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04:00
Having some difficulty here, algebra peeps.
@JessyCat do you have any guesses?
04:17
I need a hint to prove this x.x prntscr.com/cv8les
it's like if the degree values aren't the same then the sum of degree f and g is equal to its max...whatever that is xx.xx
what's confusing?
you can expand both $f$ and $g$ in terms of powers of $x$
then compute the sum
check which terms survive
$f(x) = a_{0}+a_{1}x+a_{2}x^2+...+a_{n}x^{n}$
$g(x) = b_{0}+b_{1}x+b_{2}x^2+...+b_{k}x^{k}$\\
add these two?
right
pick $f$ to have higher degree, wlog
$f(x) = a_{0}+a_{1}x+a_{2}x^2+...+a_{n}x^{n}$
$g(x) = b_{0}+b_{1}x+b_{2}x^2+...+b_{k}x^{k}$
$f(x) + g(x) = a_{0}+ b_{0}+x(a_{1}+b_{1})+x^2(a_{2}+b_{2})...x^{n+k}a_{n}b_{k}$
uh
how did you get $x^{n+k}$ o.o
it was all good until that last term...
04:22
$x^{n}x^{k}$ oh O_O! I should leave the last term like this
what
the last term is $a_nx^n$
ohhhh $a_{n}x^{n}b_{k}x^{k}$
no
We are assuming $n>k$.
So we get
so somehow the $b_{k}x^{k}$ doesn't survive when we add f(x)+g(x) because n >k
@usuki Add the following two polynomials:
x^4-2x^3+x+2
x^2+1
What is the degree of the result?
04:24
$f(x)+g(x)=a_0+b_0+(a_1+b_1)x+\cdots+ (a_k+b_k)x^k+a_{k+1}x^{k+1}+\cdots +a_nx^n$
@arctictern whoa, you're here
@arctictern I have guesses, check out what I wrote.
$x^4-2x^3+x^2+x+2+1 =x^4-2x^3+x^2+x+3$ the highest degree is 4
I was actually planning on going to bed when I notice you pinged me
I guess what I said has been ignored
@JessyCat sure, Q is a homomorphic image of G if and only if G has a normal subgroup N such that G/N\cong Q. That's just the first isomorphism theorem, which is true for all groups and has nothing specifically to do with cyclic groups.
Generate a specific hypothesis for the question at hand about cyclic groups.
04:26
well we're assuming n >k with wlog
It's either going to be $\mathbb{Z}$ or $\mathbb{Z_{n}}$ then
What is either going to be Z or Zn?
@usukidoll What is the degree of the polynomial that I wrote above?
$G/N$?
is going to be isomorphic to either of those
@Jessy There is a unique cyclic subgroup of every possible order, including infinity right? So suppose I pick two values in {1,2,3,...,infinity}. How do you propose to tell if one is a homomorphic image of the other?
Don't just say something algebraically equivalent to "one is a homomorphic image of the other." Say something about the actual values chosen from {1,2,3,...,infinity} and how they're related.
04:29
interesting
Something about divisibility perhaps?
indeed
Huh.
One is a homomorphic image of the other iff the orders of the groups divide each other?
@JessyCat well, one of the orders divides the other. they can't both divide each other unless they're equal. anyway, any ideas how to argue it?
@usukidoll yes!
done
04:32
yay :3
But not an iff
now make sure you understand it
@arctictern not right now, my brain needs sleep.
It's 12:32 am here. I was planning on getting up at 4 and continuing then.
jesus
@0celo7 hello there, smiley.
04:34
hi
good night
what does "smiley" mean
It means you're a happy, friendly guy.
smiley as in :3
I think that's a fair and valid characterization of me.
04:35
@arctictern goodnight. I hope after sleeping for a little bit, it makes more sense. Otherwise I'll be back.
offers fries
Chicken fries?
Mmm
Okay, g'nite.
@usukidoll you some kind of chef?
04:36
sometimes I cook
seem to offer a lot of food around here
in real life
probably laced with poison
ok I need to sleep too
bye people
-.-
my head hurts ... too much math ;p
past two days
04:52
@arctictern: I'm some kind of chef :)
Ted is back yay
where? where?
in this chat
But I don't throw food :P
hmmm stares
sniffs
04:57
rehi @chell
@AndrewT: You're awake early in the morning.
