« first day (2343 days earlier)      last day (2973 days later) » 

14:03
@AkivaWeinberger how do you say "and the"?
@DHMO I think that's just veha-
I see
so only "be-" combines with "ha-"?
Also ke- and le-
what is ke-?
Like or as
14:14
I see
So it's the prepositions.
Well, not me- (from)
but that can be its own word ("min") so it's different
in arabic it is also "min" lol
I think it can only be "min" if you have "ha-" on the next word, actually
So you can have "mehamelech" or "min hamelech"
and "mimelech" but not "min melech"
when is it "mi" and when is it "me"?
14:17
interesting
Guys
What does OP stand for?
original poster
@DHMO Thanks
14:36
How is $\varpi$ a pi?
@Krijn U+03D6: curly pi
It was more of a historical question
How you get from $\pi$ to $\varpi$
When it looks much more like $\omega$
$\bar{\omega}$
> Variant pi or "pomega" ($\varpi$ or ϖ) is a glyph variant of lower case pi sometimes used in technical contexts as though it were a lower-case omega with a macron, though historically it is simply a cursive form of pi, with its legs bent inward to meet.
Ahhhh thanks, I needed the last part
I now see it
you are welcome
My program has reached n=655930000.
14:53
Hello!!
We have the finite extension $E/F$. We have the $F$-monomorphism $\tau :E\hookrightarrow \tau (E)\subseteq E$. Then it follows that $\tau (E)$.

The proof is the following:

Since it is a monomoprhism, we have that $\tau (E)\cong E$. So, $[E:F]=[\tau (E) : F]$.
If $e_1, \ldots , e_n$ is a basis of $E/F$ then $\tau (e_1), \ldots , \tau (e_n)$ is a basis of $\tau (E)/F$, so $[e:\tau (E)]=1$. Therefore, $E=\tau (E)$.


Do we have that $\tau (E)\cong E$, because $\tau (E)$ is the image and so the mapping is surjective?
@MaryStar your statement is less about field extensions and more about basic linear algebra
Happy new year, all!
@TedShifrin Happy New Year!!
@TedShifrin Happy new year
it's basically saying "injective endomorphism of a finite dim vector space is surjective"
15:02
Hello, I'm looking for some vocabulary to google what are probably existing algorithms.

I need an initialization vector of N values 0.0 -> 1.0. Let's say N is 16.
I would like to generate that initialization vector from a single value X, 0.0 -> 1.0.

Such that, if X is very close, let's say 0.1 and 0.10000000000000000000000000001, the initialization vectors generated are also close. But when not close, let's say 0.1 and 0.2, the initialization vectors look completely different, random.

Is there a term for what I'm trying to do, so I can look up research papers on it?
\tau(E) \cong E, because a bijective ring homomorphism is a ring isomorphism
@iamacomputer you are trying to come up with a continuous function that fluctuates a lot
@Starfall But how do we get that $\tau$ is surjective? It is injective since it is a monomorphism.
@MaryStar '
it's basically saying "injective endomorphism of a finite dim vector space is surjective"'
do you not know why this statement is true?
@TedShifrin Happy new year!
Any predictions on a conjecture that will be proven in 2017?
15:07
oh, Ted's around? Hey @Ted!
@DHMA Yeah, I'm looking for a term I can google for that, "research paper continuous functions large fluctuation", actually it does yield something
Hey @Danu!
@Krijn Donkin's tilting conjecture (I hope)
Nah, @Krijn: I'm too far removed.
imgur.com/a/fLTbf I was trying to figure out what is happening at the horizontal lines and I thought, "hey, what if I take the derivative!"
15:10
@TobiasKildetoft Funny, at the moment I'm watching a lecture on repr. theory and tomorrow I'll watch one on Coxeter groups
and realized that wouldn't help
Let $\sigma : A\rightarrow A$ be an injective endomorphism, with $|A|<\infty$. Since $\sigma$ is injective we have that for $x_1\neq x_2$ we have $\sigma (x_1)\neq \sigma (x_2)$. How does it imply then that for each $x\in A$ there is a $y\in A$ such that $\sigma (y)=x$ ? I got stuck right now... @Starfall
hey @TedShifrin
hi everyone
@MaryStar if V is a vector space of dimension n, a linearly independent subset of cardinality n is also a spanning set, i.e it's a basis
@TedShifrin I was posting the following question in my blog.
15:11
this is the result they are using
@Krijn Neat
Meh, I'm catching up for exams
Did quite bad in these courses this semester
0
Q: Finding regular language and DFA for equation $(2)$

Mithlesh UpadhyayThe regular expression for the complement of the language $L = \{a^nb^m \mid n≥4, m≤3\}$ is: $(λ + a + aa + aaa)b^* + a^*bbbb^* + (a + b)^*ba(a + b)^*$ $(λ + a + aa + aaa)b^* + a^*bbbbb^* + (a + b)^*ab(a + b)^*$ $(λ + a + aa + aaa) + a^*bbbbb^* + (a + b)^*ab(a + b)^*$ $(λ + a + aa + aaa)b^* + a...

