maybe I will have more time later to answer you.
Thanks for the extra motivation, BTW
@Ramanujan
$$
\begin{align}
0=&\lim_{x\to\infty}\left({\sqrt{x^2-x+1}-ax-b}\right)\\=&\lim_{x\to\infty}\left[\left({\sqrt{x^2-x+1}-ax-b}\right)\times\frac{\left({\sqrt{x^2-x+1}+ax+b}\right)}{\left({\sqrt{x^2-x+1}+ax+b}\right)}\right]\\=&\lim_{x\to\infty}{\frac{(1-a^2)x^2-(1+2ab)x+1-b^2}{\sqrt{x^2-x+1}+ax+b}}
\end{align}
$$
@MaryStar i dont know how to find primitive root of $p^2$ and other powers of $p$ also primitive roots of $2p^2$
17:12
Ted sent me his book to read about them
I like his exposition much better than G-P's, yes
If you want a push, let me know. You actually don't need much of the previous material in G-P to get introduced to chapter 4.
@BalarkaSen I want to ask you a question
In topology okay ?
@BalarkaSen Consider the following theorem a map $f : S^{n - 1} \rightarrow Y$ is null-homotopic iff there exists a extension $\phi : B^n \rightarrow Y$.
I understand the backward direction is obvious.
Suppose we go for forward direction
17:22
@Ramanujan I think you have got this. Now you should see clearly that $a^2=1$.
Since we have argued that $a\ne -1$, $a\text{ should be }1$.
$$\begin{align}\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{-(1+2b)+\frac{1-b^2}{x}}{\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{x^2}}+1+\frac{b}{x}}\end{align}$$
After that you just have to apply the limit and solve for b.
@euclid there is no general formula. for a specific modulus, you will just have to test values until you find a primitive root. have you typed "how to find primitive roots" into a search engine yet?
As $f : S^{n - 1} \rightarrow Y$ is null homotopic so there exists a homotopy $F : I \times S^{n - 1} \rightarrow Y$. Define a new function $\phi : B^n \rightarrow Y$ as follows $\phi(x) = F (1 - ||x||,\frac{x}{||x||})$.
adjusted
Now consider the map $q : I \times S^{n - 1} \rightarrow B^n$ defined as $q(t,x) = (1 - t)x$. We proved that this map is a quotient map. Now, this $\phi$ will be continous iff $\phi \circ q$ is continous.
why is $\phi \circ q$ continous ?
@arctictern i know there are theorems for it. you deleted our room?
The above is by univerisal property of quotient space.
@euclid no, I didn't delete it. it's still there.
17:28
All of this sounds way too hard, @Adeek. A nullhomotopy $F : I \times S^{n-1} \to Y$ is constant along $\{1\} \times S^{n-1}$, so universal property already says that it factors through a map $I \times S^{n-1}/\{1\} \times S^{n-1} \cong B^n \to Y$, doesn't it?
I don't get why you're doing the extra computation
I made the world's most inelegant Machin-like formula
Do you consider this as an achievement ?
it does what I wanted it to do, so that's nice
how do we get that it factors through a map $I \times S^{n - 1} / \{1\} \times S^{n - 1} \cong B^n$ ?
@BalarkaSen
identify points in fiber
17:32
ohh
oh ok I agree with you.
that is way better thanks @BalarkaSen
no probs
17:54
1+1=2 happens only for linear systems, right? @BalarkaSen
that question sounds like nonsense to me
or else "=" defined only to linear systems?
is "+" only a linear operation?
it came to me seeing that 1+2+3+... converges to -1/12 @BalarkaSen
1+2+3+... quite certainly does not converge to -1/12. There are reasons to assign a value of -1/12 to that series, but convergence isn't one of them.
ok @Semiclassical then there should be other values we can "assign" for 1+1 right?
other than 2
not really. if the series converges, then there's no reason to assign it another value.
18:02
hey guys, someone knows what this identity is called or where i can find information on it
1+1 isn't a series anyway is it ?