Yup. Weekday after all.
Still ... in this country, grad students don't rise early.
Well, most don't.
They usually don't here either, unless for courses. I started doing it just to make my days longer, surprising how much an hour or two a day helps.
Not if you waste another hour or two here :D
Well, I wake up early so that I can both work and procrastinate.
05:04
You and @MikeM have been running a joint seminar on procrastination.
>.< ugh
We have. I'm mostly joking about it, my thoughts go more in the direction of "It'd be nice to be able to work 80 hours a week without getting tired."

I should start walking to uni, bye!
bubye :)
user227867
Hello @ted. I switched to my autogenerated avatar because it looks nice, like me, lol.
Of course, Jasper.
user227867
05:11
I finally bought a copy of Hartshorne's Algebraic Geometry from Book Depository at a good price.
Well, have fun with that. Not my favorite.
user227867
Sometimes, it has better prices than Amazon and Springer.
book depository ... I ordered from them once
I actually hadn't heard of it, but I'm not buying any more books.
user227867
@usukidoll They sell nothing but books, as the name says.
05:12
mhm
user227867
Amazon sells everything, including my undies.
05:40
@MartinSleziak I misread your post and thought it said to post a question on meta every time one has a formatting trouble (which would be horribly inefficient). XD
 
2 hours later…
user228700
07:50
Hi everyone :-)
user228700
Is anybody familiar w/ the parametric eqn. of a straight line?
08:10
I might be, what about it?
user227867
@0celo7 Have you seen Zheng's Complex Differential Geometry? I can't see if it is suitable for me because there is currently no copy on Russian servers...
user227867
@Kaumudi You should immediately ask instead of ask to ask. If anyone wants to answer and can, they will. =)
user228700
Never mind, I think I got it :-P
I've having some trouble with partial differential equations, how would I find $\frac{df}{dy}$ and $\frac{df}{dy'}$ where $f = y'^2 + yy' + y^2$
user227867
@Kaumudi Many people get answers by simply typing in this room. No need for any response. =)
user228700
08:18
@WillHunting Yeah! It's eerie, how that happens a lot o.O
@NotAGenie are y and y' functions of each other or independent?. If they are independent, you can treat all non variable terms as constants
@secret y' is meant to be the derivative with y with respect to some x
specifically I'm trying to solve the Euler-Lagrange equation
@Kaumudi Not strange, only natural.
user227867
I am still trying to solve 1+1, hmm...
@WillHunting Well, that is certainly tricky as it is not something that can be "solved"
08:27
if that's the Euler lagrange, then y' and y are independent of each other thus if you compute $\frac{d}{dy}$, you can treat y' as constants wrt y
user227867
@TobiasKildetoft I was waiting for you to say that. =P
@secret alright, so that would mean that $\frac{df}{dy} = y'+2y$ and $\frac{df}{dy'} = 2y'+y$ because I can treat them as being independent of one another
and putting that in the Euler-Lagrange equation I'd get $y'+2y - \frac{d}{dx}( 2y'+y) = 0$
you can further simplify that d/dx term and you should get a y" term, which is the generalised acceleration in the equation of motion
$y'+2y - 2y'' - y' = 0$
yup, and that is a linear ODE with constant coefficient, in fact, I predict the solutions will be sinusodial
or exponential, depending on the IVP
08:34
specifically I'm trying to find a path from (0,0) to (1,1) which makes the path integral between those points of f stationary
$\int (y'^2+yy' + y^2)dx$
but I should be able to solve for y using
$y'+2y - 2y'' - y' = 0$, and then find constants such that y(0)=0 and y(1)=1 correct?
then you are in effect minmising the variation of the path from (0,0) to (1,1). On minimsing that, the function $\int f dx$ will be stationary, which (given that your function is a smooth and nice one), means f solves Euler Lagrange, thus you seemed to be on the right track
alright well thank you very much, its been a bit since I've done differential equations so the idea of $\frac{d}{dy'}$ sort of hit me like a brick wall.
08:49
Hey can anyone spot the constant error here? dropbox.com/s/hsouvysj0gybi6h/…
I have picked up or lost a factor of -i somewhere in the (short) analysis but I can't figure out where
09:29
Aren't polynomials entire?