Consider the category the set $\mathbb{Z}^{+}$ of positive integers endowing it with divisibility relation. Thus there exists one morphism $d \mapsto m$ in this category iff d divides m without remainder; There is no morphism between d and m otherwise. Show that this category has products and coproducts. What are their convential names.
15:13
@TedShifrin Those are just gcd and lcm.
Please, don't vote down ;)
Ted please give me a clue as to what is happening at the horizontal lines?
It is very cool that we have relationship among gcd lcm and normal set products and disjoint union. I guess it makes sense somewhat but it is very cool. @TedShifrin
@MithleshUpadhyay please, don't use LaTeX to type regex.
use ` to wrap the regex instead
like a+b*
@Adeek Yeah, it is a nice example to have in mind
15:17
Karim: Also think about gcd and lcm in terms of ideals.
oh cool @TedShifrin
yeah @TobiasKildetoft
Good morning Ted
Hi chat
@Astyx bonjour
How are you ? @DHMO
15:20
je suis bien merci et toi?
@GFauxPas: You should redo that so that you start further over to the right. But what's your question, really? Write out $\Re{e^z}= e^x\cos y$.
Ça va, ça va
oh, so, the sine changes only depending on $\cos y$
@DHMO , yes, I'll remember for next time. However, is it bad using LaTex in regex?
Salut, Astyx. Tu vas mieux?
15:21
aah thanks Ted
Beaucoup mieux oui !
Maintenant je marche et je rigole sans avoir mal
Formidable!
@MithleshUpadhyay the + is wider than the * by a lot
Et toi ?
I was wondering wtf is (a+b)^*
15:22
Assume you don't have a calculator or a computer, how would you calculate the mean of $\sin^{100}$ in roughly 5 minutes to 10% accuracy?
@TedShifrin can i be excused for misreading it as "formamide" lol
Pas de problèmes, merci, Astyx.
@s.harp question doesn't make sense
but there are algorithms for sine
for beginners, use the taylor series
Using the residue theorem it can be brought to an expression ${100\choose 50}\frac1{2^{100}}$ rather quickly, but I cannot evaluate that in under 5 mins
ah, taylor expansion of course
15:23
Stirling's approximation is your friend
Do you mean $\displaystyle \frac 1 \pi \int_0^{\pi} \sin^{100}(x) \ \mathrm dx$?
yes, the mean over its period
Ugh :)
I would not even know how to calculate that lol
@DHMO , yes, but seems to no problem, right? Because we have to use \cap and \cup , or * has no problem because it is in power only. Am I right?
15:26
Arnold says
> A student who takes much more than five minutes to calculate the mean of $\sin^{100} x$ with 10% accuracy has no mastery of mathematics, even if he has studied non standard analysis, universal algebra, supermanifolds, or embedding theorems.
That's kindof a Wallis integral is it not ?
I think the binomial expansion and Stirling wins.
@MithleshUpadhyay why does regex have \cap and \cup?
[Abstract algebra] Theorem(???): For any countable or finite associative semigroup S, given a left (right) multiplicative identity and a pair of inverses $uv=1$ where $v\neq 1$ ($u\neq 1$). If $u1\neq u$ ($1v \neq 1$), then the semigroup is inconsistent since no $vx$ ($xu$) can be defined for all $x$ such that the system is consistent.

