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00:59
hi
01:33
anyone?:
http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1722139/noetherian-lemma-contridiction
@DemCodeLines You could ask that on the main site: Mathematics
Also, try typing "[main]" into the chat
@DemCodeLines dude wat
ted is dead
@MikeMiller This contradicts known results arxiv.org/pdf/1603.09437.pdf what the hell
#TIL: 141,421,356,237,307 is a prime number http://wolframalpha.com/input/?i=is+141421356237307+prime&x=0&y=0 (#TheNumberDevil page 61)
01:48
@MikeMiller arxiv.org/pdf/1602.08821v1.pdf arxiv.org/pdf/1603.09437.pdf Two papers claiming opposite results in a months time...
lol
well I guess they proved ZFC is inconsistent
finally
Wow. They even cover Goldbach's conjecture (and Goldbach's weak conjecture) in this book.
(The Number Devil pages 62-64.)
sum of two squares is prime
no
02:05
@PVAL Umm.....
@PVAL I'll try to read the short one tonight if I can
hi
3
Q: Prove that there is a differentiable function $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ satisfying $[f(x)]^5+f(x)+x = 0$

user19405892 Prove that there is a differentiable function $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ satisfying $$[f(x)]^5+f(x)+x = 0$$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$. Find $f'(x)$. Seeing how this is a functional equation, I think we might be able to use induction or some other technique to determine information abou...

can someone example in that answer how to actually find f?
anomaly says to use the chain rule but that isn't clear
18
A: Good math bed-time stories for children?

enthdegreeThe Number Devil: A Mathematical Adventure by Hans Enzensberger is a fun survey of elementary number theory. It's structured similarly to the series of children's books 'Diary of a Wimpy Kid.' If I remember correctly, the storylines from each of its chapters are pretty close to independent.

02:24
Do i really need to solve $f'f = \frac{1}{-5x^4-1}$?
any ideas?
once you've shown that $f(x)$ is well-defined and differentiable, i think expressing $f'(x)$ implicitly via the chain rule is fine
how do i find f'(x) using the chain rule though?
well, i think that's just referring to computing $\dfrac{d}{dx}[f(x)]^5$
$\frac{1}{-5x^{4}-1} = (-5x^4-1)^{-1}$
i mean referring to $f'f = \frac{1}{-5x^4-1}$
02:36
which is most easily found by using the chain rule to write $\dfrac{d(f^5)}{dx}=\dfrac{d(f^5)}{df}\dfrac{df}{dx}$
I've forgotten most of my calculus but I'm trying to give you a bit of a hint.
@Semiclassical that doesn't look like it can be evaluated
sure it can.
@PVAL: Have you looked?
presumably you've already done so if you understand how you got the $f'(x)f(x)$ expression you've been using :)
or are you referring to $f'(x)f(x)=-\frac{1}{5x^4+1}$ itself as not being possible to evaluate?
02:38
@MikeMiller The new one seems more fishy than the long one.
That is how I feel too.
@Semiclassical Yeah I am saying that is pretty challenging to evaluate
well, it depends on what you count as an answer
if they are asking for $f'(x)$ it can't be too complicated
if one takes the attitude that, having shown that $f(x)$ exists, you're free to use it in writing out $f'(x)$
02:39
oh
then you're done since you can write $f'(x)=-\frac{1}{f(x)}\frac{1}{5x^4+1}$
buuuuut i don't know if that's what they actually want :/
But I can't tell why it's wrong. He doesn't actually prove the torus he constructs is exact, and references elsewhere. I imagine it isn't. There's also slightly weird definitions (more in their English than their mathematical content) for things like Lagrangian isotopic.
@Semiclassical Solving $f'f = -\frac{1}{5x^4+1}$ doesn't look very easy so I think that is fine
i'll play around with mathematica a bit to be sure, but i think that's about as good as one can hope for at generic $x$
@PVAL: I'm going to email you a brief comment.
02:41
actually, come to think of it
writing out $f(x)$ explicitly means solving a quintic polynomial for one of its roots
yeah, probably they don't care about $f(x)$ explicitly
@MikeMiller Well so is Goodman...
though, you might check your algebra for $f'(x)$. i get a different result
@PVAL true. just worthless snark.
02:45
Actually every serious math I have read by Eliashberg has been fantastic.
His book with Cieleback and his "Remarks on Symplectic Fillings" are the main extent of this,
has ted not been around lately?
i can't tell if it's that or my timing just stinks lately
the latter
03:01
0
Q: The textbook's natural deduction proof for $\vdash(\neg(\phi\to\psi)\to\phi)$ seems to be wrong with regard to RAA(Reductio Ad Absurdum).