@Lozansky Yes
So shouldn't they be analytic at $\infty$?
write up the definition of what that means
That it's differentiable in some neighborhood to $\infty$
are you sure that is the definition? That would make any differentiable function analytic at infinity
09:39
That it can be represented by a convergent power series at infinity?
what does "at infinity" mean there?
I wouldn't know how to define it formally
then you probably want to look that up
It seems that differentiability at a point does not imply analyticity at that point
right
(though being differentiable as a complex function at the point does)
user228700
09:53
Is anybody familiar w/ the properties associated w/ the centroid of a triangle? I wrote down/drew this but now I've got no idea what it means:
user228700
user228700
(G being the centroid. I've no clue as to what E and D are :|)
@TobiasKildetoft What do you mean "differentiable as a complex function"?
@Lozansky I mean holomorphic
My book doesn't actually mention holomorphic
I conjenctured it was the same as analytic
10:01
the sign error was at the very end, from line 24 to line 25
(in ref to my last post)
@Lozansky Well, complex analytic yes
There is a distinction?
Not sure both real analytic and complex analytic can make sense for the same function
Well I'm pretty sure my book defines a function $f$ to be analytic in an open set $G$ if it has a derivative at every point in $G$
10:06
Well, for complex functions this is the correct definition
@TobiasKildetoft How would you prove $f(z) = z$ is not analytic at $z=\infty$ using that definition?
this is a nice feature of complex functions. That all these various degrees of differentiability are the same
@Kaumudi E is the mid-point of AC. Centroid is the intersection of the three medians. A median is a line connecting a vertex (corner) to the mid-point (middle point) of its opposite edge (side).
Oh we can't have an opet set containing infinity
we can't have any set containing infinity in this context
10:08
Right
Is that how you would argue?
Using the definition
which definition are we using now?
The def. with the open set $G$
user228700
@DHMO Nah, D is definitely not the midpoint of AB. And dude, of course Ik what a median is! ._.
@Lozansky that definition makes no sense for infinity, but since there is a notion of being analytic at infinity, it means that the definition must be something else.
@Kaumudi Sorry, my fault. They should just be random points somehow restricted by the fact that ADB and AEC and DGE are straight lines.
10:13
@TobiasKildetoft Yeah okay, $f(z)$ is analytic at $z=\infty$ if $f(1/z)$ is analytic at $z=0$
user228700
@DHMO While that is true, there is more to it...
user228700
But I can't remember what! :/
@Lozansky Ok, that looks more like something we can work with
@Kaumudi that the right hand side identity is true?
@TobiasKildetoft I guess it then follows that any polynomial with degree $\geq 1$ is not analytic at infinity
10:20
right
user228700
@DHMO Lol, yes, that too, but something else too!
11:41
We say $$\frac{1}{z+z^2/2!+z^3/3!+...}$$ has simple poles at $ z=2 \pi n i, n = 0, \pm 1...$
If we instead had $$\frac{1}{z-z^2/2!+z^3/3!-...}$$ would the point $z=0$ be considered an essential singularity?
11:57
@Lozansky Well, as always first thing to do is look up why we say that the first one has simple poles and what all the definitions mean
12:52
@Lozansky $\displaystyle \frac{1}{z+z^2/2!+z^3/3!+\ldots} = \frac{1}{e^z-1}$, so the simple poles are when $e^z=1$, namely $z=2\pi n i$
Similarly, $\displaystyle \frac{1}{z-z^2/2!+z^3/3!+\ldots} = \frac{1}{e^{-z}-1}$ would have the same poles
13:04
@DHMO You should reverse the signs in the denominator in the expression but I get your point
@Lozansky no, it's written as plus
even if the next term is negative
because it precedes the ellipsis
proceed, precede, because English
$e^{-z}-1 = -z + z^2/2! - z^3/3!+...$
oops, sorry, can't delete now
let's see...
It's okay
$\displaystyle \frac{1}{z-z^2/2!+z^3/3!+\ldots} = \frac{1}{1-e^{-z}}$ right
still the same poles
13:08
Yes
alright
@DHMO hi
Say we have $$f(z) = \frac{1}{a_1z+a_2z^2+...}$$ with infinitely many poles and a finite limit $\lim _{z \rightarrow \infty} f(z)$ , would we classify $z=0$ as an essential singular point or a pole with infinite order?
