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00:59
@AkivaWeinberger The picture you want is $f(x, y) = 0$ except through $y = x^2$ where $f(x, y) = 1/x$
hey @arctictern here ?
And then make it continuous. I think what you said works; the example I had once upon a long time ago had an $x^5$ in it.
Everything's of the form $x^ay^b/(x^c + y^d)$
@Adeek what's up
@artic I am solving the following question. An alternative to the notion of multiset introduced in §2.2 is obtained by
considering sets endowed with equivalence relations; equivalent elements are taken
to be multiple instances of elements ‘of the same kind’. Define a notion of morphism
between such enhanced sets, obtaining a category MSet containing (a ‘copy’ of) Set
as a full subcategory. So, I solved this question before. I also discussed it with you we consider the morphism to be functions that preserve relations.
@arctictern Now I would like to give a description of monorphism in this category and epimorphisms.
@arctictern Are they just injective/surjective relation preserving maps ?
have you seen the proof that inj/surj functions are monos/epis in the usual cat of sets?
01:06
Yeah I proved it before.
I think the regular proof for monos will work for this category.
There is a problem I could see for epis.
atleast for the side of a morphism epic then it is surjective.
@MikeMiller This is an interesting perspective
@artic Remember I showed you the proof as follows: Suppose f is a morphism that is epic, but not surjective. Then, there is a b such that there is no a that mapped to it. Fix arbitrarily $\alpha_1 : B \rightarrow A$, construct $\alpha_2 : B \rightarrow A$ to be same as $\alpha_1$, but different at point b. So this will give us a contradiction.
@arctictern However, in this case we don't know whether this new $\alpha_2$ will be actually a morphism in the our new category Mset.
For the other side we can use the fact that a morphism which is surjective will have a right left inverse so we can use that to show it is epic in this category Mset.
in fact, an epimorphism needn't be surjective here. instead, its range hits every equivalence class in the codomain.
oh so it is surjective onto the equivalence class ?
that is something less I see
I guess for monos it would be injective onto equivalence classes right ?
01:35
@AlessandroCodenotti Thanks. I always think of $| |$ in general terms being particular to vectors, rather than equivalent representation of sqrt, though. But at least my algebra wasn't wrong, it's just a representation thing.
@Fargle I hope one day to achieve enlightenment and become an Algebra, myself. I'll float through the universe.
ahaha
02:14
@BenjaminR "On all levels except physical, I am a Lie algebra. $[x,[y,z]] = [z, [x,y]] = [y,[z,x]] = 0$"
Hi @Fargle
@Fargle apparently a lie algebra L with L' contained in Z(L).
(points at extra equals signs)
Howdy @Balarka, @tern
Yeah, I'm tired and know like two total things about Lie stuff.
Yeah, shouldn't be $ = 0$.
The sum should be.
02:26
I need to decide what I want to do today
@BalarkaSen play video games
neat idea
Hello @Semi
02:44
wrote a little, played a little, watching stuff now
sounds like a nice balance between stuff
nice balance doesn't get papers written
The analogy that comes to mind is a classic physics problem.
Suppose I drill a hole through a bead and put it on a circular hoop. If I orient it vertically, then the bead slides to the bottom and stays there.
@MikeMiller oh well.
user228700
Hello, everyone :-) I have a quick question about the range of a function. Is it given by [maxima,minima] - {Horizontal asymptotes} ?
02:52
If I make the hoop rotate on its vertical axis at a slow but constant rate, the bead will stay at the bottom. But if I increase the rate of rotation, eventually the bead will prefer to rise off the bottom and rotate in some circular orbit.
That's the thing: To get things moving fast enough that the equilibrium state is to keep moving rather than fall to the bottom.
@Kaumudi.H that is a(n poor) attempt to generalize it
@Kaumudi.H no. the range is the set of outputs the function takes.
(A forced analogy, perhaps. But oh well.)
user228700
@arctictern Yes, but I am finding methods to determine the range of a given function.