Proof: Has 4 short columns, working through all 6 special elements in the semigroup. To be pasted shortly
No residues ....
15:27
@Secret What do you mean by inconsistent?
@DHMO because regular languages are stable by union and intersection I think
the trick with the residue theorem gives the exact value super fast, but as I said I cannot evaluate $2^{100}$ or $100!/(50!^2)$
@s.harp well, nCk ~ n^k/k! (very inaccurate)
use Stirling for more accurate result
I think taylor series would also give you the same thing
Yes Taylor series is I think the fastest way to get it :)
@Astyx ugh, I've been doing too much real regex
15:28
but controlling the errors would be cumbersome for sure
@s.harp $2^{10}\approx 10^3$
@TobiasKildetoft Because it is a semigroup, inconsistent here means at least one associative rule will fail. By the way, I am not sure if I had a semigroup where not all pairs of products are defined is still a semigroup, if that is still a semigroup, then this can be the counterexample
can you show me how you got 100C50/2^100 ?
I might be talking nonsense
Why residues? Just look at (e^{ix}-e^{-ix})^{100}$.
15:29
@AlessandroCodenotti 100log2 ~ 30.1
@Secret As is so often the case, I am really not sure of your usage of these words. A semigroup is by definition associative, and has the operation defined everywhere
But can you not compute the exact value of the mean of $\sin^{100}$ ?
Hi @Alessandro :) HNY
@Astyx of course you can
15:29
well the trick with the residue theorem is that $\int_0^{2\pi}f(\sin(x))\,dx=i\int_{S^1}f(\frac12(z-1/z))/z\,dz$
that integral above can be done in elementary functions
@TobiasKildetoft but do semigroups assume products of the form $xy$ always exist and in the semigroup?
So why expect 10% accuracy ?
Happy new year to you too!
@Astyx because nobody would compute the exact integral
15:30
Why not ?
do you know how to compute int sin^4(x) dx?
you can compute the exact integral with res. theorem, but you cannot evaluate that expression by hand
@Secret Yes, that is what the term "binary operation" means.
It's easier just to use the binomial expansion directly, @s.harp
@TedShi oh, yes thats rightr
15:31
@Astyx you need a double angle formula for sin^4(x)
Tobias: Yeah, if (xy)z=x(yz), then xy and xz must be defined and in $S$, nvm
twice
Wait a sec
@Secret this has nothing to do with associativity
I see
15:32
@Astyx for sin^100, you need the double angle formula twice, and the quintuple angle formula twice
have fun doing that
proceeding on showing the proof then
@Astyx or you would convert it to ((e^ix-e^-ix)/2i)^100 like Ted said
@TedShifrin the residue theorem trick is useful for things like $\frac{\sin}{\cos}$ not polynomials in $\sin$ and $\cos$, that can be seen by direct binomial expansion right^
What we have in the semigroup:
1x=x
uv=1
@Astyx and then you would need binomial theorem
15:33
If uu=u
uuv=uv
u1=1
u1v=1v
uv=v contradiction
@s.harp, I love the residue thm, but ... Not always the optimal.
If uu=1
uuv=1v
u1=v
u1v=vv
uv=vv
=>v=vv
uv=uvv
1=v contradition
If uu=v
uuv=vv
u1=vv
u1v=vvv
uv=vvv
=>v=vvv
uv=uvvv
1=vv
u1=uvv
u1=v
uu=u1
uuv=u1v
u1=uv
u1=1
u1v=1v
uv=v contradiction
I'm pretty sure there is a nice recursion formula for computing $\int \sin^n$ @DHMO
Especially with $n$ even
@Astyx good luck using the formula 50 times
25
15:35
what
If uu=u1
uuv=uv
u1=1=uv
uv=v contradiction
@Astyx $\int\sin^n = 2\pi {n\choose n/2}\frac1{2^n}$ if $n$ is even
hello guys, Im just reading on calculus and wondering about an example of increasing function that's derivative is not positive
Yeah exactly
With some $\pi$ no ?
but I cant find any example
15:36
@Dartek12 y=x^3, y'(0) = 0
that depends on whether or not zero is positive
@s.harp look, zero is only positive in stupid regions like France and Belgium
That's better :P
welllllll I'd say $x$ positive $\iff x≥0$
@s.harp are you from those stupid regions?
@SteamyRoot t'es de France ou Belgium?
15:37
:D no im from germany
@DHMO it's odd to speak about monotocity in a point, but I get it
@Secret I have no idea which parts of those were the assumptions on the semigroup. Was it just that you had a left identity and a pair of inverse elements with respect to that left identity?
@Dartek12 it must be a point, or else it wouldn't be increasing
Noooo, $0$ is NOT positive. If it were, it wpuld simultaneously be negative. NOOOOO.
Yup, I only have
$1x=x$
$uv=1$
$v\neq 1$
15:39
@Ted I'm gonna pretend I did not see that
@TedShifrin you do give me some pause with that
@DMHO that's right
Seriously, you just destroyed trichotomy.
Hi @Null
The right identity version of the proof will then be:
$x1=x$
$uv=1$
$u\neq 1$
15:40
what is $tan^3(x)$? the same as $(tan(x))^3$
But an operator is defined to be positive iff its spectrum is positive
increasing -> non-negative
@Astyx happy new year
and projections are positive
@Null yes
15:40
No, @DHMO
The proof I am current posting is the left identity version, but due to relabelling, it applies also to the right identity version
@TedShifrin sorry
Your ex is strictly increasing.
@Secret "symmetry" sounds much better than "relabelling"
@Null To you too !
15:41
@DHMO Hmm, you are right
@TedShifrin Mine is, in weight
but I am not sure how to describe that symmetry other than relative left and right properties are conserved
@Secret reflectional symmetry. put your proof next to a mirror.
Uhh, wait a sec.. I need to recheck this case... somehow I marked this as a contradiction...
If uu=au=a for some a in S
u1=a1=av
uv=av=avv=1
=>u1=1
@DHMO Belgique. Mais jusqu'en mai, j'habitais 5 mètres de la frontière entre la Belgique et la France.
15:43
@Secret clearly you need more assumptions than a left identity and those $u,v$ as that would be satisfied by any nontrivial group
@SteamyRoot do natives confuse -ais and -ait also?
I really doubt it.
@DHMO Let $W_n = \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin^n$.
We have by integration by parts that $W_n = W_{n-2} + {1\over n-1}W_n$ ie $W_n = {n-1\over n} W_{n-2}$
What follows is that $W_{2n} = {(2n)!\over n! 4^n}W_0 = {(2n)!\over n!4^n}\pi$
@SteamyRoot but you just did
If I still talked or wrote french more than, say, once every 2 months, I definitely wouldn't.
15:44
Sorry for pinging
@SteamyRoot oh, you use Dutch often?
@Astyx interesting
O wait, I can see it now: the two lines implies av=a1=1. Multiplying by v on the right give avv=a1v=1v => avv=av=v, which is a contradiction since $v \neq 1$
fixing that line in my documents...
@DHMO You can hardly call Flemish the same as Dutch
Yep. Officially, Dutch is my first language, French my second and German my third.
These (or rather the integral on $[0, {\pi\over2}]$) are known as the Wallis integrals IIRC
15:46
@SteamyRoot I see
But in reality, I'd say my English is way above my French and German, and I talk German more often than French (since my girlfriend is Austrian).
Austrians speak only German and English?
@DHMO Actually I forgot a square on the factorials in the denominator
I see
@AkivaWeinberger bienvenido
uu=au
u1=a1
uv=av
1=av
u1=uav
uuv=uav

