« first day (2089 days earlier)      last day (3231 days later) » 

00:57
hi chat
01:24
Insane in the membrane
Insane in the brain
Insane in the membrane
Insane! Got no brain!
02:24
grad school getting to you, i see? :) @JessyCat
02:57
Hey, can I get help with this? My euler's number formula isn't computing 1 factorial or 0 factorial
I don't think 0! = 1... Seriously. It just doesn't seem to make sense unless you start with 1 and divide by 1
I don't think bachelor means unmarried, either.
no idea what your "euler's number formula" is so how do you expect us to diagnose the problem with it?
oh, e=1/0!+1/1!+1/2!+... I'm guessing.
but that formula doesn't compute factorials, so it doesn't make sense to say your formula isn't computing 1! or 0!
03:19
Hi
I did really good in my presentation. Thanks all for your help @MikeMiller @TedShifrin and @BalarkaSen
what was your presentation on?
04:13
@anon borsuk-ulam
sorry @anon back
it is on Borsuk-Ulam theorem in any dimension
I used homology to prove it
specifically, I proved the following result any map $f : S^n \rightarrow S^n$ which is an odd map must have odd degree.
The way you prove it is you consider the two-sheeted covering space $p : S^n \rightarrow RP^n$ and just construct a short exact sequence in intelligent way. Then you get long exact sequence on the homology, then use f to get a induced map $g : P^n \rightarrow P^n$.
Then you will get a morphism between short exact sequence and itself.
So, by naturality you will get a long exact sequence and itself and you can use that to prove that $f$ must have odd degree
@anon
 
2 hours later…
06:07
i'm sort've confused by the objection in the comments of this question. Is there really a field $\mathbb{K}$ containing $A$ such that the definition $e^A=\sum_{k=0}^\infty A^k/k!$ doesn't make sense? (Not sure that's enough to prove the relevant theorem, but that's a different matter).
Take any finite field
Can't divide by n! if 2=0, eg
hrm. i guess i'd only thought about $A^k$ being in the field, not about $k!$.
$A^k$ is fine, yeah
yeah.
but there's no reason to assume that real coefficients make sense.
so as long as you're of characteristic zero (so that n is never zero for an integer n), you're fine for then in particular k! is invertible
06:15
right.
and obviously vice versa.
not going to pretend i have any idea whether characteristic zero is enough for $\det{e^A}=e^{\text{tr }A}$ to hold.
i think there's an even worse trouble: what is an infinite sum? you really need to restrict to R and C
well, in the finite field case, that issue is sort've shortcircuited by the other. not much point worrying in the infinite sum if you can't define more than the first $p$ terms.
06:42
Please tell me this is worth -8 downvotes
I believe that almost everyone is confused about what you were trying to ask/do here. Why do you think $0!\ne 1$? I can also claimed that $1+1=3$ if I write an erratic program for computing the sum of two numbers but that doesn't make the formula valid. You cannot draw general facts from an incomplete computer program. By the way, what's wrong with "e" so that you want to replace it with something else so much? — BigbearZzz 10 mins ago
oops
-8
Q: 0 * anything does not equal 1 (This is completely re-written several times for more and more downvotes)

tylerl-uxaiThis deserves a few million downvotes for all the edits I made to it. Right now it's -6. Let's see how many more it gets. Second edit: I guess re-writing math was arrogant of me (read @fleablood's comment). Thanks for looking at this as an attempt to be arrogant rather than seek help with someth...

I had the same question in the middle of class, I went out of my way to write code for it to prove that I was right... I proved I was right (sorry for sounding arrogant)
And people just keep hitting minus on the question since it started with -2 or -3
I thought if you edit your questions, people would respond by not banning you
Sorry, but I hope you know that my account is locked from stack exchange for editing my question to improve the quality
It just deleted the link I sent
So I won't be able to re-do this since my name is my brand
 
2 hours later…
08:55
So does this happen to be an open problem?
4
Q: Approximate spectral decomposition

Valery SaharovSee attempt below I am interested in effective computations in finding approximate spectral decompositions in some suitable format. Let $A: H \rightarrow H$ be a Hermitian operator on an $n-$dimensional Hilbert space $H$ with the spectrum $\{\lambda_1, ... \lambda_m\}, m \leq n$. Then, $A$ can ...