@Ramanujan hi
@Lozansky why is it a pole with infinite order?
A pole with infinite order would require $a_1,\ a_2,\ \cdots$ to be all $0$.
Okay say there exists a point $z = c$ for which $a_1z + a2_z^2+.... = c$ has infinitely many solutions, then $$g(z) = \frac{1}{c-(a_1z+a_2z^2+...)}$$ would have a pole of infinite order at $z=c$
Hm actually I don't want to use that as an example
13:17
@Lozansky and $c-(a_1z+a_2z^2+\cdots)$ would be $0$
Right
What I want is to construct a function with a pole of order infinity at some point where the function is also bounded
@Lozansky you can't
Yeah that's what I figured
@DHMO If $f$ and $g$ have a pole at $z_0$, do $f+g$ have a pole at $z_0$?
So my answer would be, not always
@Lozansky not necessarily I reckon
but let me think
@BalarkaSen eyyo
13:29
I don't think it's true if the order is different
@Lozansky $f=\dfrac1z$, $g=-\dfrac1z$
Yeah
Huh
Okay but can we prove that in the general case?
If I have some holomorphic line bundle that is globally generated by sections $\{s_j\}_{j\in J}$, then why is its dual a subbundle of the trivial bundle of rank $|J|$?
@Lozansky What is the general case?
I already disproved it
Say $f(z)$ has a pole of order $m$ at $z_0$ and $g(z)$ has a pole of order $n$ at $z_0$
13:33
@Lozansky looks like it's true
Then $f(z) = \frac{f_1(z)}{(z-z_0)^m}$ and $g(z) = \frac{g_1(z)}{(z-z_0)^n}$
True that it is false?
@Lozansky true that it is true
In your example we have $f+g = 0 $ which doesn't have any poles
13:34
I thought you let $m\ne n$
Oh that's the case I'm looking at now
Sorry
WLOG $m>n$
Your turn, brb
$f(z)+g(z) = \dfrac{f_1(z)+g_1(z)(z-z_0)^{m-n}}{(z-z_0)^m}$
$f+g = \frac{f_{1}(z)(z-z_0)^n + g_1(z)(z-z_0)^m}{(z-z_0)^{m+n}}$
Since $f_1(z)$ is coprime with $(z-z_0)$, so is the whole numerator
Therefore it is a pole with order $m$
There is a lemma that says if $f$ has a pole of order $m$ then $|(z-z_0)^{k}f(z)| \rightarrow \infty$ as $z \rightarrow z_0$ for all integers $k<m$
13:39
@Lozansky so?
So the sum $f+g$ has a pole of order $m+n$ but if you look at $f_1(z)(z-z_0)^n$ it's obvious this goes to infinity if $n<m$
@Lozansky not $m+n$?
No, I'm looking at $(z-z_0)^{m} \frac{f_1(z-z_0)^n}{(z-z_0)^{m}}$
@Lozansky but they cancel out?
Wait I might have to write it down on paper
@DHMO It seems to be difficult to use the lemma
13:54
@Lozansky what difficulty are you going through?
I want to look at $\frac{f_1(z)(z-z_0)^n}{(z-z_0)^{m+n}}$ and conclude that this part has a conjenctured singularity of order $m+n$ and then show that $|(z-z_0)^k \frac{f_1(z)(z-z_0)^n}{(z-z_0)^{m+n}}|$ blows up for sufficiently small $k$ but this is not a worthwhile approach
But I have another idea
@Lozansky why don't you cancel?
@iwriteonbananas So you write on yourself?
@DHMO Since I am a banana, yes, I write on myself.
@iwriteonbananas I see
Uh there's a plus
Which doesn't matter
14:02
Hi @MikeMiller
So $h(z) = f_1(z)(z-z_0)^n + g_1(z)(z-z_0)^m = 0$ for $z=z_0$
@Lozansky yes
But that would mean $f+g$ never have at $z=z_0$ if $f$ and $g$ have a pole at $z_0$
That can't be right
14:05
I'm trying to do an exercise in Huybrechts @Mike ;)
(awaits cookie from master)
@Lozansky why would this imply that?