By moving backwards from the previous step (since the next step becomes that one after applying v)
uu=ua
15:48
@Krijn Then what do you think of the accent in my part of Flanders? (See this youtube video )
@DHMO Mostly German. It's way less common for people there to speak English than in Belgium, at least in my experience.
(Had a feeling that argument will fail if v is not injective)
@SteamyRoot I see
Now near the end, the messy part...
If uu=au=ua=b (and/or u1=a) where a,b is arbitrary
u1=a1=uav=bv
1=uv=av=uavv=bvv
uua=aua=uaa=ba
auu=aau=aua=ab
uub=aub=uab=bb
buu=bau=bua=bb
aa=a1a=u1a=ua
uu1=au1=ua1=b1
aaa=uua=ub
uuu=uau=bu
@SteamyRoot Versta hier heeeeeeelemaal niks van.
Now consider what x,y can satisfy $$vx=y$$ it is easy to check for contradiction for x=0 and y=u,1,v. For y=a, it reduces to the case uu=u. So we only need to check for b
If vu=b
va=v1a=vuva=bva=u1a=b
vb=vua=ba
a=1a=uva=ub=u contradiction
15:54
What the hell, I live three floors up and out of nowhere a guy in a cherry picker comes up to my window and starts drilling into the wall
typo: $a \neq u$ in th previous message (although I have nto check what happens if $a=u$)
@DHMO Especially in Vienna (which contains $\approx 25\%$ of the population), it's way more common for people to know some Hungarian or Slovak, since those countries are way closer.
@SteamyRoot ich sehe.
Is that something germans say ?
no, I totally made that up
15:55
I seems to sound weird by my ears
@SteamyRoot Wie sagst du "I see" in Deutsch?
But then again, my german is not exemplary
Stimmt?
Dunno really, only did a few years of German
Finally, to show that even if $S$ has countable number of elements (possibly uncountable amount of elements as well???) we can show that a contradiction will result hence concluding the proof as any element c that is not the ones already considered will be expressed as a word consists of the previous elements a,b,u,v,1, thus one cannot bypass the contradiction by picking a new element
u1=c=ab=aua
uv=cv=1
vu=c=aua=aau
vu=aa
@HarshKumar , please, don't edit posts unnecessarily only for more reputation. You are doing nothing there.
15:57
@DHMO "Ach so", probably.
which reduces to the case vu=b, which is shown to be contradiction
@SteamyRoot ach so
also typo a few posts ago: x=u, not 0 there is no 0 in the system
Now to check whether a=u will screw my proof
And also whether v is not injective will screw it
Otherwise, I have finished pasting the proof
I have no idea however how to prove this without all this tedious case by case checking, however
perhaps a universal algebra book will have some clever ways using some varieties and morphisms to do all that hard work of case by case checking
My program has reached n=750580000.
As for counterexamples to the proof if $v=1$ this is one example:
12
Q: Is a semigroup $G$ with left identity and right inverses a group?

