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00:00
@meow-mix where?
It's not wrong. At all. $1/\Gamma(0) = 0$.
> 1/x is defined for all but x=0, but 1/1/x isnt undefined at 0
@meow-mix who said it?
eh, but 0!=1, so 1/0!=1, therefore the gammafunction doesn't help me at all, if it is like that
00:01
$\Gamma(x)$ has poles, $1/\Gamma(x)$ has zeroes.
Actually, meow, that would be wrong.
@SteamyRoot Only if you adopt the abuse of notation that $\frac{1}{\Gamma(x)}=\Lambda(x)$ (the reciprocal gamma function)
@meow-mix and why should i believe you?
@Semiclassical abuse of notation
'well, i gave you a source
@Fargle It's not abuse of notation within the class of meromorphic functions
00:02
Not really seeing why that'd be an abuse of notation.
a source doesnt mean yourself @meow-mix
$\dfrac1{\Gamma(0)}$ is undefined but $\lim_{x\to0}\dfrac1{\Gamma(x)}=0$, no?
@Semiclassical because Gamma(0) is undefined
the reciprocal of a pole is not zero
Except it is.
@AkivaWeinberger yes, thank you
00:02
$\frac{1}{\frac{1}{x}} = x$ only when $x \neq 0$. When $x = 0$ we adopt the convention that $\frac{1}{\frac{1}{x}} = 0$, but the function $\frac{1}{\frac{1}{x}}$ does in fact have a hole at $x = 0$.
$\frac{1}{1/x}=x$ would disagree with you.
At most, it's a removable singularity.
yeah, i retract that comment
And when it comes to complex analysis I don't much care about removable singularities.
well, it would be removable
@Semiclassical thank you
people have interesting concepts about the meaning of 1/
00:04
Complex analysis has interesting concepts about that meaning :P
anyways, im not a complex analyst, im just reading from a source
One does have to be a bit careful---the reciprocal of an essential singularity is not a zero.
"interesting" was a polite way to say "wrong"
Like, it's a perfectly acceptable thing to say, but it also begs a modicum of care.
But the reciprocal of a pole is certainly a zero.
00:04
@DHMO It's not wrong at all.
@Semiclassical nope
Seriously, read any book on complex analysis, chapter on "meromorphic functions"
"You should absolutely believe everything on the internet" - Abraham Lincoln 1872
In a wheel, $//0=0$
00:05
The reciprocal of a pole is a zero. And in fact, the multiplicity of pole and multiplicity of zero match
here's a source
Wrench, J. W. Jr. "Concerning Two Series for the Gamma Function." Math. Comput. 22, 617-626, 1968.
@SteamyRoot "1/Gamma(0)" does not mean "find the Gamma function, reciprocal it, fill the holes, evaluate at x=0"; it means "find the Gamma function, evaluate at x=0, reciprocal it"
in which the reciprocal gamma function is defined as entire
at least it is an abuse of notation
Sigh...
00:07
If it's an abuse of notation, it's one I could give a damn about.
@meow-mix the "reiprocal gamma function" is not the "pointwise-reciprocal of the gamma function"
For the purposes of actual computations, the reciprocal of a pole is a zero.
@Semiclassical Gamma is C->C, not C->(C U {pole})
anyway, i have to go now
@Semiclassical ah, now I atleast understand why one would do it like that.
@DHMO Please, just read a book on complex analysis.
00:08
and, @Null, incase you believe my source is fake, here is the full article, available at ams.org
@SteamyRoot any good recommendations?
@DHMO You mean C\{nonpositive integers}->C
Does it work as a pole for the purposes of the argument principle? If so, I don't really care about the abuse of notation.
Or $\bar{\Bbb C}\to\bar{\Bbb C}$
@meow-mix hey, relax. i don't think it's fake. I'm just skeptical in general ;) Thanks nonetheless!
00:09
I think the word you're all missing is "Riemann sphere".
@Null Greene & Krantz - Function Theory of One Complex Variable for basic stuff (bachelor level), Miranda - Algebraic Curves and Riemann Surfaces for more advanced stuff (master level)
There's probably an argument to be made for taking the reciprocal gamma function as the more essential object.
Since, properly defined, it is entire.
Well, you don't "need" the Riemann sphere to justify it, really. But certainly it works there; and there cannot be any discussion there either :P
Though I think that the Gamma function itself is sorta unnecessary for this.