crocketAs you can see below, $\psi$ pops out of nowhere due to RAA(reductio ad absurdum). This is probably wrong. Is there really a proper natural deduction proof for $\vdash(\neg(\phi\to\psi)\to\phi)$?

fair enough
can a function $f(x) > 0$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$ but be strictly decreasing?
I was thinking if it decreased by an infinitesimal distance each time it is possible
@Semiclassical What are you getting?
well, where are you getting $x^4$ from?
$g'(x)$
you shouldn't be
03:11
i am just applying the inverse theorem
also, there's an obvious answer---what if $f(x)$ decreases by a factor of two every time you increase by $1$
thats for your other question
@Semiclassical I don't understand
hmm. well, the way i was doing things was to start with $f(x)^5+f(x)+x=0$, differentiate both sides wrt $x$, and solve for $f'(x)$
well, if $f(x+1)=f(x)/2$, then it'll get closer and closer to zero as $x\to\infty$ while never vanishing
so if you can think of a function that does that, you've got an example
@Semiclassical That makes sense now
03:42
That's a Spivak question. He expects an applucation of the 1-D inverse function theorem to justify implicit differentiation.
Hi @Semiclassic
got a moment to help me understand something? i feel like it should be straightforward but ehhh
not really following it
You can try ...
mmkay
basically, i'm trying to understand quadratic differentials
and the notion of foliations that shows up in there
03:45
OK, like on a Riemann surface?
So the point is that when you (holomorphically) change coordinates you're looking at functions that transform by $(dz/dw)^2$ instead of by $dz/dw$. But I guess you knew that.
So ask a question?
mostly i'm trying to understand how one gets the horizontal and vertical trajectories of a given quadratic differential
03:48
I don't know what you mean by that, but it's not much different from any other sort of differential equation, except it's nonlinear.
hi @MikeM
well, let me ask about the most trivial case namely just $(dz)^2$
because if i don't understand that, i probably don't get the rest
First of all, are we on $\Bbb C$ or a torus or what?
let's just do $\mathbb{C}$
i might want to plug you on the torus case eventually, but not right now
03:50
My point was that we have to decide what a local coordinate $z$ means. On $\Bbb C$ or a torus it's globally defined.
OK, so what am I doing with this quadratic differential?
somehow, i want to use $(dz)^2$ to define at each point a vector field whose flow lines are horizontal lines
ugh, such a sloppy statement
let me say that better
Well, on $\Bbb C$, there's not going to be any difference between $(dz)^2$ and $dz$, since we have a global chart.
But, yes, tell me how we're defining a vector field.
that's where i get lost, i think, though reading a different set of notes is making things a bit more obvious
here's a stab at it
Ordinarily, these things show up in terms of giving infinitesimal changes of complex structure on your Riemann surface. How are they arising in your set-up?
well, here's the story as i'd understand it
suppose my QD is $f(z)(dz)^2$. then i can convert this to $(dw)^2$ by choosing a coordinate $w(z)=\int_{z_0}^z \sqrt{f(z')}\,dz'$ for some basepoint $z_0$
03:58
Assuming you're on a simply connected set on which $f\ne 0$, sure.
yeah, definitely
and the reason i care about that is that, in classical mechanics, one talks about the classical action $\int_{x_0}^x p(x')\,dx'$ where the momentum $p$ is determined from $p^2+V(x)=E$