@BalarkaSen Turns out strong differentiability is somewhere in between differentiable and $C^1$
good man
If $f(z) = \frac{g(z)}{(z-z_0)^m}$ then $f$ has a pole of order $m$ at $z_0$ iff in some punctured neighborhood of $z_0$, $g$ is analytic and $g(z_0) \neq 0$
@BalarkaSen The main point is that if your function is strongly diff at a point, it's a homeomorphism of some ball around that point onto its image.
14:07
@MikeMiller But of course I'm getting hopelessly stuck haha
what problem
@Lozansky yes?
@iwriteonbananas WHAT DO YOU WANT
@BalarkaSen The problem is that $C^1$ is infinitely better while str. diff. is only marginally better than diff. So you hear about diff or $C^1$, but not str. diff.
@MikeMiller Something that's used in the main text, also. He has the following: Consider a Hermitian line bundle $L$, globally generated by global sections $s_1,\dots,s_k$. Its dual inherits a Hermitian structure (I'm taking that to just be the thing that dualizes and then uses the already given structure, I hope that's correct). Then I'm supposed to show that $L^*$ also receives a Hermitian structure from inclusion in $\mathcal O^{\oplus k}$ and that it coincides with the other.
One first point, which I think should be clear but isn't, is that $L^*$ is a subbundle of $\mathcal O^{\oplus k}$
14:11
@DHMO In this case $h(z)$ is the numerator which is $0$ for $z=z_0$
@Lozansky so?
@MikeMiller My parents always told me I could be anything I want to, so I decided I want to be a microwave oven.
So then we can't say $h(z)/(z-z_0)^{m+n}$ has a pole
@Lozansky So $\dfrac{h(z)}{(z-z_0)^{m+n}}$ does not have a pole of order m+n
Right
14:12
(it does have a pole of order $m$)
@iwriteonbananas You misunderstood. They said you can be anything I want.
@iwriteonbananas Neptr, is it you?!
Fuck. I'm scared now.
@DHMO Well not necessarily a pole of order $m$
@Lozansky yes, but you can't say that it doesn't have a pole
14:14
Right
@Danu Only if Mike wants....
@DHMO Well then I'm out of ideas
@Lozansky you just have to follow what I wrote above
39 mins ago, by DHMO
$f(z)+g(z) = \dfrac{f_1(z)+g_1(z)(z-z_0)^{m-n}}{(z-z_0)^m}$
38 mins ago, by DHMO
Since $f_1(z)$ is coprime with $(z-z_0)$, so is the whole numerator
37 mins ago, by DHMO
Therefore it is a pole with order $m$
I'm not sure that's necessarily true
Unless I'm misinterpreting you
@iwriteonbananas what are you doing
14:21
@Lozansky Well, which step is doubtful?
That since $f_1$ is coprime with $(z-z_0)$ the whole numerator is
Are you saying that's true because the other term in the numerator is not coprime with $(z-z_0)$?
@Lozansky yes
Okay
@Lozansky just ping me as I'm not always focusing on this window
@DHMO Right, will do
14:25
@MikeMiller Trying to understand the spectral sequence for homotopy colimits
Do u know anything about that?
@DHMO Suppose $f$ has an essential singularity at $z_0$ and $g$ has a pole at $z_0$, can we then say $f+g$ has an essential singularity?
(my battery will die within 5 minutes)
@Lozansky Let $f=e^{1/z}$ and $g=1/{|z|}$
I believe that $\displaystyle\lim_{z\to0}\frac1{f+g}$ exists
@DHMO This is the chapter before the whole point at infinity stuff
@Lozansky alright
14:31
@DHMO So for $f+g$ to have an essential singularity, we know that $|f+g|$ neither is bounded nor goes to infinity at $z \rightarrow z_0$
So we show either and the other one follows
@Lozansky But in this case it does go to infinity
@DHMO That's what I'm thinking as well
@DHMO The answer is that $f+g$ does have an essential singularity at $z_0$ by the way
@Lozansky According to Wikipedia, essential singularity $\iff$ neither $\displaystyle\lim_{z\to z_0}f$ nor $\displaystyle\lim_{z\to z_0}\frac1f$ exists
Okay
Hello. If I count 1,1,2,2,3,3,... |natural numbers|, do I say two times omega numbers or omega times two numbers?