$f(x)=x$ is entire, and has a zero at zero.
$1/x$ has a pole at zero.
The only reason we're getting into knots is because we're treating the Gamma function as the more natural object, and it's not. Same as if we treated $(1/x)^{-1}$ as the definition of $x$.
Historically/pedagogically, it's probably more natural to start with the Gamma function. But at the level of complex analysis the opposite is true.
@Semiclassical I actually rather like this perspective. Define $\Lambda(z) = \frac{i}{2\pi}\oint_{C} (-t)^z e^{-t}\, dt$ with $C$ as a curve enclosing the positive reals, starting and ending at positive infinity and going through $0$.
Then define $\Gamma(z) = \frac{1}{\Lambda(z)}$.
00:16
Yeah, that Hankel integral (I saw it on Wikipedia)
Same.
Alternatively, start with the integral definition of $\Gamma(z)$ and take $\Lambda(z)=1/\Gamma(z)$ to be $1/\Gamma(z)$ with all singularities removed.
wait what
Going through $0$?
That can't be right - it should enclose $0$, but definitely not go through it
That's not the wording Wikipedia has
"where C is a path encircling 0 in the positive direction, beginning at and returning to positive infinity with respect for the branch cut along the positive real axis. "
Okay, that makes more sense
00:19
im not sure why @DHMO got angry at me
The general principle is that, in complex analysis, removable singularities are boring.
Actually, you could indeed take @Akiva's suggestion and use the Riemann Sphere. If you let $\Gamma(z)$ and its reciprocal be defined on $\mathbb{C}_\infty$, then there's no removable singularities to worry about at all
Sounds legit.
And then just define $\Gamma$ and its reciprocal on $\mathbb{C}$ or $\mathbb{R}$ as the projection of the function from the Riemann sphere
@meow-mix Nothing personal, I suspect. We here in MSE just care a lot about math. :3
00:22
After all, $f(z)=1/z$ is a Mobius transform; it maps the Riemann sphere to its reflection across the real line (not a great way to say that, but w/e)
If one wanted to be truly precise, we work on $\mathbb{P}^1$
So you'd have homogeneous coordinates $p=[z:w]$ and $f(p)=[z^{-1}:w^{-1}]$
The point at infinity is then $p=[0:1]$, and near there we can represent $f(p)$ as $f(p)=[1:zw^{-1}]$ so that $f([0:1])=[1:0]$.
Near $[1:0]$ we can instead represent $f(p)$ as $f(p)=[wz^{-1}:1]$ and therefore $f([1:0])=[0:1]$
And done.
@Semiclassical so $(3,+\infty)$ would make sense in that context as a point?
you'd represent it as $[1:0]$.
But $[z:w]$ and $[\lambda z:\lambda w]$ are equivalent in P^1 if $\lambda\in\Bbb C$
00:39
how important is it that I learn the theorems and how to prove things along with the actual math itself? will it significantly help my understanding?
@heather I think it's very important
i think only if you understand the "need" for the theorem
(just my humbly opinion)
@Brody hello, how are you? :)
Happy Thanksgiving fellow americaners
Happy Thanksgiving
Hi @Null. Doing well, thanks. You?
00:44
@Brody good too!
Your question earlier spurred quite a discussion @Null
I didn't (and still don't) know a decent answer honestly
@Brody im just drinking my beer solving excercises haha. I think the answer to my profs excercise lies in the prof...
(i didnt visit his seminar cuz of reasons)
sent him an email tho :D
@heather Tremendously, at least as you ascend.
now, just for the sake of it, assume that x! is defined always: Let $x\in\mathbb{R}$ be arbitary but fixed. Let $n=0$. $$\sum_{k=0}^{0}(-1)^k\binom{x}{k}=(-1)^0\binom{x}{0}=\frac{x!}{0!(x-0)!}=1=\fra‌​c{(x-1)!}{0!(x-1-0)!}=(-1)^{0}\binom{x-1}{0}$$
mmh
lol screw that^^
01:11
@Null I see what you mean to write. What are you trying to show?
just the basecase @brody of $$\sum_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^k\binom{x}{k}=(-1)^{n}\binom{x-1}{n}$$
Ohhh
i think its easy to recognize what the red \frac should be
i mean, the excercise builds on the fact that its defined for all reals
so i guess my prof has a suiting definition of binomials
This is for all $n\in\{0,1,2,\ldots\}$?
