You ask new users to stop giving others orders, but ones with high rep feel they're boss or something. I don't feel like I need to satisfy him that my answer is different!
@Gigili It would be better to fix the genuine flaws. For example, the second line really should say that $nk^2=k-5$ for some $n\in\mathbb{Z}$, and you should explain the notation $\gg$. Once the holes are patched, leave it out there; someone may find it more useful than David’s.
@Gigili Because that’s what $5\equiv k\pmod{k^2}$ means. It simply says that $k=5$ is a multiple of $k^2$; it doesn’t say anything about what multiple.
@Gigili: I do think Didier acts a bit chilly at times, but his comments on your answer look perfectly fine to me. He never told you to delete it or tried to send you the message that you owe him anything; he spoke directly to the issues that he saw.
@anon Yes, but there are many different ways of saying that . Like when I want to ask you to stop talking for a while, I can say "hold on please", "one moment", "shut up"
@Srivatsan Yes please , that'd make me feel better
So you might start: Suppose that $5\equiv k\pmod{k^2}$; then there is some $n\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $k-5=nk^2$. And then you want to go on from this to prove that the only possible value of $k>2$ is $5$.
@Gigili Which is meaningless, since you’ve said nothing about $n$. You also never said what rôle your line $(1)$ plays: are you supposing that $k$ is an integer that satisfies it, or what?
@Gigili But you can’t just throw it out there with no explanation; why is it the first line of the answer? What function does it serve there? A proof is a piece of expository writing: it should be understandable as a string of sentences, even if some of the ‘words’ are actually mathematical symbols.
We’re getting the proof started with enough ‘connective tissue’ to make the flow of logic understandable.
@Gigili That doesn’t mean that you have to leave out the explanation of what you’re doing: Suppose that $k>2$ is an integer such that $$5\equiv k\pmod{k^2}\;.\tag{1}$$ Then ... .
Ok. to go from here to the next line, you are using the definition of $\equiv$ implicitly. That is, there exists an integer $n$ such that $5 - k = nk^2$.
You could say that way, or you could say: $5-k = nk^2$ for some $n \in \mathbb Z$.
I, personally, understand proof with less English sentences and more mathematics symbols better. That's why I wrote it like that, I thought it was short and understandable.
@Gigili The main problem with that is the following. It is very important for the reader to understand the logical flow. Looking at your answer, I am left thinking "Do you mean that the equation should hold for all $n$? Or for some $n$? Or something else?"
@Gigili I think that you have an idea that could be made understandable, but I.m afraid that the argument as it stands now really isn’t, at least to me; in most places I can guess what you have in mind, but you don’t really make it clear.
@BrianMScott And we should emphasise that in this particular example, we are more like teachers who "know the solution already", which makes it possible for us to fill the gaps. If Gigili is trying to explain the proof to someone who doesn't know it already, then it is important that the proof is actually clear.
[One final digression: Note that Didier did not complain about the answer till now (even though we have told you that it can be improved a lot). So that goes on to show that he is probably not doing it on purpose: he most likely does not understand what you are trying to say. End of digression.]
Each of those can be rewritten in a variety of ways. The first, for instance, can be rewritten as $5\mid 6-36$ or as $\exists n\in\mathbb{Z}(5-36=5n)$.
@Gigili Not really. The expression $a\equiv b\pmod m$ simply means that $a-b$ is divisible by $m$, which in turn means that there is some $n\in\mathbb{Z}$ such that $a-b=mn$. Congruence mod $m$ is a relation, not an operation.
What remainder? In what division? (And what if $n$ is $0$, and at what point does $>$ become $\gg$?) I’m pretty sure that you have a legitimate idea in mind, but you really aren’t conveying it clearly.
You could upvote my answer :-) or write one of your own, just to get this off the Unanswered list; that would be my favored solution. I suspect that once it’s off that list, the activity will die down.
@Srivatsan You're just in-debt for people you told "I ran out of votes, tomorrow I'll vote your answer." and then comes midnight UTC you just use all your votes, and clear 40 posts off your queue :-)
@AsafKaragila Now, I am doing one better: I had favorited 27 pages worth of posts just to remind myself that they should be upvoted. I started upvoting the answers and getting them off the list.