@Astyx Eh, partial sums of 1,1,0,0,0,...
finite series @Astyx
You mean sums
But that's going backwards
I'm okay calling 1+1 a series on the grounds of it being 1+1+0+0+...
18:03
The only reason 1+1 = 2 is because we define it as such
...if you mean that that's the definition of 2, sure.
but there's not going to be a way to say that the value of 1+1 is 1+1+1, for instance.
I mean that there is no other intrinsic deeper meaning to this equality
@JonathanKrill doesn't need a name, it's just the fact that if a is a root of f(x) then f(x)=(x-a)g(x) for some g(x). hence if {a,b,...} are all the zeros (counted with multiplicity) then f(x)=(x-a)(x-b)...
Sure. But there's no need to pull anything in about the value one assigns to a divergent series; that has nothing to do with that.
I agree
18:06
@arctictern thanks i look into it
@JonathanKrill In what context are you seeing that identity? If we're talking about polynomials over $\Bbb C$, then that's false since $2^p-2\neq 0$.
any ring of characteristic p
Fair enough.
its the field Z_p[x], p is prime
the equivalent over C would be prod (x-zeta) where zeta ranges over roots of unity
(note in Z_p, all of 1,2,...p-1 are roots of unity)
18:08
@Semiclassical may be physicists use that -1/12 value due to some property of the system where the first "1" is different from the next "1"
Is that true for any ring of characteristic $p$, $p$ being any integer ? I thought it had to be prime
yes p prime
Okay
18:24
@aquire Mathematically, what's going on is that for positive $s>1$ one can define the Riemann zeta function as $\zeta(s)=\sum_{k=1}^\infty k^{-s}$.
This definition only makes sense if it converges, so literally speaking one can't use it outside of this domain. In particular, it doesn't converge for $s=-1$.
However, the Riemann zeta function can be 'analytically continued' into the complex plane and from there to values with $s<1$.
It's that function which can be said to equal -1/12 at $s=-1$.
When stuff like 1+2+3+... shows up in a physics calculation (and it does, in the context of stuff like QED), one should understand that as a 'shorthand' expression for $\zeta(-1)$.
This is also sensible from a physics perspective. When you do a calculation of the Casimir effect, for instance, a naive computation of its magnitude would lead to a divergent calculation that is nonsense on the face of it.
I must say, I have never seen a non-prime non-zero characteristic
I have worked with $\mathbb{Z}/n$ of course
But never written down $char = n$ or anything
The trick is that the 'true' calculation is a bit more subtle, requiring one to modify the calculation in a way to make things actually sensible. When you take that into account, it's $\zeta(s)$ that matters rather than $\sum_{k=1}^\infty k^{-s}$.
To the extent that one uses a value of -1/12 there, it's with the understanding that if you did do things more carefully then you'd be able to get -1/12 in an honest way. It's a shortcut, is how I think of it.
18:50
if we have the representation of basisvectors with respect to another basis. can we use this representation to build a basischanging matrix?
Certainly.
Do you know how to write a transformation from the canonical basis to yours?
the basis(s) are not given tho, i might add.
What's the actual question?
19:08
@Mike @Ted Ever figure out that Klein bottle thing? I think I have a way to get an embedding using the isometric immersion. Call this immersion $f$. Let $\phi$ be a diffeomorphism $K \to K$ sending the intersection points to points with distinct last coordinate in the image of the immersion. Let $F_1: K \to \Bbb R^5$ with $F_1(x)=$(f(x),0)$ and $F_2(x)=(0,f(\phi(x))$ Then $F=F_1+ \epsilon F_2$ should be an isometric embedding (for small enough epsilon).
Ah that should work.
So it is not possible to locate the zeta zeros by integration of the zeta zeros counting function. I thought it was, until I received an answer to a related question on Math Overflow. (Assuming the Riemann hypothesis.)
@Mike Okay I'm not sure what I said is quite suffcient to guarantee no self intersections.
Seems like the right idea.
I still think like a linear combination with two such embeddings should work.
There's an embedding you get into $\Bbb R^8$ by the trivial version of this trick.