14:36
@iwriteonbananas no
@DHMO But we haven't been given that "theorem" yet
In the mathematical field of set theory, ordinal arithmetic describes the three usual operations on ordinal numbers: addition, multiplication, and exponentiation. Each can be defined in essentially two different ways: either by constructing an explicit well-ordered set which represents the operation or by using transfinite recursion. Cantor normal form provides a standardized way of writing ordinals. The so-called "natural" arithmetical operations retain commutativity at the expense of continuity. Interpreted as nimbers, ordinals are also subject to nimber arithmetic operations. == Addition... ==
@ondrejsl ω·2 = ω+ω ≠ ω = 2·ω
in your case it is 2·ω
@Lozansky then just use your definition
@DHMO Thank you. I tried to read that page but it was too much for me.
@DHMO Then I have to show $|f+g|$ neither is bounded nor goes to infinity as $z\to z_0$
Which I suspect is tricky
@Lozansky I just told you that $f+g$ goes to infinity
so it is not an essential singularity
14:38
@DHMO That contradicts the answer in the solutions manual
@Lozansky what does your manual say?
@DHMO It says it's true that $f+g$ has an essential singularity at $z_0$
@Lozansky for which $f$ and which $g$?
$f$ with essential singularity and $g$ with pole
At $z_0$
I have no idea then
14:52
@TedShifrin Turns out the Taylor estimate approach was completely wrong lol
The proof is actually trivial
15:27
Does every bounded invertible selfadjoint operator have an eigenvector?
hi @iwriteonbananas
Heyo Balarka
what does it mean to say a line bundle is generated by global sections, @Danu?
15:39
There are no points where they all vanish
I'm currently mostly interested in the example of $\mathcal O(1)$ and the coordinate functions $z_j$
But the more general thing I asked you about is an exercise
@ThomasRot Of course by the spectral theorem it suffices to see if multiplication by a function bounded away from $\infty$ and $0$ on some measure space has an eigenvalue. Other than the trivial observation I have no idea what to do, though. I can ask an operator theorist in about an hour.
I assume you're not actually working with an elliptic operator or anything so lucky?
@Danu I see, this sounds like we're trying to find the analogue of the proof of the real version. If $E$ is generated by $s_1, \cdots, s_n$, $E$ trivializes over the complement of the zero sets of each of them. Let that be your open cover $U_1, \cdots, U_n$.
@BalarkaSen Sure.
15:46
You have maps (trivializations) $p_i : p_i^{-1}(U_i) \to U_i \times \Bbb C$. I think you should define $E \to \Bbb C^n$ componentwise as $v \mapsto (p_1(v), \cdots, p_n(v))$, where $p_k(v) := 0$ if $v$ is not in $U_k$.
That's how the proof for real bundles go at least. This should be a proper injective immersion.
Your notation is... weird
$p_i:p_i^{-1}(U_i)\to U_i\times \Bbb C$?
I know, please bear with me.
I meant $p_i$ is projection $U_i \times \Bbb C \to \Bbb C$ composed with that
@BalarkaSen Take your time to correct typos :)
@Danu Or, no, just define $p_i$ as it is, and make the map $E \to B \times \Bbb C^n$ (B the zero section), sending $v$ to $(f(v), (p_1(v), \cdots, p_n(v)))$ where $f$ is the bundle map $f : E \to B$.
Because you want a bundle embedding after all.
15:51
Sorry, I can't parse your messages. Can you type it out?
Let $p_i: f^{-1}(U_i) \to U_i \times \Bbb C$ as it is. No projection. Do you understand the map I wrote down?
i.e., the map $E \to B \times \Bbb C^n$?
Your map $p_i$ makes no sense.
Edited.
$U_i$ is not something in the codomain of $p_i$, if $p_i$ is supposed to map into $X\times \Bbb C$
So $f$ is essentially projection?
$f$ is the bundle map $E \to B$.
bundle projection, yes.
15:55
You want to call the "base space" the zero section, right?
fine
What are $p_i$'s?
Can we just call the trivializations $\phi_i$? :)
I'm calling them $p_i$, but sure. They are the trivializations of $f^{-1}(U_i)$.
Yeah, okay. Got it.
So you want to say that this is an embedding or what?
Yes, that's precisely what I want to say.
15:58
Note that I wanted to know about the dual bundle
Once up embed it in the trivial bundle of rank $n$, can't you give it a Hermitian metric or something? That's how I do it for the real case.
I am not familiar with the complex story.

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