I start thinking of a publication if even SE can't say anything on this matter
ADG
ADG
09:30
$$\large\sum_{\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^mr_i=n}\binom{2n}{r_1,r_2,\ldots,r_m,r_1,r‌​_2,\ldots,r_m}=??$$
10:11
My son counts "...13, 14, 15, 0". Does this mean he only has 4 bits memory, and if so how can I upgrade him? :)
10:31
Highly appreciated :)
10:59
What is faster to write down a math expression, a computer SW or pencil and paper?
what does SW mean?
Anyone knows how to find a minimum of function using linear algebra? math.stackexchange.com/questions/1755292/…
11:40
Hey.
Why does using Wolfram's QR decomposition function just give me back my input?
I asked it to evaluate: QR decomposition {{0, 0, 6}, {1, 0, 7}, {0, 1, 0}}
This is correct I guess, since I did it by hand..
But shouldn't the QR factorization of a matrix yield it's eigenvalues along the diagonal?
$x^{3} + 0 \cdot x^{2} - 7 \cdot x - 6 = 0$ has companion matrix:
[ 0 0 6 ]
[ 1 0 7 ]
[ 0 1 0 ]
12:05
I guess dot product isn't commutative after all...
12:17
Is there computer software that allows you to jot down formulas faster than you do it with pencil and paper?
mathematica
@ValerySaharov depends on how many long complicated shorthands you use
Do you mean that long complicated shorthands is the key? How come long typing comes out faster?
It seems it depends how you write in the companion matrix too.
There's a form with the coefficients on row 1, and another with them along the last column
@ValentinTihomirov Because you can make short commands in LaTeX for long complicated things
user147690
12:27
It is still running btw @TobiasKildetoft
@robjohn @TedShifrin mind taking a look? math.stackexchange.com/questions/1755292/…
13:19
@robjohn Do you have any idea why $A^TAx = A^Tb$ won't yield the same solution $x_1 = 2, x_2 = -5$?
@IlanAizelmanWS why should $Ax=b$?
@robjohn $Ax=b$ won't have a solution
because: $||Ax-b||^2$ is minimal if it equals to zero?
@robjohn quote: Taking for granted that the minimum value of $f$ is zero, then writing $f$ in the suggested form implies that $ \|Ax-b\|^2 = 0\iff Ax - b = 0 \iff Ax = b$. So, it sufficient to solve the system $Ax = b$.
@robjohn yup, it works
@robjohn If $P$ is the orthogonal matrix of vector $x \in R^N$ on subspace $U$, and $Q$ is the otho. matrix of the same vector on $U^{\bot}$, can I say, without proving that $Ix = Px + Qx$ , thus $I = P + Q$?
@IlanAizelmanWS so you just had the wrong vector in the question.
@robjohn Yup.
@robjohn any ideas about the second question?
13:47
@IlanAizelmanWS Do you mean that $P$ and $Q$ are orthogonal projections onto $U$ and $U^\perp$?
@robjohn yup
For any $x$, you can obviously write $x=x_1+x_2$ where $x_1\in U$ and $x_2\in U^\perp$.
What's the simplest example of a non-locally symmetric pseudo riemanian manifold?
Then note that $(P+Q)x =(P+Q)(x_1+x_2) =Px_1+Qx_1+Px_2+Qx_2 =x_1+0+0+x_2 =x$
I'm having a hard time imagining a geodesic symmetry which isn't an affine transformation.
13:59
@robjohn I see. thank you!
14:31
@SaalHardali I guess you want the metric to be indefinite?
@robjohn Rob, another theoretical question, if $R$ is the reflection matrix on subspace $U$ and $S$ is the reflection matrix on subspace $U^\perp$, then $R+S = 0$ right? and RS = SR = -I right? (RS = SR = -I is kinda trivial because its eigenvectors are 1,-1, but I proved it with $P_u + P_u^\prep$ = I and $P_u * P_u^\prep = 0$, and used $R = 2P_u - I$ and same for $S$..
By saying reflection matrix, I mean $R^2 = I, R^T = R$.
@MikeMiller I just posted a question about this: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1755463/affine-manifolds-which-are-not-locally-symmetric