@Kaumudi.H what does that notation mean?
user228700
02:54
What notation?
That doesn't work in general.
@Kaumudi.H what kinds of functions? a function is just a bunch of ordered pairs. it could be absolute chaos.
user228700
@BalarkaSen Okay..?
[maxima,minima] - {Horizontal asymptotes}
@Pissedofflayman [a,b] is an interval, and A-B means "the set of things in A that are not in B"
02:55
I mean, look at f(x) = 1 if x = 0 and f(x) = 0 otherwise.
Not all missing values come from asymptotes.
None of them does, in this case.
and horizontal asymptotes can be included in the range
user228700
Wokay, never mind, then. Thanks.
Here's another way things could go wrong. Suppose I have a function that passes through the origin, rises past $y=1$, and then falls back to $y=1$ and plateaus there.
In that case, $y=1$ is a horizontal asymptote. Nevertheless, $y=1$ is certainly part of the range due to the initial rise.
can you construct any regular polygon with a bounded amount of angle primesectors?
What?
Angle primesectors?
03:01
@Semiclassical bisector, trisector, etc
of course you can bisect an angle with ruler and compass
Do you mean: If you're allowed to do $p$-section on any given angle, are all regular polygons constructible?
With $p$ prime?
if you can $p$-sect an angle you can $n$-sect an angle
@Semiclassical I think it's asking if there's a finite set of primes that can give all regular polygons.
Ah.
I'd guess the answer is no, but I really don't know.
@Fargle no you can use all primes, only you can only use finitely many steps
03:05
Ah. Then my gut says "yes" but I can't really say why.
I'm out of here anyway.
My feeling is the same as @Fargle.
@MikeMiller Say I want to classify framed cobordisms between 1-manifolds in S^3. Bunch of circles are framed cobordant to a single circle by pair of pants; so it boils down to doing so with a circle. A framing on a circle in S^3 is a choice of a "classifying map" S^1 --> SO(2); so it suffices to see that cobordant framing have homotopic classifying maps, right? Then it's $\pi_1SO(2) \cong \Bbb Z$; which is exactly what $\pi_3 S^2$ is.
though you should be careful when you see that multiple circle are bordant to one
make sure the framings work the way you think they di
03:20
oh whoops maybe I didn't actually pay attention to that
Now it's less obvious to me that pair of pants actually does that when two circles at one end have completely different frames.
need to check that any framings on two of the circles extend everywhere and determine what the third circle is
I am going to ponder on this with the chocolate chip cookies
03:46
Given framings on two circles one needs a framing on the connected sum. So just make the framing trivial near two small intervals in each circle, delete smaller intervals, and glue. This clearly extends everywhere, except near the nonmanifold section of the pair of pants (where the level set looks like an 8), which is the bit I am worried for
But that's easy to fix, now that I think about it.
Hey @BalarkaSen would you like to check my proof ?
Depends. What is this proof about?
Prove that $\emptyset$ is unique initial object in Set.
Okay ?
Sorry, I don't really want to.
ok
 
2 hours later…
05:30
Algebra whizzes:
0
Q: $H\trianglelefteq G$, $H \cap G^{\prime}$ trivial implies $H$ in center of $G$?

Jessy CatThis question is related to this other post: I was wondering if proving that $ H \trianglelefteq G$ and $H\cap G^{\prime} =\{e\}$ (where $G^{\prime}$ denotes the commutator subgroup of $G$) implies that the elements of $H$ commute with the elements of $G^{\prime}$ is the same as proving that $H \...

Make a cat happy
Bacon!
06:08
The rest of the civilized world, eh @arctictern
I am completely uncivilized/uncivilised (pretty much frigging savage in all parts of the world).