Not that I see how you go from phase space to a Riemann surface ...
well, suppose $V(x)$ is a quadratic polynomial
But where does $x$ live?
physically, the real line. but i'm deliberately complexifying it here.
for reasons shrug
04:03
OK, and we had discussed earlier that momentum should be a $1$-form (section of the cotangent bundle), so here you have $p^2$, hence a quadratic differential form. Got it.
So you're talking about a vector field on the cotangent bundle with some property?
right. the definition i've got works like this
if i denote the above QD as $\phi$, then a tangent vector $v$ is 'horizontal' to $\phi$ if $\phi(v)>0$
That doesn't even make sense.
let me find the definition.
it's from these notes: jkahn.gc.cuny.edu/Lecture%204.pdf
First of all, I assume you mean a holomorphic tangent vector. Second of all, by $\phi(v)$ you mean feed it $v$ twice?
i guess. i was confused by that.
that's the notation they used.
though it's consistent for them, given how they define it in the first sentence or so
04:10
So they're using that to mean something like $\big(\sqrt{\phi}(v)\big)^2$.
for them, $\phi:TS\to \mathbb{C}$ where $S$ is the Riemann surface
They're talking about a holomorphic vector field $g(z)\dfrac{\partial}{\partial z}$ and basically taking $f(z)g(z)^2$.
that's what $\phi(v)$ computes to?
No, $\phi$ is definitely not a well-defined map on $TS$. A $1$-form would be, but not a quadratic differential.
The transformation rule says this is wrong.
Oh, I see what they said.
"Recall that a quadratic differential on a Riemann surface S is a map ϕ : T S → C satisfying ϕ(λv) = λ^2 ϕ(v) for all v ∈ T S and all λ ∈ C."
04:12
Yeah, I just read that.
kind've surprised cut-and-paste preserves (almost) all of that :/
This works only because we're working with a $1$-dimensional complex manifold.
that, i buy. but i'm also entirely happy with that setting.
So, yeah, anyhow, if $\phi = f(z)(dz)^2$ and $v=g(z)\partial/\partial z$, then $\phi(v) = f(z)(g(z))^2$.
the convenience of only worrying about 1D motion, heh
04:15
So on this coordinate chart, you want to know for what $g(z)$ we have that positive.
right. just to check---am i correct in reconstructing that $\partial_z = \frac{1}{2}(\partial_x-i\partial_y)$?
wait. i can do that easily by hand. no point in me asking.
Yes, that looks right. The easiest way to remember this is $z=x+iy \implies dz = dx+i\,dy$ and $d\bar z = dx - i\,dy$, and $\partial/\partial z, \partial/\partial\bar z$ is the dual basis.
right. plus $\partial_z z=1$ and $\partial_{z}\overline{z}=0$
(same thing of course)
Dual basis :)
yes, yes, yes
ok. let me try to confirm offline that i understand the trivial $f(z)=1$ case.
i'll probably use $\partial$ and $\overline{\partial}$ for convenience. subscripts get tedious otherwise.
04:21
How are things @Ted?
Well, to me $df = \partial f + \bar\partial f$, so these are $1$-forms, but do what you like :)
My back/hip have been killing me for a day and a half, @MikeM, but otherwise OK.
oh, good point. i remembered that there was a usage like that but you're right
@Semiclassic: Other people use the notation you want to. Just not geometers :)
hah
well, obviously $(dz)^2(\partial_z)=1$ in their conventions
Sorry to hear that @Ted...
04:25
which means that $\partial_z=\frac{1}{2}\partial_x-\frac{1}{2} i\partial_y$ would be horizontal
what i don't get is what that actually represents, what with the complex coefficients
But, uncomplexifying, that just moves you along the $x$-axis, @Semiclassic ...