What if I want the metric to be definite and not locally symmetric? Are example of this kind so hideuos that my difficulty of finding them in the literature is for my own sake?
@SaalHardali No, I asked because I don't have a good mental picture of indefinite metrics, so would not be able to help you. In the definite case the vast majority of metrics are not locally symmetric. Let's work with simply connected and complete things. Then (thm) locally symmetric spaces are globally symmetric. So the isometry group of your Riemannian manifold must be quite big, indeed it must act transitively on your manifold.
So just pick a complete, simply connected manifold it cannot act transitively on. I would probably do this by picking some metric on the plane that has positive curvature somewhere and negative curvature somwhere else.
To see why it shouldn't be locally symmetric more visually, there will be some point that has zero curvature, but that some geodesic through this point, on its "left side" will go through points of positive curvature, and on its "right" will go through points of negative curvature.
And clearly there's no way to have an isometry swap these sides.
It's probably also true in the indefinite case that most manifolds are not locally symmetric, but I have spent more or less no time ever thinking about it :)
14:48
OK, I am back home and I should start on reading forms.
That's true.
@iwriteonbananas Hi.
hey @MikeMiller
how goes it?
and hey @BalarkaSen. where have you been?
it's ok, need to start working soon today
last day until Tues I have time to get any work done
I am a bit confused about whether I should send the solutions of the exercises from the previous chapters I have done to Ted before starting on forms. Maybe I should start write the solutions in my free time and start on forms before because I have been delaying it for too long.
I mean, it's fine, @BalarkaSen, I'll just be dead before you finish calculus.
14:51
what happens after tuesday, @MikeMiller?
@iwriteonbananas To a university.
@iwriteonbananas no, I just mean I'm busy with other stuff tomorrow and monday
so it would be a shame if i got nothing done today too
right
it's a beautiful day here to get work done. nasty, shitty weather and no construction site noises because it's saturday.
@MikeMiller Ah! So basically all I need to find is a metric on the plane which has both negative and positive curvature regions?
@BalarkaSen oh, cool. what did you do there? attend some lectures?
14:53
@SaalHardali Yeah, that should do the trick for you.
Should I write this as an answer to your question, or would you prefer someone who was willing to write something down with more explicit details?
@MikeMiller Is there an example of a manifold which somehow intrinsically has this property? That is both negative and positive curvature regions?
@iwriteonbananas studied. attended seminars. studied some more.
I'm still thinking about how to find something which isn't pathological since my original motivation for this is why should one care for non-symmetric spaces.
All the ones I'm familiar have a canonical locally symmetric structure
@BalarkaSen sweet
@SaalHardali I would just cook one up by bashing the standard metric on $\Bbb R^2$ with some scalar function so that what you say is true. For convenience, it's nice to work with scalar curvature, where the change-of-curvature formula is $S(e^{2u}g) = e^{-2u}(S(g)+\nabla u)$, or something like this. I always get these sorts of formulas wrong.
So you could more or less just start with the flat metric and pick a function $u$ with interesting $\nabla u$ whose asymptotics are good enough that you don't make the manifold non-complete. This is not so hard.
@SaalHardali No offense, but that's a crazy question to me! There are so few spaces that actually are locally symmetric. Even in the context of, say, 3-manifolds, we have this wonderful geometrization theorem which says that every manifold can be cut into pieces with very nice geometries. But the 3-manifold itself, before cutting, is probably not going to support a very nice geometry!
Someone could surely hand you an example of a smooth manifold that is never locally symmetric.
14:58
Yeah that's what I really need.
To be satisfied.
Building patholiogies in the plane is fine but it's not really satisfying :(
These aren't pathologies. These are most manifolds.
I understand why it's not satisfying, but, like, write down your favorite surface in 3-space. Is that not supposed to count as a perfectly good manifold you care about?
The standard torus in 3-space isn't locally symmetric. (The above argument works to see why.)
Yeah I get your point. Thing is I'm interested in whether this locally symmetric property is something topological.
OK. I mean, they're completely classified up to isometry, so you could certainly "simplify" the classification to just listing off the smooth manifolds that support a locally symmetric structure.
But let me think if I can cook up an explicit counterexample easily. I'll probably give up if I can't in the next five minutes or something.
In essense what will really shut me up is a smooth manifold which has no compatible locally symmetric structure
Even just an affine connection with no torsion will be enough.
Sorry last sentence was'nt clear.
just ignore it.
Sure.
@Saal: OK, from looking at the classification, I see that every simply connected symmetric space is either Euclidean space, has nonnegative sectional curvature, or nonpositive sectional curvature. So if I can hand you a closed manifold such that no metric has one of those properties, it cannot be locally symmetric, since its universal cover would be symmetric.
