specifically, I proved the following result any map $f : S^n \rightarrow S^n$ which is an odd map must have odd degree.
The way you prove it is you consider the two-sheeted covering space $p : S^n \rightarrow RP^n$ and just construct a short exact sequence in intelligent way. Then you get long exact sequence on the homology, then use f to get a induced map $g : P^n \rightarrow P^n$.
Then you will get a morphism between short exact sequence and itself.
So, by naturality you will get a long exact sequence and itself and you can use that to prove that $f$ must have odd degree
i'm sort've confused by the objection in the comments of this question. Is there really a field $\mathbb{K}$ containing $A$ such that the definition $e^A=\sum_{k=0}^\infty A^k/k!$ doesn't make sense? (Not sure that's enough to prove the relevant theorem, but that's a different matter).
well, in the finite field case, that issue is sort've shortcircuited by the other. not much point worrying in the infinite sum if you can't define more than the first $p$ terms.
I believe that almost everyone is confused about what you were trying to ask/do here. Why do you think $0!\ne 1$? I can also claimed that $1+1=3$ if I write an erratic program for computing the sum of two numbers but that doesn't make the formula valid. You cannot draw general facts from an incomplete computer program. By the way, what's wrong with "e" so that you want to replace it with something else so much? — BigbearZzz10 mins ago
This deserves a few million downvotes for all the edits I made to it. Right now it's -6. Let's see how many more it gets.
Second edit: I guess re-writing math was arrogant of me (read @fleablood's comment). Thanks for looking at this as an attempt to be arrogant rather than seek help with someth...
I had the same question in the middle of class, I went out of my way to write code for it to prove that I was right... I proved I was right (sorry for sounding arrogant)
And people just keep hitting minus on the question since it started with -2 or -3
I thought if you edit your questions, people would respond by not banning you
Sorry, but I hope you know that my account is locked from stack exchange for editing my question to improve the quality
It just deleted the link I sent
So I won't be able to re-do this since my name is my brand
See attempt below
I am interested in effective computations in finding approximate spectral decompositions in some suitable format.
Let $A: H \rightarrow H$ be a Hermitian operator on an $n-$dimensional Hilbert space $H$ with the spectrum $\{\lambda_1, ... \lambda_m\}, m \leq n$. Then, $A$ can ...
because: $||Ax-b||^2$ is minimal if it equals to zero?
@robjohn quote: Taking for granted that the minimum value of $f$ is zero, then writing $f$ in the suggested form implies that $ \|Ax-b\|^2 = 0\iff Ax - b = 0 \iff Ax = b$. So, it sufficient to solve the system $Ax = b$.
@robjohn yup, it works
@robjohn If $P$ is the orthogonal matrix of vector $x \in R^N$ on subspace $U$, and $Q$ is the otho. matrix of the same vector on $U^{\bot}$, can I say, without proving that $Ix = Px + Qx$ , thus $I = P + Q$?
@robjohn Rob, another theoretical question, if $R$ is the reflection matrix on subspace $U$ and $S$ is the reflection matrix on subspace $U^\perp$, then $R+S = 0$ right? and RS = SR = -I right? (RS = SR = -I is kinda trivial because its eigenvectors are 1,-1, but I proved it with $P_u + P_u^\prep$ = I and $P_u * P_u^\prep = 0$, and used $R = 2P_u - I$ and same for $S$..
By saying reflection matrix, I mean $R^2 = I, R^T = R$.
@MikeMiller I just posted a question about this: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1755463/affine-manifolds-which-are-not-locally-symmetric
What if I want the metric to be definite and not locally symmetric? Are example of this kind so hideuos that my difficulty of finding them in the literature is for my own sake?
@SaalHardali No, I asked because I don't have a good mental picture of indefinite metrics, so would not be able to help you. In the definite case the vast majority of metrics are not locally symmetric. Let's work with simply connected and complete things. Then (thm) locally symmetric spaces are globally symmetric. So the isometry group of your Riemannian manifold must be quite big, indeed it must act transitively on your manifold.
So just pick a complete, simply connected manifold it cannot act transitively on. I would probably do this by picking some metric on the plane that has positive curvature somewhere and negative curvature somwhere else.
To see why it shouldn't be locally symmetric more visually, there will be some point that has zero curvature, but that some geodesic through this point, on its "left side" will go through points of positive curvature, and on its "right" will go through points of negative curvature.
And clearly there's no way to have an isometry swap these sides.
It's probably also true in the indefinite case that most manifolds are not locally symmetric, but I have spent more or less no time ever thinking about it :)
I am a bit confused about whether I should send the solutions of the exercises from the previous chapters I have done to Ted before starting on forms. Maybe I should start write the solutions in my free time and start on forms before because I have been delaying it for too long.
I'm still thinking about how to find something which isn't pathological since my original motivation for this is why should one care for non-symmetric spaces.
All the ones I'm familiar have a canonical locally symmetric structure
@SaalHardali I would just cook one up by bashing the standard metric on $\Bbb R^2$ with some scalar function so that what you say is true. For convenience, it's nice to work with scalar curvature, where the change-of-curvature formula is $S(e^{2u}g) = e^{-2u}(S(g)+\nabla u)$, or something like this. I always get these sorts of formulas wrong.
