Prove that there is a differentiable function $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ satisfying $$[f(x)]^5+f(x)+x = 0$$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$. Find $f'(x)$.
Seeing how this is a functional equation, I think we might be able to use induction or some other technique to determine information abou...
The Number Devil: A Mathematical Adventure by Hans Enzensberger is a fun survey of elementary number theory. It's structured similarly to the series of children's books 'Diary of a Wimpy Kid.'
If I remember correctly, the storylines from each of its chapters are pretty close to independent.
But I can't tell why it's wrong. He doesn't actually prove the torus he constructs is exact, and references elsewhere. I imagine it isn't. There's also slightly weird definitions (more in their English than their mathematical content) for things like Lagrangian isotopic.
As you can see below, $\psi$ pops out of nowhere due to RAA(reductio ad absurdum). This is probably wrong. Is there really a proper natural deduction proof for $\vdash(\neg(\phi\to\psi)\to\phi)$?
So the point is that when you (holomorphically) change coordinates you're looking at functions that transform by $(dz/dw)^2$ instead of by $dz/dw$. But I guess you knew that.
Ordinarily, these things show up in terms of giving infinitesimal changes of complex structure on your Riemann surface. How are they arising in your set-up?
suppose my QD is $f(z)(dz)^2$. then i can convert this to $(dw)^2$ by choosing a coordinate $w(z)=\int_{z_0}^z \sqrt{f(z')}\,dz'$ for some basepoint $z_0$
and the reason i care about that is that, in classical mechanics, one talks about the classical action $\int_{x_0}^x p(x')\,dx'$ where the momentum $p$ is determined from $p^2+V(x)=E$
OK, and we had discussed earlier that momentum should be a $1$-form (section of the cotangent bundle), so here you have $p^2$, hence a quadratic differential form. Got it.
So you're talking about a vector field on the cotangent bundle with some property?
Yes, that looks right. The easiest way to remember this is $z=x+iy \implies dz = dx+i\,dy$ and $d\bar z = dx - i\,dy$, and $\partial/\partial z, \partial/\partial\bar z$ is the dual basis.
in what sense should i understand $i\partial_z$ as being vertical? i can kind've see it: If $\partial_z$ points in the real direction at all points, then $i$ rotates that vector field locally by 90 degrees
is that basically all in this context? (i.e. $S=\mathbb{C}$)
They're using $\partial/\partial z$ to trivialize the bundle and just thinking about the coefficients. So you're looking at $1$ versus $i$ in $\Bbb C$, I guess. Horizontal <--> real, and vertical <--> imaginary. ?
That one bothers me because of the zero at the origin. And if we pull out the origin, we're not simply connected. I.e., you do not have a global branch of $\sqrt z$ on $\Bbb C$.
Yeah, but I'm worried about ill-definedness when we have non-simple connectivity and square roots. Basically, you want $g(z) = 1/\sqrt z$, and that's a no-good.
In the picture below, I derived $\psi$ by RAA(Reductio Ad Absurdum) without $\neg\psi$ above it. Did I use RAA correctly in this natural deduction proof?
I was looking around Wikipedia and came across this for representable functors: From another point of view, representable functors for a category $\mathcal{C}$ are the functors given with \mathcal{C}. Their theory is a vast generalisation of upper sets in posets. I don't get the generalization.
...
I have line given by $\phi$ (angle) and a point represented by a vector $r_i$. How can I find the perpendicular distance of it from a another point $r_j$.
In this article, in vector formulation section what does $n$ represent?
It mentions n is a 1×2 unit vector in the direction of the line
Hey @DanielFischer. Could you help shed some light on the answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/51788/… The spectrum of a self-adjoint compact operator consists of a sequence $(\lambda_n)\in c_0$, right? What do we know about the spectrum of multiplication operators on $L^2$?
@iwriteonbananas Well, the spectrum of a compact operator may be finite. But it's countable, and has no accumulation point except possibly $0$. So it's the underlying set of a sequence in $c_0$. Note however that it's quite misleading to say the spectrum is a sequence in $c_0$, since a sequence has more structure (in particular an ordering induced by the indices). If the compact operator lives on a Hilbert space and is self-adjoint, we have the further information that the spectrum is real.
But self-adjointness is really really unimportant there. Now the question of the spectrum of a multiplication operator $M \colon f \mapsto m\cdot f$. It's probably easier to look at the regular values of $M$. So, for what $\lambda$ does $t \mapsto \frac{1}{\lambda - m(t)}\cdot f(t)$ belong to $L^2$ for all $f\in L^2$?
Suppose you look at just 2 punctures, $p$ and $p'$. Join these by two arcs $\gamma$ and $\gamma'$ in $S^2$. Take arcs with same endpt transverse to these respectively. These cannot be isotoped, since they cannot even be homotoped.
So those essentiallity and properness conditions might be strong conditions.
Does Bezout hold in higher dimensions? Namely, if $X$ and $Y$ are degree $p$ and $q$ varieties of dual dimensions in $\Bbb P^n$, need it be true that number of intersections of $X$ and $Y$ upto multiplicity is $= pq$?
This is true for smooth varieties over $\Bbb C$ due to cohomological reasons of course.
hi everyone. I ask in chat as I do not think it would be a proper question for the site.
I am writing a paper (not for a mathematical journal) and while I am quite familiar with parametric curves and splines, my supervisor is not.
This means that he is not familiar with the various theorems, in particular he wants me to cite the original work about arc-length parametrization (where is defined what arc-length prametrization is) and the one that says that such parametrization is not possible with rational functions of the arc length unless the curve is a straight line.