19:28
@PVAL I'm just thinking about the fact that embeddings are generic.
19:41
Hello everyone.
Let {a _ n} be a sequence of positive numbers converging to zero .prove that the series summation a_ n z^n is uniformly convergent on { z:|z|<=1} and on { z:|z|>=€} for some €>0
@mathislove FYI, you can use mathjax in chat if you use what's linked in the room description.
If I want a coordinate free definition of the exterior derivative, what would it be? Let's say, $\omega$ is a $k$-form on an $n$-fold $M$ and I want to find out what $d\omega(v)$ is, where $v \in T_p M$. Is there a nice expression for it? (I know how to write it in local coordinates)
@MatsGranvik Which question was that?
Sorry, I meant, $v$ is a $(k+1)$-tensor on $T_p M$.
So $d\omega(v_1, \cdots, v_{k+1})$
Is there a nice and direct way to prove that every family of compact sets of $\Bbb R^n$ with the finite intersection property has nonempty intersection?
19:53
@BalarkaSen There's one that's a generalized version of the one for 1-forms: $d\alpha(X,Y) = X\alpha(Y)-Y\alpha(X)-\alpha([X,Y])$.
What's the finite intersection property you have in mind?
@MikeMiller Hmm
@MikeMiller That's rather cute, due to the commutator showing up in there.
every finite collection of sets from this family has nonempty intersection
Ideas: If it's a countable collection you can enumerate them as K1, K2, ..., and take iterative intersection $P_n = \cap_{i = 1}^n K_i$ to get a decreasing sequence of compact sets. If it doesn't stabilize then pick a sequence of points $x_k \in P_{k+1} - P_k$; which has no convergent subsequence cuz otherwise the limit point would be contained in $P_{\infty} = \emptyset$.
I had a topology exercise earlier asking whether $(\Bbb R^n,\tau)$ with $\tau$= "sets whose complement is a compact set in the euclidean topology" is a compact topological space
and the answer is yes, but being compact is equivalent to "every family of closed sets with the finite intersection property has nonempty intersection"
and in this topology the closed sets are precisely the compact sets of the euclidean topology, so I was trying to write a more direct proof
20:03
this is actually an application of a theorem of logic!
In mathematical logic, the compactness theorem states that a set of first-order sentences has a model if and only if every finite subset of it has a model. This theorem is an important tool in model theory, as it provides a useful method for constructing models of any set of sentences that is finitely consistent. The compactness theorem for the propositional calculus is a consequence of Tychonoff's theorem (which says that the product of compact spaces is compact) applied to compact Stone spaces; hence, the theorem's name. Likewise, it is analogous to the finite intersection property characterization...
Godel proved the countable case in 1930. Neat.
The countable one
my proof-idea for the countable version is ok, though, right?
it looks right to me
@MikeMiller that was unexpected
cool. no idea how to do it for uncountable; guess that's why the wiki thing is interesting
20:07
I wonder how Godel proved that.
Oh, it says how---as an application of his completeness theorem.
@BalarkaSen Manifolds are sigma-compact, hence Lindelof, hence every open cover has a countable subcover. Apply to the complements of the compact sets to write the intersection of the compact sets as a countable intersection.
Ahh, I completely forgot that fact
That makes sense
20:32
Wow, this is the first time I've heard the word "Lindelof" since my first topology course.
That's good to hear.
Is every connected Riemann surface path connected?
It is clear to me that every Riemann surface is locally path connected
Path connected = connected for manifolds, doesn't it?
But I can't imagine an example in which the Riemann surface is not globally path connected...
@Semiclassical Hm, really? I didn't know...
Is easy to prove?
I'll be honest, i'm relying on google-fu for that claim.
But said google-fu yields this MSE question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1145293/…
20:41
hi chat , can anyone give me some tips on how to get better at visualize surfaces in 3 d ?
am doing tripple integrals and i cant see the boundries
Do lots of examples.
Then do more examples.
am doing alot but feels like each problem is new
also am bad at drawing
I think locally euclidean is enough to get "connected$\implies$path connected" but I'm not 100% sure
Read the answer.