Now a space with nonpositive sectional curvature is aspherical. So let's restrict to manifolds with interesting higher homotopy groups.
15:08
@MikeMiller Sounds like this might get nasty.
OK, so here's a way to finish this off. A manifold with nonnegative sectional curvature has nonnegative Ricci curvature, and the Bochner trick proves that it thus has $b_1(M) \leq n$, $n$ the dimension.
So let's take, like, the connected sum of a bunch of copies of $S^2 \times S^1$.
This has neither aspherical universal cover nor $b_1(M) \leq 3$.
So it cannot support any metric whose sectional curvature is either nonnegative or nonpositive.
And hence cannot possibly be locally symmetric.
This isn't a very nasty manifold IMO.
I'l have to think about this.
not so fluent in riemanian geometry.
Do you want me to write this and details/references as an answer?
thanks it looks gof!
I dunno what gof means
15:10
Yeah that would be great!
Thanks
gof = good
it means g composition f
user147690
@SaalHardali Is this from another language, or acronym or just slang?
user147690
Seems unlikely, but possible sure
15:22
hi chat
user147690
Hello
hi @Semiclassical
sup, semi
it's a party in here
@AlexClark Was a typo. Moreover it seems pretty likely looking at my keyboard
user147690
15:32
@SaalHardali Fair enough, I thought the dropping of an o, and moving to an f seemed peculiar
@MikeMiller I've asked this on the MO chat with no reply. Do you know if there's some charaterization of groups for which $BG$ is a finite CW complex?
I only know one: $Z$.
Are they really rare like they seem?
If K(G, 1) has dimension n, H_{n+1} must vanish.
That's a nice condition, in my opinion.
@SaalHardali To start with, $G$ must be torsion free. But I disagree, you know many more examples. Every surface but $S^2$ and $\Bbb{RP}^2$ is a $K(G,1)$.
Every hyperbolic manifold is a $K(G,1)$.
BG isn't the same as K(G,1) though for topological groups
Ah right.
It is for discrete groups, and you said you only knew one example. :)
15:34
Every closed surface
Every knot complement is a K(G, 1) too IIRC but I don't know a proof of that.
That's also true. You can take the complement of a small tubular neighborhood of a knot so that it's a compact manifold (with boundary) and hence a finite CW complex.
Correct. I know thousnds but non for compact connected groups.
hmmm
that's sounds good
Hm, good point on that, let me think if I know a single example of a connected group.
Actually I should finish writing your answer first.
:)
Every Hyperbolic manifold is a K(G,1) for its fundamental group I assume right?
Ah sure. I'm tired.
Ignore last comment
15:41
OK, I wrote the answer.
I also expanded on the torus comment a little bit, because even though that's not really what you were looking for, I think "Every child's third or fourth manifold isn't locally symmetric" is a good reason to care about things that aren't locally symmetric :)
@MikeMiller Best. Answer. Ever.
thanks.
Sure, glad to. I really like a lot of the questions you post.
Thanks.
That's too flattering
@SaalHardali If $X$ is a simply connected, finite dimensional CW complex that's not contractible, the loop space $\Omega X$ is never finite-dimensional. This follows from a spectral sequence calculation on the pathspace fibration $\Omega X \to \mathcal PX \to X$ - if $H^*(\Omega X)$ was zero after some point, then some element of the second page ($H^p(X;H^q(\Omega X))$ for the highest $p$ and $q$ for which this is nonzero) would survive the spectral sequence after it stabilizes
Because we chose $p$ and $q$ as large as possible, no differentials go to that, and no differentials go from it
That would give us a nonzero element of $H^*(\mathcal PX)$ which is nonsense.
Now apply this to $X = BG$, where $G$ is a connected compact nontrivial Lie group. Because $G$ is connected, $BG$ is simply connected. If $BG$ was finite-dimensional, then $\Omega BG = G$ would fail to be, by the above.
It's so darn hot in here.
15:55
@BalarkaSen Move to California, then.
Cruel world. Now that I am back home I can't do math peacefully without turning on the air conditioner.
@MikeMiller How's the weather there?
It's around 70. It's a beautiful day outside.
I envy you.
@MikeMiller Wonderful!
Thank you.
Sure thing. Also a fun problem.
15:57
it's about twice the temperature here then.
Great problem. Seems pretty important for representation theory of compact groups to know that all of them must have infinite classifying spaces.
@SaalHardali Lie group didn't matter above, since the only time I used that was to have the formula $\Omega BG = G$. Probably you can get away with something like "finite-dim H-space" or "grouplike monoid"
Yeah figured that,
only compact matters here.
I don't think even that matters, just non-contractible & finite-dim'l
It's just that for Lie groups everything deformation retracts onto a compact subgroup, so we may as well just work with those :)
Ah right compact is stronger then finite.
That's really good to know. I feel relieved.
16:01
I think it's mostly important that $H^*(BG)$ is a nice, big ring to get characteristic classes from.
Here's a question, though. In every example I know it's finitely generated.
Is it finitely generated for all Lie groups $G$?
Need to think about that.
That's lie algebra cohomology problem
I don't know the answer, but my money is that it's true...
Which I don't know
How do we relate it to Lie algebra cohomology? I know the relation for $H^*(G)$ but I've long forgotten any relationship to $H^*(BG)$.
I'll need to think about this to make this precise
anyway I need to run.
16:03
have a good day!
@BalarkaSen AC on or off, just get to work. ;)
Working right now.
StackExchange: asking the important questions
29
Q: Why does the terminator have genitalia?