@BrianMScott How do you write "latex" in that fancy way as you did here? http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/103865/is-this-theorem-a-new-discovery
$k$ is always congruent to $k$ mod $k^2$; this has nothing to do with the relative sizes of $k$ and $k^2$. (That’s what D. meant when he said that $(2)$ is a tautology.)
They’re still not the same statement. You’re confusing the relation of congruence mod $m$ with the operation of reducing an integer to its least non-negative residue mod $m$.
Look: $a\equiv b\pmod m$ by definition means that that there is some integer $n$ such that $a-b=mn$. Is it true that there is an integer $n$ such that $k-k=k^2n$? Yes: just take $n=0$.
@Gigili Remainders have nothing to do with the matter.
Suppose that $5\equiv k\pmod{k^2}$ for some integer $k>2$. Then $$k-5=nk^2\tag{1}$$ for some integer $n$. If $k-5>0$, then $n>0$, since $k^2>0$. But $n$ is an integer, so if $n>0$, then $n\ge 1$, and therefore $nk^2\ge k^2>k$, since $k>2$. And certainly $k>k-5$, so $nk^2>k-5$. This is a contradiction with $(1)$, so $k-5$ cannot be positive.
I should have made $5\equiv k\pmod{k^2}$ a numbered line, because I’d like to refer to it now. Let me pretend that I did and call it $(0)$.
Thus, $k-5\le 0$, i.e., $k\le 5$. Since $k>2$, this means that $k=3$, $k=4$, and $k=5$ are the only possible solutions to $(0)$. But $5\not\equiv 2\pmod 4$, since $4\nmid 5-2$, and $5\not\equiv 3\pmod 9$, since $9\nmid 5-3$, so the only solution is $k=5$, for which $(0)$ is trivially true.
In substance, yes, because I’m still not sure exactly what you were thinking, and because I don’t see any substantially different argument to use; in style it’s closer to yours.
I’m not sure, but I think that you have some genuine confusion about the relation of congruence that’s getting in the way.
Haha, true. Its called that because Rudin also wrote a book called "Real and Complex Analysis" which is sort of like a like a sequel. Guess what thats called.
@JM Remember my Q on mathematica.SE? My officemate said "Gröbner bases? That's highly inefficient to do this." then he came up with this: i.imgur.com/Vi8Ed.png I am still trying to understand it 8-).
If Real and Complex Analysis is "Big Rudin", then what is the Functional Analysis book?
Can you give me an application where the system of equations formed is a dense matrix? I mean for instance, FDM results in sparse matrices, so does FVM. What results in Dense Matrices?
@JonasTeuwen Yeah, the virtue of Gröbner is generality. With a number of simultaneous algebraic equations, there is often exploitable structure that isn't obvious at first glance. My favorite example was in the math.SE question that turned out to be Gaussian quadrature in disguise.
On the other hand, it is a modified geometric series after all... :)
But mostly, maybe I'm expecting an answer that doesn't just discuss the modification to the geometric series that's needed, but why it's that way with those queues.
Hm, I know enough queueing theory to answer that question as well. (It's M/M/1 after all. :)) But I doubt that the OP wants this; let's just wait for any response.
To be quite offtopic for a few moments: one of my favorite TV shows has just ended its run; I'll now have more time for math and other finer pursuits... :D
You could edit the question saying just that: "I got this nice answer, but I don't understand this one part because of _____, could anyone clarify?" Have you pinged the person who wrote the answer?
@sonyjimbo To your question: you're right that in general we don't have a guarantee that the limit, which we know exists, is the value of the function at that point.
But I think what saves you here is that g is decreasing.
@robjohn I thought example first, counterexample next. =)
@unNaturhal Do you want to do the computation for $f(x) = x + \frac{1}{x}$. Assume that the function is defined in the interval $[1, \infty)$. The left end point does not matter so much.
I want you to compute the oblique asymptote as $x \to \infty$. (In this case, we cannot let $x \to -\infty$; that saves us one case.)