@Mike Alright let $\phi$ take each pair of intersection points take one to a point which is positive on all of the shared coordinate and the other which is negative on all of the shared coordinates. Then the map $F_1+\epsilon F_2$ should be an embedding for small enough epsilon.
I don't know if theres a tranversality way to do it, because that requires local perturbations.
20:55
@PVAL-inactive Is it still liable to be isometric?
Yes the pullback metric is the sum of two constant curvature metrics on K which are all the same up to a constant multiple. So the pullback is a constant multiple of the unique flat metric on K
@Mike So in general the pullback metric should be a constant multiple of a normalized flat metric
If you want the normalized one multiply the whole thing by a constant.
Actually I dont know
The pullback metric is more annoying than that maybe
You probably need DF_1 and DF_2 to be orthogonal to each other.
@Mike Maybe if you ask on MO, RB will tell you the answer.
If anyone would know how to do this it'd have to be him.
21:16
Hello, what is the relation between $L^{\infty}$ and Holder space $C^{1,\alpha}$
21:49
Ok, I managed to find a basischangig matrix(in fact it's reverse too). How can I now find for a given $_B[f]_B$ the $_{B'}[f]_{B'}$? And what does this even mean? Is $_B[f]_B$ the left endomorphism, that translates $K^n$ into $V$?
22:07
Hi, I have a question about model categories. One of the axioms for model categories is that the distinguished classes of morphisms are closed under retracts. Is it equivalent to require that they be closed under sections (the dual notion to retracts)?
22:33
@PVAL @MikeM: I just got home and haven't been following all your discussion, but perturbing to stay in the isometric category is very subtle. I'm not sure I understand what PVAL proposed earlier.
how do you prove that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(2n)!!}{(2n+1)!!}x^n=\frac{\arcsin(\sqrt{x})}{\sqrt{x(1-x)}}$?
@TedShifrin I was trying to do things with linear combinations of immersions thinking that the induced pullback metric would be a sum of the two metrics.
I think you need some sort of orthogonality for that to work.
It does give you an isometric embedding from $K$ into $\Bbb R^8$.
I'm confident in that.
hi chat.
@Sophie Probably not too helpful, but if you replace $x\mapsto x^2$ and multiply both sides by $x$ then that becomes $\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(2n)!!}{(2n+1)!!}x^{2n+1}=\frac{\arcsin x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}$
One thing that's possible to try then is the substitution $x=\sin\theta$, which renders the RHS as $\theta \sec\theta$.
Problem is, you'd need to do something clever with the infinite sum of $(\sin \theta)^{2n+1}$.
And I'm not seeing it :/
22:50
I've found some alternative representations so if I know closed forms for $\sum \frac{x^n}{{2n+1 \choose n}}$ or $\sum \frac{x^n}{{2n \choose n}}$ then I can probably find what I'm looking for
@PVAL: You absolutely need orthogonality :)
Hello
Oh, wait, you responded
I answered it ... I even pinged with your real name.
Hmm, one thought following the above. If I move the factor of $\cos\theta$ to the other side, then that becomes $$\theta = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(2n)!!}{(2n+1)!!}(\sin\theta)^{2n+1}\cos \theta$$
22:54
Ah. Sorry, it didn't work for some reason
@Semiclassical maybe taking the derivative of this is interesting
Which if nothing else is weirdly awesome.
Is it really just algebra? Because it looks like it would end up as a very nasty quartic equation
The Dandelin proof is super cool, though, if you haven't done it.
Yeah, it's just algebra. If you want to send me what you've done, I'll look at it.
Dandelin spheres?
22:56
#13 is also bizarre but interesting. It shows up in some interesting differential geometry (rolling an ellipse and looking at the locus of the focus, then making a surface of revolution).
Right @Semiclassic
Balls rolling on surfaces can do some weird stuff.
Even in 1D you get fun pictures like this: math.ucr.edu/home/baez/rolling
DogAteMy: If you got to quartic, you didn't do algebra smartly.
(I mean that the surface that one is rolling on is 1D)
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