ChrisAt the start of The Terminator we see him fully naked and fully equipped. He doesn't need them, so why does he have them?

i have seen it on the hot questions list. not gonna click on it.
16:20
that's almost impressive in its awfulness
Hi @Ted. Saal asked some interesting questions in here earlier you might like.
Can someone check my solution please?
Good night, @MikeM. You feeling better?
4
Q: Approximate spectral decomposition

Valery SaharovSee attempt below I am interested in effective computations in finding approximate spectral decompositions in some suitable format. Let $A: H \rightarrow H$ be a Hermitian operator on an $n-$dimensional Hilbert space $H$ with the spectrum $\{\lambda_1, ... \lambda_m\}, m \leq n$. Then, $A$ can ...

16:22
if you know linear algebra and complex analysis of course
There has been lots of interesting activity on MSE lately...
depends on what you find interesting
Oh, btw, Mike, Alex M. responded to my comment.
Morning, @Semiclassic.
morning @ted
@TedShifrin Yesterday there was a question about why we don't use the $\partial$-cohomology groups instead of the $\bar \partial$ ones. There's the obvious answer (holomorphic things are more interesting than antioholomorphic things, and the groups are isomorphic anyway), but Andrew Hwang pointed out that there's no such thing as an antioholomorphic bundle, and holomorphic bundles only have $\partial \bar$ cohomology groups
Which was pretty interesting... I hadn't caught that before.
16:25
Andy's a sharp guy. I told you I've known him since 1990.
You could put an antiholomorphic bundle on an antiholomorphic manifold, I suppose. Ugh.
But it's not totally true that we don't consider $\partial$ cohomology. It definitely shows up.
I guess... but his point was that antiholomorphic automorphisms aren't a pseudogroup
Hmm, maybe I take back my last statement.
Hi @Ted. Back in home. Studying calc.
that reminds me of a physics thing (albeit a very mathematical point) and i wonder if it's related. might have to do some digging
Welcome home, @Balarka. Are you asking for a gold star already?
16:29
What's the gold star for? :)
Balarka: You should take a day break from math and just go do nothing.
I'll do it after I get calculus done. Been postponing that for way too long.
He's just tired of me picking on him.
bleh, my brain isn't working right now
@Ted: I am getting some revision done from chapter 7 done. So, in that exercise, we prove that there are no C^1 space filling curves [0, 1] --> [0, 1]^2 (let U be some open set containing [0, 1], cover [0, 1] by small intervals contained in U by Lebesgue no lemma or by hand, use that C^1 maps are locally lipschitz to get a bound on the diameter of the images of those intervals and bound up the volume of the image to show it's always volume 0). Is it also true if I replace C^1 by just diffable?
16:33
hi @TedShifrin @MikeMiller @BalarkaSen
finally this week is my last week of school undergrad
Congratulations, Karim.
thank you @TedShifrin
I actually don't know the answer to that, @Balarka. If you have a differentiable function, it cannot be nowhere $C^1$ (i.e., the derivative must be continuous on a set of ? category), but it may well still be space-filling.
but the linkage i had in mind was with coherent states in quantum mechanics
@Adeek Have you accepted the offer at Alberta ?
16:37
yeah
Congrats Karim
@Adeek Congrats.
thanks @MikeMiller @BalarkaSen
congo @Adeek
@TedShifrin I think I'm out of questions to think about so have to work now ...
16:37
and @Mambo
@MikeM: Can there be differentiable space-filling curves?
"When I think I'm out, they pull me back in..."
@TedShifrin Hmm, should I know this, or is it not so easy to see a diff function cannot be nowhere C^1?
haha
@Balarka: It's a beautiful application of Baire Category.
@TedShifrin Aren't differentiable maps Lipschitz?
16:39
Ah, something I don't use very often.
Not without continuity of the derivative, @Mike. So far as I know.
@MikeMiller locally? need not be. C^1 maps are locally lipschitz by mean value theorem.
Clearly not. Good point.
@MikeM: I'd never thought about the composition of antiholomorphic before. The chain rule doesn't cooperate. Interesting.
OK, I'm not going to think more about this.
16:41
@Balarka: It's closely related to the question I asked you years ago about the pointwise limit of a sequence of continuous functions.
Your question is answered here on MO.
Quitter @MikeM.
Oh, cool. It's actually Balarka's question.
@Ted You know I don't functions without some regularity.
@MikeMiller nice, thanks.
Me neither :P
Oh, an extremely recent MO post, I see.
16:44
Mark McClure's answer is interesting
Lipschitz, Holder, continuous... these are all fine, but it's unhealthy to think too hard about differentiable functions
I can believe a space filling curve can be chosen to be smooth outside a cantor set.
But it is worth understanding that a differentiable function must be $C^1$ at plenty of points.
@BalarkaSen That's not exciting at all, yeah
@TedShifrin I'll note that down and try to prove it later on.
Thanks, by the way, interesting fact.
@Balarka: Start here.
16:47
eh...
Hmm, I don't remember the question. Let me have a look at my bookmarks.
@Ted: Did you see the locally symmetric question I liked?
Very simple. Prove that the limit function must be continuous on a set of ??? category.
No, @MikeM.
2
Q: Affine manifolds which are *not* locally symmetric