I need a fast integer n-root algorithm
I thought most of the time is spent on producing the product of consecutive numbers
but turns out most of the time is finding the n-root of a large integer
not square root
oh. yeah. my bad...
anyway, I guess I should be using Newton's method instead of binary search
06:21
what language are you using?
python
gmpy2.readthedocs.io/en/latest/mpz.html I believe iroot is the "integer root"?
you're going to have a hard time beating gmpy given you're writing it in python and gmpy is a Python wrapper around C
you're right
static PyObject *
GMPy_MPZ_Function_Iroot(PyObject *self, PyObject *args)
{
    unsigned long n;
    int exact;
    MPZ_Object *root = NULL, *tempx = NULL;
    PyObject *result = NULL;

    if ((PyTuple_GET_SIZE(args) != 2) ||
        ((!IS_INTEGER(PyTuple_GET_ITEM(args, 0))) ||
         (!IS_INTEGER(PyTuple_GET_ITEM(args, 1))))) {

        TYPE_ERROR("iroot() requires 'int','int' arguments");
        return NULL;
    }

    n = c_ulong_From_Integer(PyTuple_GET_ITEM(args, 1));
    if ((n == 0) || ((n == (unsigned long)(-1)) && PyErr_Occurred())) {
From gmpy?
yes
06:28
is it fast enough?
haven't tested lol
I want to use my own algorithm lol
I can't even find the code responsible for the root
Yeah, it calls mpz_root
and I can't find mpz_root anywhere
That's because it belongs to GNU MP
not gmpy
I see
06:32
plus python uses GMP natively so it doesn't need to include the library anywhere
gl.
06:58
if you have to write your own, have you considered switching python implementations?
what is python implementation?
so a language is just a grammar, then there is a program that runs/compiles the file
the program that runs/compiles the language is the interpreter/compiler
and it is referred to as an implementation of a language
standard python implementation is CPython
but you could also use Cython or PyPy for instance
I see
do you use the integer square root function a lot?
PyPy would probably be the easiest implementation to use for a speed boost.
07:14
@DHMO god choose one indent and go on with it
@Sophie ?
the indentation is inconsistent
I see
@Dair Netwon's method is way slower than binary search lol
Well that sucks...
what problem are you trying to solve?
@Sophie That isn't even DHMO's code lol
doesn't make it less inconsistent
07:18
@Dair i'm just trying to find the n-th root
@DHMO Oh I thought you mentioned about it being a bottle neck or something...
oh yes
My code is here.
@Dair do you have any faster algorithm?
if you have good code for taking logs and exponentials then that might be faster
@DHMO what do you mean binary search?
def nroot(x,n):
	lo = 1
	hi = x//n
	while lo <= hi:
		mi = (lo+hi)//2
		test = mi**n
		if test < x:
			lo = mi + 1
		elif test > x:
			hi = mi - 1
		else:
			return mi
	return lo
that doesn't look very efficient
07:28
how?
Hey so my internet is acting spotty so if i dont respond you know why
@DHMO I dont understand the problem you are trying to solve.
it's naive. I used to compute square roots with that algorithm when I was in school. I'm going to implement Newton's method and compare
@Sophie I tried. Newton's method is slower
@Dair I'm trying to find n!=a!b!
I think the key is that $x^n-k$ has a root of order $n$ at $k^{1/n}$
why aren't you using the language's built in pow thing?
I thought that is float
07:31
what?
doesn't pow(n,1/3) return float
It is python, it does return a float, you can round it however.
you only need the floor of the thing? That makes it easier
In theory it would be better to have an integer square root, however the built in pow is written in C
In number theory, the integer square root (isqrt) of a positive integer n is the positive integer m which is the greatest integer less than or equal to the square root of n, isqrt ( n ) = ⌊ n ⌋ . {\displaystyle {\mbox{isqrt}}(n)=\lfloor {\sqrt {n}}\rfloor .} For example, isqrt ( 27 ) = 5 {\displaystyle {\mbox{isqrt}}(27)=5} because...