@Federico arclength parametrization is one of fundamental notions of differential geometry of curves, so I guess if you want to find the original source it'd trace back to Gauss or maybe even before him. so I don't think that's a reasonable endeavor. But I am sure someone more knowledgeable on (the history of? :P) differential geometry can comment on this.
@MikeMiller Um, I know there's a thing called Lefschetz principle, but I never found a satisfactorily rigorous statement of it. But I can believe you. Thanks.
@BalarkaSen yeah, google scholar seems to suggest Newton. I am aware of the fact that it might not be reasonable, but I have to prove it to someone that has never heard of differential geometry (and assumes that everyone else in our field does not know as well)
This principle claims that every true statement about a variety over the complex number field $\mathbb{C}$ is true for a variety over any algebraic closed field of characteristic 0.
But what is it mean? Is there some "statement" not allowed in this principle?
Is there an analog in char p>0?
Is...
@MikeMiller Apparently there is a concrete theorem quoted in Martin Brandenburg's answer, but nobody seems to care much other than taking it as a cue that the analogous statement is true for fields other than $\Bbb C$ and thus worth trying to prove it - or that's the impression I get. Is this like a Godel or Freyd kind of thing, then?
@ramsay $(4 - x^2)/(4x - x^3) = 1/x$ only when both of the expressions are defined. You can't cancel when $x = 2$, e.g, because the left hand is $0/0$, not well-defined. You can't cancel when $x = 0$ similarly. $f(x) = (4 - x^2)/(4x - x^3)$ and $f(x) = 1/x$ are two different functions.
@ramsay you can't modify the given function when you are finding continuity, i mean $\frac{4-x^2}{4x-x^3}$ is equal to $\frac{1}{x}$ only when there domains are equal! and domains of these two functions are different!
@r9m Yes. But you had already left. I haven't thought about how much you exactly need to require, but at least for all analytic functions decaying sufficiently fast, it holds. Let me think for a moment whether $\lim_{\operatorname{Re} z \to +\infty} f(z) = 0$ already suffices.
BTW there was a suggestion on meta to create some *rules for chatrooms generally'. (There is a post on meta with rules for this chat room.)
But considering that the rules for this chatroom are ignored by most user, I am not sure whether working on general rules would be a useful way to spend time.
BTW isn't there some network-wide guidance how to use chat? And if it is, does it mention the problem which sparked that meta post?
Ping-pong is a trademarked name for the game of table tennis.
Ping-pong, Ping pong, or Pingpong may also refer to:
In film:
Ping Pong (1987 film), a British film
Ping Pong (2002 film), a 2002 Japanese manga-adaptation film
Ping Pong Playa, a 2007 film directed by Jessica Yu
Ping Pong (2012 film), a British documentary, directed by Hugh Hartford
In music:
Ping Pong (EP), a 1994 EP by the group Stereolab
"Ping-Pong", a song by X-Wife from Side Effects
PingPong (band) Israeli band who participated in Eurovision 2000
Ping Pong over the Abyss, a 1982 album by The 77s
"Do You Know? (The Ping Pong Song...
@DanielFischer I read a S&M manga (like a comic story) once .. and I came to the conclusion .. people can get really creative with those sort of things :P
@robjohn yes .. I got that too (considered a contour with vertices $r$, $r(1+\frac{\Im(\lambda)}{\Re(\lambda)})$, $R$ and $R(1+\frac{\Im(\lambda)}{\Re(\lambda)})$) and let $r \to 0^{+}$ and $R \to \infty +$ ..
split the integral as $\displaystyle \int_0^{\infty} \frac{f(x) - f(\lambda x)}{x}\,dx = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{f(x) - f(\Re(\lambda) x)}{x}\,dx + \int_0^{\infty} \frac{f(\Re(\lambda)x) - f(\lambda x)}{x}\,dx$ :)
the contour's for the second integral in the right ..
Hello @robjohn !! Could you take a look at the edit part of my question: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1723438/differential-equation-of-higher-order ?
@MaryStar I just noticed that the constant of integration $D$ was the same symbol as I was using for $D=\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}$, so I changed it to $F$.
I want to find for which intervals $(c,d)$ there are functions $y:(c,d) \to \mathbb{R}$ that are differentiable on $(c,d)$ and are solutions of the differential equation $y'(t)=1+(2 y(t) +t+3)^2$.
Could you give me a hint how we could find the desired intervals? Is there a theorem that we could...
@robjohn I came across the integral $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sinh(px)}{x}\left(\frac{1}{\cosh(px)+\cos(ax)}-\frac{1}{\cosh(px)+\cos(bx)}\right) \, dx=\frac{1}{2} \log\left(\frac{p^{2}+a^{2}}{p^{2}+b^{2}}\right) \, $$ where $p >0$. The integrand is the real part of $$\frac{\tanh\left(\frac{x}{2} (p+ia)\right)- \tanh\left(\frac{x}{2} (p+ib)\right)}{x}. $$
Since $\tanh(z)$ is analytic in the right half-plane, and $\tanh(z) \to 1$ as $\text{Re}(z) \to +\infty$, I concluded (with hesitation) that Frullani's formula would hold here.
@robjohn We know that the formula holds for $\lambda >0$, and the principal branch of the logarithm is analytic on the half-plane $\text{Re}(\lambda) >0$. So I guess we would need to show that the integral is analytic on the same half-plane.