yep
01:15
I feel weird about allowing arbitrary $x\in\mathbb{R}$
yeah
(-1)! is basicly the thing we talked for 2 hours^^
and I highly doubt that this is content for the first semester
What about integer $x\ge n+1$? (or no equality, if you prefer)
well x is in that sense a constant
just that it is an arbitary constant
so it doesnt get replace by k in the sum
We can let $x$ vary; we simply restrict the domain
I see what you mean
something like $x\in\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Z}$ imo
01:21
For whatever reason I doubt your prof. has you working with any extension of $x!$ beyond the non-negative integers
But that's none of my buiseness^^. I just write below the proof "this only holds if x is not a negative integer under the usual definitions"
im back
Wb @meow-mix
when composition is a binary relation, does $(f,g)$ map to $g \circ f$ or $f \circ g$?
i would imagine $g \circ f$, im just making sure
01:37
Hello all
hi, @soscrates
What's the math topic being discussed if any
nothing really, im just wondering what the answer to my question is
@meow-mix I don't know what function this is
Wish I could help, only have calculus2 understanding just a curious onlooker
01:39
composition of functions
in this case, the functions are elements of an automorphism set in a category
Interesting
in fact
the category is $\mathsf{Grp}$
I don't know anything about categories
it doesnt even have to do with categories
was just mentioning the specifics
@meow-mix does grp mean pseudogroup like rng for pseudoring?
01:41
basically, does the binary operation $\circ$ (composition) map $(f,g)$ to $f \circ g$ or $g \circ f$
@Null no, $\mathsf{Grp}$ is the category of groups whose morphisms are group homomorphisms
@Null Categories are usually TLAs (three-letter acronyms)
or, rather, three-letter abbreviations
@AkivaWeinberger counterexample to "Akiva's Conjecture": the category $\mathsf{Ring}$
i know, just thought id add in some humor :P
Also, someone once tried to use the category of Banach analytic manifolds in a paper, or $\sf BanAnaMan$.
7
01:43
anyways, akiva youre knowledgable. do you know?
@AkivaWeinberger so if the number of letters is n. The number of categories is bounded by $n^3$? :-D
(Sadly, it was changed to $\sf BanMan$ before publication)
hilarious^^
@meow-mix I think $f\circ g$, but I'm not quite sure why it matters
@meow-mix Not sure why you're talking about a mapping
01:45
unless you see $“\circ(f,g)”$ somewhere
It's like seeing $“+(3,5)”$ instead of $3+5$
because i have to prove that $g \mapsto \gamma_g$ is a homomorphism from $G$ to $\mathrm{Aut}(G)$
@AkivaWeinberger Oh my God really?
I've related this story before
I'm upset that didn't make it to print.
@AkivaWeinberger it matters because it has to do with homomorphisms
01:49
Is $\gamma_g$ conjugation? In any case, just choose whichever one makes the statement true :P
Wait is it $x\mapsto gxg^{-1}$ or $x\mapsto g^{-1}xg$
Usual composition of functions is taken $\circ(f,g)(x) = (f \circ g)(x) = f(g(x))$. That is, the composition is evaluated right through left--you map x first through $g$, then through $f$.
^, which is a confusing consequence of writing $“f(x)”$ - that is, the function first, and what the function acts on second
ok shit this is confusing
01:53
If I made the notation I probably would change it to $“(x)f”$
@AkivaWeinberger I might do something like that, or $(x) \mapsto f$, read "x through f" rather than "f of x"
with a different arrow than $\mapsto$
@meow-mix What are you having trouble with in particular?
i have to prove that $g \mapsto \gamma_g$ is a homomorphism of groups
@AkivaWeinberger That might have some nice advantages, e.g. $(f(x))^2$ vs. $(x)f^2$
@meow-mix Yes--what I mean is, where is your sticking point?
oh, im just "stuck" at proving that $(ab)x(ab)^{-1} = b(axa^{-1})b^{-1}$
01:56
is there a book anyone knows about that just has things to try to prove? (explanations of the proofs would be a bonus)
try studying analysis
analysis? okay...
hey @arctictern
@meow-mix you sure that shouldn't be $a(bxb^{-1})a^{-1}$?