Saal HardaliLet $M$ be a manifold equipped with an affine connection $\nabla$. By standard theorems of differential geometry we have convex normal coordinate balls around every point in which geodesics are axis. For every normal ball $N_p \subset M$ We have an obvious involution given by the reflection $s_p:...

Someone clever can probably extend what I say to any affine connection
Saal seems to be mis-using the term "affine manifold."
That's different from a manifold with an affine connection on its tangent bundle.
16:49
@TedShifrin Ah, so I need to figure out, given a sequence $f_n$ of $C^0$ functions on $[0, 1]$, how much $C^0$ the limit is?
Right, @Balarka.
*pointwise limit
OK, I'll do that.
(Assuming that the sequence does converge pointwise, of course.)
Interesting question
Yep, sorry about that.
@Ted: Yes, but it was clear what was meant, so eh
16:51
@TedShifrin Hello
Well, still that should be clarified. Bill Goldman spent a lot of his career on affine structures on manifolds.
hi @Mambo
Sounds like you're the man for the job :)
I'll see if I can find something to link it to, @MikeM.
I have a question related to Lie Algebra $M_n(\Bbb{R})$
So, I need to find a very discontinuous function which is a ptwise limit of C^0 functions on [0, 1].
16:53
meh
Let's start with something. Say, the popcorn function.
@IlanAizelmanWS Since $R^2=S^2=I$ and $RS=-I$, we have $(R+S)^2=R^2+S^2+2RS=I+I-2I$. So it appears that at least its square is $0$.
@TedShifrin In $M_n(\Bbb{R})$, the Lie Bracket is given by $ [X,Y] = XY - YX $.
Hi @robjohn.
Eh, maybe something simpler. $1$ if rational, $0$ if irrational. Just because popcorn is too hard for me
16:55
@TedShifrin Hey there.... it's a beautiful day in LA
I'll come back when you're doing real things with real functions.
@MikeM, I added a comment.
@robjohn: Here too. I'm trying to decide whether to walk to the park or drive to the ocean and walk a bit.
@BalarkaSen The kernels bother me.
I think Mike is frustrated by such horrible functions.
@TedShifrin But $M_n(\Bbb{R})$ can be thought as set of all left invariant vector fields of $GL_n(\Bbb{R}) also, right?
16:56
@TedShifrin I drove by the ocean on the way home yesterday. Today we are going to an art fair.
Sounds lovely, @robjohn.
Sure, @Mambo. Just use matrix exponential.
@TedShifrin Tomorrow is the Renaissance Faire.
Sure, that seems doable.

« first day (2089 days earlier)      last day (3231 days later) »