providenceHungerford's Algebra poses the question: Is it true that a semigroup $G$ that has a left identity element and in which every element has a right inverse is a group? Now, If both the identity and the inverse are of the same side, this is simple. For, instead of the above, say every element has a ...

Ok for $a=u$, this means there is no b (because uu=b, which at that point a,b are arbitrary $\neq u$ thus by relabelling we can equally say it is uu=a, which is shown to cause a contradiction earlier
16:15
@MithleshUpadhyay Ok now I will edit posts after completing 2000 reputation
Actually, I just realised, my proof can as well stop at uu=a since a is arbitrary, thus it account for all case. This means there is no consistent way to define uu
So the proof should hold
So to rephase:
Given a semigroup $S$ where
$uv=1$
$v\neq 1$
$\forall x \in S, 1x=x$
philomath
or the mirror inverted version of these properties (mirror inverted as mentioned by DHMO). Then it can be shown that $uu=x$ is inconsistent for any $x \in S$
(I know I have said this before)
> If 0=1, where 0 and 1 are elements of the integers, then Riemann conjecture is true.
16:23
If uu=u then
uuv=uv
u1=1
u1v=1v
uv=v contradiction

If uu=v then
uuv=vv
u1=vv
u1=vv
u1v=vvv
uv=vvv
=>v=vvv
uv=uvvv
1=vv
u1=uvv
u1=v
uu=u1
uuv=u1v
u1=uv
u1=1
u1v=1v
uv=v contradiction

If uu=1 then
uu=1
u1=v
u1v=vv
uv=vv
=>v=vv
uv=uvv
1=v contradiction

If uu=a where a arbitrary then
u1=a1=av
uv=av=avv=1
=>a1=av=1
av=v
v=1 contradiction
Therefore for any semigroup $S$ with the aforementioned properties, it is inconsistent and does not exist
16:36
are elements in a semi-group cancelable?
@Starfall Ah ok!!
How to prove that if a+bi is a root of a polynomial, then a-bi also is?
a polynomial with real coefficents I assume?
@DHMO Polynomial with real coefficients, that is
yes
16:47
@s.harp Not necessary, there's a subset called the cancellation semigroups
you only need to show that this is true for polynomials of degree $2$
since every polynomial over $\mathbb R$ factors in a product of irreducible polynomials of degree $1$ and $2$ and the complex roots can't come from the linear factors
yes, just use the fact that C is algebraically closed instead of defining a simple ring homomorphism
lets assume there exists a root with the form a+bi
@Secret do you know that complex conjugation commutes with sums and products
@AlessandroCodenotti every polynomial can be expressed as irreducible polynomials of degree 1 and 2?
16:50
yup I do
I haven't heard of that lol
how do you prove it
Over $\mathbb{R}$ yes
@Secret well, let's say $ a_n x^n + a_{n-1} x^{n-1} + \ldots + a_0 = 0 $ for real $ a_i $ and some $ x $
try to take the complex conjugate of both sides
@DHMO You prove that any polynomial has a root in $\Bbb C$
and see what that tells you about the complex conjugate of $ x $
16:51
that's because $\mathbb R[x]$ is a UFD and irreducible polynomials over $\mathbb R$ can only have degree $2$ or $1$
@Starfall the conjugate is also a root
Then see that if a real polynomial has a complex root, then its conjugate is also a root
@Secret LOL
sorry
this was all supposed to be directed at @DMHO
@Starfall thanks
@AlessandroCodenotti what theorem is that?
Then that $(x-a)(x-\overline a)$ is a real polynomial
And this proves the statement
16:53
@DHMO "C is algebraically closed" is the fundamental theorem of algebra
It doesn't have a name, it's a special case of the fact that $\mathbb F[x]$ is a UFD when $\mathbb F$ is a field
@AlessandroCodenotti how do you prove that?
@DHMO you prove that it is euclidean
What does UFD stand for ?
unique factorization domain
16:55
@Astyx unique factorization domain
then you prove $\text{euclidean domain}\implies\text{PID}\implies\text{UFD}$
Thanks
Correction again: Actually the general case uu=a for a=/=u,v,1 will not fail as
uuu=au
uu=a
u1=av
uv=avv