01:58
@meow-mix You're doing your composition wrong. $(\gamma_a \circ \gamma_b)(x) = \gamma_a(bxb^{-1}) = a(bxb^{-1})a^{-1}$.
Velleman's book How to Prove It comes to mind
i meant that, sorry
but this might not be what you want @heather
That's pretty easy to prove, then. Just figure out what $(ab)^{-1}$ is.
@meow-mix Well, just recall how to write $(ab)^{-1}$ in terms of $a^{-1}$ and $b^{-1}$.
@heather Are you looking for a sort of "intro to proofs"?
02:00
@Fargle how would i do that?
$a^{-1}b^{-1}$?
Does $(ab)(a^{-1}b^{-1})=1$?
@meow-mix Not quite: (ab)^{-1} should satisfy $(ab)(ab)^{-1} = 1$, but $aba^{-1}b^{-1}$ might not.
@Fargle, yes, I suppose, but mainly I just want some practice proving things.
If not, then that's not $(ab)^{-1}$.
let me ponder this
02:01
@heather I can also recommend How to Prove It, as per what Brody said. I'll also see if I can dig up the text my prof used for that class--he wrote it himself and distributed it electronically.
To put it in a more literal way: If I close a door and then lock it, would I undo that by opening the door and then unlocking it?
Both have significant amounts of proofs to practice with.
@Fargle, okay, thank you =)
that sounds great!
well no, because the group of "actions on the door" is not commutative
Right. So what order would I do instead?
02:02
oh wait, $b^{-1}a^{-1}$?
yup
(to complete the point: you'd undo them in the opposite order that you did them originally)
anyways. once you've got that, the result is immediate.
yeah
welp
time to prove the final thing in this exercise
that the homomorphism is trivial if and only if $G$ is abelian
@heather I'll need your email for the latter.
(don't spoil it!)
SPOILER ALERT: it's true.
02:05
@Fargle WHY YOU GOTTA SPOIL IT
now im NEVER gonna return to math
im going back to chess crosses arms
wow jeez I'm sorry
@Fargle, I'm not sure I can just give out my email, sorry - not that I don't trust you or anything, just not sure my parents would be happy about it.
that's odd, my 3 messages lined up in a perfectly rectangular fashion
@meow-mix, come on, math is much better than chess.
Nah, I feel you, haha. In that case, How to Prove It should serve you quite well.
02:06
chess is fun :P
anyways
@Fargle, okay, thanks for your help =)
lets prove this biconditional
No problemo.
@meow-mix lol
To show that it's trivial, you want $axa^{-1}=x$ regardless of $x$
02:07
hushhhh
thats the kind of spoilers i dont care for
im gonna pretend like that didnt happen
je n'ai pas le temps
remember that sentece if you ever face a duel at morning :P
I do not have time?
@Null like Galois?
Évariste Galois (* 25. Oktober 1811 in Bourg-la-Reine; † 31. Mai 1832 in Paris) war ein französischer Mathematiker. Er starb im Alter von nur 20 Jahren bei einem Duell, erlangte allerdings durch seine Arbeiten zur Lösung algebraischer Gleichungen, der so genannten Galoistheorie, postum Anerkennung. == Leben == Galois besuchte das College Louis-le-Grand in Paris, scheiterte zweimal an der Aufnahmeprüfung zur École polytechnique und begann ein Studium an der École normale supérieure. Mit 17 Jahren veröffentlichte er eine erste Arbeit über Kettenbrüche; wenig später reichte er bei der Académie des…
@meow-mix nice one^^
02:09
that feel when you link a german wikipedia article
:D
english translation:
Évariste Galois (French: [evaʁist ɡaˈlwa]; 25 October 1811 – 31 May 1832) was a French mathematician born in Bourg-la-Reine. While still in his teens, he was able to determine a necessary and sufficient condition for a polynomial to be solvable by radicals, thereby solving a problem standing for 350 years. His work laid the foundations for Galois theory and group theory, two major branches of abstract algebra, and the subfield of Galois connections. He died at age 20 from wounds suffered in a duel. == Life == === Early life === Galois was born on 25 October 1811 to Nicolas-Gabriel Galoi...
he is legend :O
I'm already older than he was when he died.
he died from wounds suffered in a duel? geesh, didn't know that
02:10
I had no idea he died prematurely
dude, i hate when im just walking my dog, and my Aufnahmeprüfung gets tangled in a knot!