So you could more or less just start with the flat metric and pick a function $u$ with interesting $\nabla u$ whose asymptotics are good enough that you don't make the manifold non-complete. This is not so hard.
@SaalHardali No offense, but that's a crazy question to me! There are so few spaces that actually are locally symmetric. Even in the context of, say, 3-manifolds, we have this wonderful geometrization theorem which says that every manifold can be cut into pieces with very nice geometries. But the 3-manifold itself, before cutting, is probably not going to support a very nice geometry!
Someone could surely hand you an example of a smooth manifold that is never locally symmetric.
These aren't pathologies. These are most manifolds.
I understand why it's not satisfying, but, like, write down your favorite surface in 3-space. Is that not supposed to count as a perfectly good manifold you care about?
The standard torus in 3-space isn't locally symmetric. (The above argument works to see why.)
OK. I mean, they're completely classified up to isometry, so you could certainly "simplify" the classification to just listing off the smooth manifolds that support a locally symmetric structure.
But let me think if I can cook up an explicit counterexample easily. I'll probably give up if I can't in the next five minutes or something.
@Saal: OK, from looking at the classification, I see that every simply connected symmetric space is either Euclidean space, has nonnegative sectional curvature, or nonpositive sectional curvature. So if I can hand you a closed manifold such that no metric has one of those properties, it cannot be locally symmetric, since its universal cover would be symmetric.
Now a space with nonpositive sectional curvature is aspherical. So let's restrict to manifolds with interesting higher homotopy groups.
OK, so here's a way to finish this off. A manifold with nonnegative sectional curvature has nonnegative Ricci curvature, and the Bochner trick proves that it thus has $b_1(M) \leq n$, $n$ the dimension.
So let's take, like, the connected sum of a bunch of copies of $S^2 \times S^1$.
This has neither aspherical universal cover nor $b_1(M) \leq 3$.
So it cannot support any metric whose sectional curvature is either nonnegative or nonpositive.
@SaalHardali To start with, $G$ must be torsion free. But I disagree, you know many more examples. Every surface but $S^2$ and $\Bbb{RP}^2$ is a $K(G,1)$.
That's also true. You can take the complement of a small tubular neighborhood of a knot so that it's a compact manifold (with boundary) and hence a finite CW complex.
I also expanded on the torus comment a little bit, because even though that's not really what you were looking for, I think "Every child's third or fourth manifold isn't locally symmetric" is a good reason to care about things that aren't locally symmetric :)
@SaalHardali If $X$ is a simply connected, finite dimensional CW complex that's not contractible, the loop space $\Omega X$ is never finite-dimensional. This follows from a spectral sequence calculation on the pathspace fibration $\Omega X \to \mathcal PX \to X$ - if $H^*(\Omega X)$ was zero after some point, then some element of the second page ($H^p(X;H^q(\Omega X))$ for the highest $p$ and $q$ for which this is nonzero) would survive the spectral sequence after it stabilizes
Because we chose $p$ and $q$ as large as possible, no differentials go to that, and no differentials go from it
That would give us a nonzero element of $H^*(\mathcal PX)$ which is nonsense.
Now apply this to $X = BG$, where $G$ is a connected compact nontrivial Lie group. Because $G$ is connected, $BG$ is simply connected. If $BG$ was finite-dimensional, then $\Omega BG = G$ would fail to be, by the above.
@SaalHardali Lie group didn't matter above, since the only time I used that was to have the formula $\Omega BG = G$. Probably you can get away with something like "finite-dim H-space" or "grouplike monoid"
See attempt below
I am interested in effective computations in finding approximate spectral decompositions in some suitable format.
Let $A: H \rightarrow H$ be a Hermitian operator on an $n-$dimensional Hilbert space $H$ with the spectrum $\{\lambda_1, ... \lambda_m\}, m \leq n$. Then, $A$ can ...
@TedShifrin Yesterday there was a question about why we don't use the $\partial$-cohomology groups instead of the $\bar \partial$ ones. There's the obvious answer (holomorphic things are more interesting than antioholomorphic things, and the groups are isomorphic anyway), but Andrew Hwang pointed out that there's no such thing as an antioholomorphic bundle, and holomorphic bundles only have $\partial \bar$ cohomology groups
Which was pretty interesting... I hadn't caught that before.
@Ted: I am getting some revision done from chapter 7 done. So, in that exercise, we prove that there are no C^1 space filling curves [0, 1] --> [0, 1]^2 (let U be some open set containing [0, 1], cover [0, 1] by small intervals contained in U by Lebesgue no lemma or by hand, use that C^1 maps are locally lipschitz to get a bound on the diameter of the images of those intervals and bound up the volume of the image to show it's always volume 0). Is it also true if I replace C^1 by just diffable?
I actually don't know the answer to that, @Balarka. If you have a differentiable function, it cannot be nowhere $C^1$ (i.e., the derivative must be continuous on a set of ? category), but it may well still be space-filling.
Let $M$ be a manifold equipped with an affine connection $\nabla$. By standard theorems of differential geometry we have convex normal coordinate balls around every point in which geodesics are axis. For every normal ball $N_p \subset M$ We have an obvious involution given by the reflection $s_p:...