uu=a=1a=uva

and one can go up or down this chain as far you want
@AlessandroCodenotti why UFD and field implies every polynomial expressible as irreducible quadratics and linears?
@DHMO it doesn't
16:57
it doesn't
that's exclusive to R
then how do you prove that for R?
that question has already been answered
that happens because $|\bar{\mathbb R}:\mathbb{R}|=2$
could you guys answer it in English?
16:58
(of course $\bar{\mathbb{R}}=\mathbb{C}$)
Is that really exclusive to $\Bbb R$ ?
Or was that just a way of speaking ?
it doesn't help using more complicated terminologies to explain complicated terminologies
@Astyx what do you mean, exactly?
Thought so
There are other fields that behave as such, are there not ?
17:00
@AlessandroCodenotti why does |C:R|=2 implies the theorem?
they are structurally similar to the real numbers in several respects
but yes
yes, there are $3$ possibilities, either a field is algebraically closed, or it is "real like" or it has irreducible polynomials of all degrees
Over $\mathbb Q$ it's very much harder and more interesting
@Astyx any such field has the same first order properties as the real numbers
these fields are also known as "real closed fields"
but the second order properties may vary
Interresting
17:03
@astyx this pdf Mike linked me some time ago might be of interest for you too
I'll read it when I have time, thanks
@DHMO if $K$ is a finite degree extension of $F$ (that is $F\subseteq K$ and $|K:F|<\infty$) then all of the elements of $K$ are algebraic over $F$ ($K$ is an algebraic extension)
an element $\alpha$ of $K$ can't have minimal polynomial of degree higher than $|K:F|$ (let's call this number $n$) because otherwise $K[\alpha]$ would be a vector subspace of $K$ (over $F$) of dimension bigger than $\dim K$, which is absurd
So elements of $\mathbb{C}$ have minimal polynomials of degree at most $2$ (over $\mathbb R$)
Now suppose you have a polynomial $f\in\mathbb R[x]$ of degree $\ge 3$, we want to show that it's reducible
@HarshKumar , you can only if that posts need any improvement. Otherwise, you will got ban for more edit.
let's call $\beta\in\mathbb{C}$ a root of $f$ (which exists since $\mathbb{C}$ is algebraically closed), let $g$ be its minimal polynomial over $\mathbb R$, so we have $g|f$ because it's the minimal polynomial and that is a proper factor since it's of degree strictly bigger than $0$ and strictly smaller than that of $f$
so $f$ is reducible
17:17
hi @semi
Soemthing which I thought I'd manage to avoid doing again in grad school: Compute annoying commutators.
Not that difficult, really, just tedious.
Something which I thought I'd manage to avoid doing again in uni: compute. :P
5
hah.
Let $H(t)=\sum_{i}\left[(\epsilon_i-t_1)\sigma_i+g(a^\dagger \sigma_i^-+a\sigma_i^+)\right].$ Then $H(t_1)H(t_2)-H(t_2)H(t_1)=?$
That's the tedious computation.
Subject to $aa^\dagger-a^\dagger a=1,$ $\sigma_i \sigma_j = \sigma_j \sigma_i$, $\sigma_i\sigma_j^{\pm}=\sigma_j^{\pm}\sigma_i\pm \sigma_j^{\pm}\sigma_{ij},$
@AlessandroCodenotti thanks
and $\sigma_i^+\sigma_j^- = \sigma_j^-\sigma_i^++\delta_{ij}(2\sigma_{ij}-\mathbf{1})$. jolly good fun.
17:29
Enjoy
I have no idea what you're talking about, but the notation alone looks physically painful
It slightly helps to use the notation $[A,B]=AB-BA$.
Then you've got $[\sigma_i\sigma_j^{\pm}]=\pm \sigma_j^{\pm}\delta_{ij}$, for instance
But it's still a lot to wade through.

« first day (2343 days earlier)      last day (2973 days later) »