aka i don't actually know enough about TS
hmmm
I remember being VERY confused about someone's manipulations with the Laplacian once... Til I realized their Laplacian is negative mine
We're talking about $\Bbb C\times\Bbb C$ here.
okay, that makes more sense
04:26
Yes, the sign on the Laplacian is always a confusion. Geometers always make it negative, and analysts always make it positive. :)
and then $(dz)^2(i\partial_z)=-1$ means that $i\partial_z$ would be a vertical trajectory
Why wouldn't the Laplacian be a positive operstor??
There are funny signs with the Hodge star, as I recall, @MikeM.
that almost sounds like the choice of signature in Minkowski space :)
+++- v. ---+
Well, don't make elliptic into hyperbolic while you're at it, @Semiclassic.
04:28
heh
okay, going back
Yes, that's danferous - change all or none
in what sense should i understand $i\partial_z$ as being vertical? i can kind've see it: If $\partial_z$ points in the real direction at all points, then $i$ rotates that vector field locally by 90 degrees
is that basically all in this context? (i.e. $S=\mathbb{C}$)
They're using $\partial/\partial z$ to trivialize the bundle and just thinking about the coefficients. So you're looking at $1$ versus $i$ in $\Bbb C$, I guess. Horizontal <--> real, and vertical <--> imaginary. ?
sounds right
I have never heard this sort of stuff before, so I dunno :P
04:32
heh
now, what i should further be able to reproduce is the case of $z(dz)^2$ as the QD
main thing i want to figure out is the simplest way to get the flow lines in mathematica
That one bothers me because of the zero at the origin. And if we pull out the origin, we're not simply connected. I.e., you do not have a global branch of $\sqrt z$ on $\Bbb C$.
yeah :/
considering $f(z)$ with zeroes is the really important business
Remember what I said before. You need a well-defined branch of $\sqrt{f(z)}$.
Well, I guess you only need that if you're going to change coordinates.
I guess you just do the same thing. You want $z(g(z))^2 > 0$. Good luck with that at $z=0$, though.
yeah. and all i need is the coordinate to make sense locally, not globally
So do we allow vector fields with poles?
04:37
i think you can. more generally, you can allow $S$ to be a Riemann surface with punctures
Yeah, but I'm worried about ill-definedness when we have non-simple connectivity and square roots. Basically, you want $g(z) = 1/\sqrt z$, and that's a no-good.
in the case of $z(dz)^2$, at $z=0$ one should have three lines converging symmetrically
@TedShifrin: BTW, great talk today by Jonathan Wahl. Seems like your kind of guy.
From UNC, @MikeM? Much more algebraic than I ever was, but singularity theory, yeah.
I'm amazed he hasn't retired.
How does a cube root come in, @Semiclassic?
i suspect that the 'right' way to do the case of $z(dz)^2$ is to move from $\mathbb{C}$ to the Riemann sphere defined by $y^2=z$
04:39
Really, really enjoyed that talk. Talked to him after and learned he's written papers in my area.
gooood question
(Fillings of 3-manifolds, usually resolutions of surface singularities, so not surprising.)
Hmm, same guy? UNC, about 70+ now?
i think it's because $\sqrt{z}dz=\frac{2}{3}d(z^{3/2})$
04:40
I haven't seen him in decades, but, great!
Aha @Semiclassic. Proceed.
will do. but need to do something quick---back briefly
Well, I'm outta here for now. Report tomorrow :)
aye aye
back
05:02
0
Q: Did I deriva a natural deduction proof for $\{(\phi\vee\psi),\neg\phi\}\vdash\psi$ properly?