07:33
that wouldn't work @Sophie
my numbers are very big
the precisions would be all lost if you just floor it
I don't get it
oh that's a good point too... if the numbers are too big they cant be put into a float.
disregarding the precision issue...
floats work with numbers up to like $2^{53}$
yeah, but he's using a GMP integers
with arbitrary precision
@Sophie i'm quite sure that 100! >>> 2^53
07:38
do you only need the square root or higher roots too?
higher roots also
you could use Stirling's approximation (which is convenient to take a log of) divide by n then exponentiate
sounds good
nah, too imprecise
you just want the floor of the thing. It should work
try it
try using your approach to calculate (200!)^(1/4)
exp((200*ln(200)-200)/4)
it's too imprecise
07:50
what part of the program is this for?
to check if n! is the product of c successive integers
Stirling's approximation gets $\frac{\ln(200!)}4$ off by 0.0001 which is indeed not enough to guess which integer $200!^\frac{1}{4}$ floors to
you can do better than stirling
@Sophie also, we already have 200!, so we don't need stirling
200!=2^197×3^97×5^49×7^32×11^19×13^16×17^11×19^10×23^8×29^6×31^6×37^5×41^4×43^4×‌​47^4×53^3×59^3×61^3×67^2×71^2×73^2×79^2×83^2×89^2×97^2×101×103×107×109×113×127×13‌​1×137×139×149×151×157×163×167×173×179×181×191×193×197×199
so if 200! is the product of successive integers exactly one of them must be a multiple of 101, 103...199
08:04
then what's the algorithm?
I"m thinking about $n!=a!b!$ the difference $a-b$
the difference would be very large
WLOG a>b
a must be above the last prime below n
wait if $200!=a!b!$ then $a\geq 199$ because 199 is prime but then those cases are all trivial
no, n is not 200!
that would be way too slow
I'm searching on b
so b is 200 instead
I think searching on $n!$ is way faster than whatever it is you're doing that requires taking roots of stupidly large numbers
08:10
Little help here--- Discrete function such that (1,2,3,....,n) --> (n,1,2,....,n-1).
For ex. (1,2,3,....,n) --> (2,3,4....,n,1) then f(i)=(i mod n)+1
by the prime number theorem the average prime gap near x is $\ln(x+1)+1$ you only need to check around $\ln(x)$ possible combinations
@WiCK3DPOiSON f(i) = (i+n-2 mod n) + 1
@DHMO It satisfies. Thanks.
@Sophie then the bottleneck would become the prime check
I bet you're calculating primes over and over again
08:15
Maybe there is a less direct approach for calculating this?
@Sophie hmm?
Dividing by $a!$ implies implies that you have $n(n-1) \cdots (n-a) = b!$
@DHMO there are only like 70 primes less than 200, and 200! is already ridiculously huge. How far have you checked?
I believe that implies that $(n-a)$ is of the form $k!$?
why?
08:18
@Sophie you mean searching n?
anything
I have searched until n = 233200000
Well so: $n(n-1) \cdots (n-a)$ is of the form $b!$
that's a separate program I ran earlier
now say that any other term is of the form $k!$
08:19
@DHMO this is stupidly large. I don't think you're going to get anywhere near searching on b
then there would be an "overlapping" prime factor...
@Sophie hmm...
I just need a better algorithm for n-root
roots are large to extract and your numbers are big
hmm...
let $p_k$ be the biggest prime less than $n$ and $p_l$ be the biggest prime less than $n/2$. Then $v_{p_k}(n!)=1$ and $v_{p_l}(n!)=2$. Then if $n!=a!b!$ and $a>b$ then $a\geq p_k$ and $b\geq p_l$. Then the gap $p_{k+1}-p_k$ has to be somewhat large
and n has to be near $p_{k+1}$. In the $n=10$ solution that happens
08:25
I'm feeling like you can iterate through $a$ and determine if it $(n-a)$ is a factorial, then you have get $b$...
and $a$ has to be near $p_k$
@Sophie what is v?