Yeah, he died really young.
hopefully i wont die in a duel at 22
Shame
@meow-mix it would give catch 22 a new meaning
02:11
I'm a little late to have lasting contributions to algebra, I guess.
@Fargle maybe have lasting contributions to Inter-universal Teichmuller theory?
@meow-mix If we're being real, probably not.
the identity of $\mathrm{Aut}(G)$ is $\gamma_1$ right?
@Fargle I'm sure there are plenty of famous names who did great things not far from their old deaths
@meow-mix Test it to be sure.
@Brody Oh, absolutely. I'm merely being tongue-in-cheek.
02:13
well $\gamma_1$ maps $x \mapsto 1x1^{-1}$ which is just $x$
My plan is to revolutionize our approach to math and then quit and live in isolation for close to 30 years.
so, yes?
i want a heavy metal song about Galois.
@Fargle Of course, just some encouragement nonetheless, lol
that would be f***** brutal
02:13
yeah, I'll try to avoid getting into a duel =P
i used to think Galois was pronounce "guh-loy" and i sounded like an idiot
@meow-mix That doesn't mean it's the identity in Aut(G), though. You want to check that $\gamma_g \circ \gamma_1 = \gamma_1 \circ \gamma_g = \gamma_g$.
i still am not completely sure how it's pronounced, to be honest
@heather "gal-wah"
gal-wa, im pretty sure
02:13
OTOH, you could be laughed at by the community until old age, only to have your work finally accepted long after your death
that would be sad :(
@meow-mix well, if you didn't learn french that's not unusual ;)
@Fargle, hmm, yep, that's a whole lot different than how I thought it was pronounced =P
@Brody Who is that supposed to be? Mine was Grothendieck >_>
@Brody altho Nash got his work accepted before his death, i find his story very tragic
(insulin therapy ugh)
02:16
@Fargle No one in particular, but Cantor came to mind (not sure if his transfinite stuff made the mainstream or not prior to his last days)
@Brody Oh, true.
@Fargle i dont understand, do you have a counter example? im trying to figure this out but i feel like $\gamma_1$ is the identity morphism
It's not a question of whether it's right or not, it's whether you've shown it or not.
@meow-mix It definitely is, but not because $1x1^{-1} = x$. For example, in the rationals, $2x2^{-1} = x$, but it is not the identity morphism.
how is $\gamma_2$ not the identity morphism?
02:19
(ignore this) @Semiclassical unless we are talking about true but unprovable statements.
because it would map $x \mapsto 2x2^{-1} = x$ for all $x \in \mathbb{Q}$
yes, well, this is group theory
@meow-mix Because $\gamma_2 \circ \gamma_3 \neq \gamma_3$.
For example.
what? how?
Or, well, this is a bad example. The conjugations of an abelian group are all trivial.
02:20
$\gamma_3(x) = 3x3^{-1} = x$
This is the whole trivial thing. Need something which is more complicated.
"identity morphism" $\neq$ "the identity map"
is there a counter example?
Simplest nonabelian group is the Klein four-group.
Take, for example, $\{\pm 1, \pm i, \pm j, \pm k\} \subset \Bbb H$.
@Semiclassical Definitely abelian.
02:21
Probably could work out an example in there.
Am I being silly?
This is a group, as you can check.
Also, $-1$ commutes with every element, so $\gamma_{-1}(x) = x$.
@Semiclassical Isn't that abelian
Right, klein four-group is the first non-cyclic one.
Derp
I think you want S3
But $\gamma_{-1} \circ \gamma_j = \gamma_{-j} \neq \gamma_j$.
02:23
so where is the hole in my reasoning?
@meow-mix You're not proving that $\gamma_1$ is the identity on Aut(G).
You need to show that $\gamma_g \circ \gamma_1 = \gamma_g$.
Which you've already got a good first step for.
what game are we playing
what first step would that be?
Basically, it's just algebra that you need to verify
@MikeMiller the "meow sucks at math" game
02:24
That $1x1^{-1} = x$.
Now take that composition, and show that it equals the RHS.
And do the same for $\gamma_1 \circ \gamma_g$.
honestly, if you just write down that composition of conjugations, it's immediately obvious.
oh, so i show that $g(1x1^{-1})g^{-1} = gxg^{-1}$?
Exactly.
We have that the dihedral group D_6 and the subgroup <σ>={σ, σ^2, σ^3, σ^4, σ^5, id}.
How can we find the elements of the quotient group D_6/<σ> ?
@MaryStar those are equivalence classes of $D_6$
which are related by
"symmetric"
wait
02:27
@meow-mix What do you mean?
what is $\sigma$?
or, if not using mathjax, σ
D_6=<σ,τ>
Careful: There's two meanings of D_n
You presumably mean the one that contains 12 elements.
well yeah, they stated the subgroup consists of $6$ elements
Sigma = rotating the hexagon and tau = flipping it over?
02:28
@AkivaWeinberger the opposite i believe
@meow-mix $\sigma$ is one of the generators. The dihedral group with $2n$ elements is $D_n := \langle \sigma, \tau\;|\;\sigma^6 = \tau^2 = 1, \sigma\tau = \tau\sigma^{-1}\rangle$
@AkivaWeinberger Yes.
@MaryStar so, the quotient group consists of two sets
@meow-mix But sigma has order six
@meow-mix No, because $\sigma$ has order $6$. A reflection has order $2$.
oh wait
hmm, thats weird
02:29
One simple way to see what the answer has to be: D_6 contains 12 elements, and the subgroup contains 6 elements.
i would think sigma is symmetry
anyways
@meow-mix Rotational symmetry is also a symmetry.
so it consists of two sets
what you think about this? does it honor Galois sufficiently? img.memecdn.com/more-many-is-not-humanly-possible_o_7021901.jpg
@meow-mix How do we know that?
02:30
{σ, σ^2, ..., σ^6} and {tau σ, tau σ^2, ..., tau σ^6}
D_6 contains 12 elements, and the subgroup contains 6 elements. So the quotient had better contain 12/6=2 elements.
@MaryStar The elements of D6/ <sigma> are exactly the cosets of <sigma>. Since D6 has 12 elements, and <sigma> has 6, then there are two cosets of <sigma>: <sigma> itself, and g<sigma>, where g is some element outside <sigma>.
@meow-mix Those two sets only contain 10 elements...
tau is always an involution in my parlance
i meant to write 6
02:31
Right. I'd have just included 1 and tau instead.
yeah, you could write {1<σ>, tau<σ>}
Yeah. Those are the cosets.
anyways ill work on these exercises tomorrow
i want to play some chess :)
Which if you think about this as the symmetries of the hexagon: You start with a hexagon with 6 labelled vertices. You can make this more symmetric by considering a hexagon colored red on one side and blue on the other. Then there are only two configurations: the hexagon faces red up or blue up.
how do you define divisibility in groups? is it that $g | k$ if $g^n = k$ for some $n$?
02:36
Divisibility isn't really a concept in groups.
You usually don't, but that would be acceptable.
One often says that an abelian group is "divisible" if every $g$ is of the form $nh$ for some $h$
though note we make no demands on uniqueness of h
Wouldn't that just amount to being cyclic?
Oh, doesn't have to be the same h for each element.
Though. Couldn't you just say that $g=1g$ in that case?
I don't see how that can differ from being cyclic without it being trivial.
i guess that would apply more for rings? in which we define the quotient ring as a set of equivalence classes whose equivalence relation is $x \sim y$ if $x-y \in I$ (where $I$ is the ideal you're quotienting by)
Thank you for your help!! :)
"An abelian group $(G,+)$ is divisible if, for every positive integer $n$ and every $g\in G$, there exists $y\in G$ such that $ny=g$." (wikipedia)
"for every positive integer n" is the key part
So 'divisible' by 1, by 2, by 3, etc.
02:51
@Semiclassical so $\Bbb Q$ is divisible but not $\Bbb Z$
Is this like saying $G$ is closed under division by positive integers?
Well, this assumes $ny=g \Rightarrow y=\frac{g}{n}$ and "division" is defined
And when instead of $\langle\sigma\rangle$ we had $\langle\sigma^2\rangle$, we would have 4 cosets, right? Are they the following:
$\{\langle \sigma^2\rangle, \langle \sigma^2\rangle\sigma , \langle \sigma^2\rangle\tau , \langle \sigma^2\rangle\sigma \tau\}$
? @Semiclassical @meow-mix @Fargle
$\langle \sigma^2\rangle$ would have 3 elements, so 12/3=4 cosets, yeah.
I think those are the right ones, as well.

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