$v_{p_1}(p_1^{a_1}p_2^{a_2}\dots)=a_1$ where $p_1,p_2\dots$ are primes
so if $p_k!p_l!>n!$ there are no solutions
can you use english to say it again?
lol
okay so remember the factorization of 200!
it had a bunch of primes raised to 1
the primes between 101 and 199
so we determined that $a\geq 199$ because a must divide 199
no I'm wrong
08:31
yes a >= 199
what I've found is that there's no prime $p$ such that $n>2p>a$ but that isn't useful
ok
@DHMO how are you primechecking?
it shouldn't be hard to compute all the primes up to that number
@Sophie trial division lol
I don't have that much space
yes there's your problem. You can precompute all the primes, but there are algorithms which are fantastically faster than trial division
08:36
ya i know trial division is a joke
all your primes. Bottleneck solved
I don't have that many space
yes you do. Learn to use it
oh I know what I can do
I don't need to check if it is prime
I don't need that much trial divisions
you only need to check up to the square root of the number, yes
08:39
no
what I mean is
I don't need to check if it is prime
never mind
i'll use a sieve to see what i can do
nooooo
you'll run out of memory
how is that different from storing the primes?
you don't store them all at once
I see
Hi, anybody knows why the alternative advance level proof of fundalmetal theorem of calculus is taught at most graduate real analysis courses?
08:43
don't they teach Stokes theorem?
@Sophie thanks, I'll try later
@DHMO whatever language you're using I'm pretty sure there are free libraries out there with an implementation of Miller-Rabin
@AlessandroCodenotti ugh, Sophie's idea is better lol
@robjohn May you help with my problem above?
Person 1: I'm going to grab this stick and poke 'em in the eye!
Person 2: No, shoot them instead
Person 3: Unleash the power of the atom!
08:48
@Victor not even sure what you mean by "alternative advance level proof of fundalmetal theorem of calculus"
The first 50 million primes are all well below 3000000000 so you only need to check 4 bases with Miller-Rabin (2,3,5 and 7), it'll probably be faster to recreate the files than downloading them
@AlessandroCodenotti wow.
thanks
@robjohn The advanced proof refer to the measure theoretical proof of fundalmetal theorem of calculus
fundalmetal?
@Victor The measure theoretical proof has to do with the Lebesgue integral. That is used because measure theory is important to analysis.
08:53
@robjohn I wonder why it is taught while a more basic version of the theorem is already given in most undergraduate textbooks
@Victor the non-measure theoretic proof is for the Riemann integral, not the Lebesgue integral.
@ robjohn Why people need lebesgue integral while riemann integral exist
to integrate harder
@Victor because it works in situations where the Riemann integral doesn't
@robjohn Is there existence for some case of single variable definite integral cannot solved by Riemann integral while lebesgue work in these cases?
09:01
@Victor that's what I was just saying.
@Victor The function that is $1$ on the rationals and $0$ otherwise.
@robjohn Thank you so much for answering. Please also take a look on math.stackexchange.com/questions/2078883/…
Please leave some comment if you are willing to
Look up Risch algorithm, it's awkwardly big and I don't remember exactly its limitations, but you might be interested in it
@robjohn Had you lookup something before that is particularly useful for that question?
@AlessandroCodenotti Thank you so much for your reply. But do you know where can I lookup for its limitation
09:24
@Victor the lebesgue integral is more robust
one problem aside from integrability concerns is that the riemann integral only makes sense when integrating over very specific sets
there was a nice question on the site some weeks ago which asked for a measure theory-free proof of the fact that if you have a bounded sequence of functions $ f_n : [0, 1] -> \mathbb R $ converging to $ 0 $ pointwise, then $ \int_0^1 f_n \to 0 $
you can assume the $ f_n $ are continuous, and take the integrals to be riemann integrals; it's still very tricky to prove this if you can't talk about the lebesgue measure
@AlessandroCodenotti @Sophie primality test is still the bottleneck...
specifically, the modpow process is the bottleneck
09:55
@DHMO hi
안녕 카얔
ㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋㅋ
Lollllll
@Ramanujan How do you know it says Car?
@kayak Google translate :D
What did you type on?
카is sound like Car
09:59
Google translate
안녕 카얔 To car

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