crocketIn the picture below, I derived $\psi$ by RAA(Reductio Ad Absurdum) without $\neg\psi$ above it. Did I use RAA correctly in this natural deduction proof?

$R_{n} = h_{n}! \cdot f(n(a + \theta))$
Does this have any particular meaning?
(The Number Devil, page 107.)
Never mind, it's probably just random gibberish.
05:25
6 hours ago, by skill patrol
Don't open it and let the "Devil" out!
:-)
05:44
Math truly is beautiful. Chapter 7 discusses what is known as Pascal's triangle.
and difficult
This number theory is really starting to confuse me.
Can someone explain the relationship between Pascal's triangle and Fibonacci numbers?
I'm actually asking for real this time.
I hope I don't have to ask on the main site...
(The Number Devil pages 138-140.)
06:04
...what? You can derive the Sierpinski triangle from Pascal's triangle! (Pages 140-141.)
0
Q: Representable Functors and Upper Sets (Final Segments)

Julian RachmanI was looking around Wikipedia and came across this for representable functors: From another point of view, representable functors for a category $\mathcal{C}$ are the functors given with \mathcal{C}. Their theory is a vast generalisation of upper sets in posets. I don't get the generalization. ...

anyone? ^
06:51
Wow. By chapter 9, they're talking about convergent and divergent series.
I can't believe this book covers such advanced material.
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2^n}=1$
$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n+1}=\infty$
(The Number Devil pages 182-187)
 
2 hours later…
08:48
I have line given by $\phi$ (angle) and a point represented by a vector $r_i$. How can I find the perpendicular distance of it from a another point $r_j$.
In this article, in vector formulation section what does $n$ represent?
It mentions n is a 1×2 unit vector in the direction of the line
well, it looks like you already know what n represents
should we assume R_i is on said line?
yes
The line represented by r_i and /phi .
phi seems unnecessary though since r_i is given no?
Why r_i is the point and /phi is the angle the line makes with x-axis?
what?
you said there were two points, so r_i can't be "the" point, and phi is the angle the line makes with the x-axis because you said so no?
08:53
The line is represented by an angle(/phi) and point(r_i) through which it passes.
Now, I have compute the perpendicular distance of the aforementioned line from another point r_j
if you have he point r_i on the line, then there's no need for phi
when you googled "perpendicular distance" and went to the wikipedia page, which part did you have trouble understanding?
see "vector formulation"
I am trying to use that one only. But I didn't understand what you are suggesting.
You can't represent a line by a single point right?
ah, your line doesn't go through the origin then?
oh no.
Sry, I should have mentioned that before.
the wikipedia formula still works
your n=(cos phi,sin phi) of course
08:58
||(r_i-r_j)-(r_i-r_j).n).n||, where n=[cos phi,sin phi]?
Is there any simplier way of representation without introducing n?
a way to do it without knowing what direction the line is going? what do you think?
no, I want to use \phi instead of n in the formula to avoid addition of another symbol.
Are there any other better notations?
n=(cos phi, sin phi), obviously the latter side of the equation has no n in it
I mean, that's what n is
 
1 hour later…
10:06
Hey @DanielFischer. Could you help shed some light on the answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/51788/… The spectrum of a self-adjoint compact operator consists of a sequence $(\lambda_n)\in c_0$, right? What do we know about the spectrum of multiplication operators on $L^2$?
Hello @iwriteonbananas.
10:40
@iwriteonbananas Well, the spectrum of a compact operator may be finite. But it's countable, and has no accumulation point except possibly $0$. So it's the underlying set of a sequence in $c_0$. Note however that it's quite misleading to say the spectrum is a sequence in $c_0$, since a sequence has more structure (in particular an ordering induced by the indices). If the compact operator lives on a Hilbert space and is self-adjoint, we have the further information that the spectrum is real.
But self-adjointness is really really unimportant there. Now the question of the spectrum of a multiplication operator $M \colon f \mapsto m\cdot f$. It's probably easier to look at the regular values of $M$. So, for what $\lambda$ does $t \mapsto \frac{1}{\lambda - m(t)}\cdot f(t)$ belong to $L^2$ for all $f\in L^2$?
Huy
Huy
11:05
hey @BalarkaSen, any idea what an essential arc might be?
Nope, @Huy.
Huy
Huy
what about a proper arc? :P
Not by that name. Context?
Huy
Huy
Any two essential simple proper arcs in the thrice-punctured $S^2$ with the same endpoints are isotopic.
Weird. No idea.
Suppose you look at just 2 punctures, $p$ and $p'$. Join these by two arcs $\gamma$ and $\gamma'$ in $S^2$. Take arcs with same endpt transverse to these respectively. These cannot be isotoped, since they cannot even be homotoped.
So those essentiallity and properness conditions might be strong conditions.
Huy
Huy
11:13
ah
I found it I think
An arc is called essential if it is neither homotopic into a boundary component of the surface nor a marked point
I don't know what "homotopic into a boundary component" means, but glad you found it :)
Huy
Huy
and a proper arc is a map $\alpha: [0,1] \to S$ such that $\alpha^{-1}(P \cup \partial S) = \{0,1\}$, where $P$ is the set of punctures
aha.
@Huy So, you haven't been around for a while. What are you studying?
Huy
Huy
gonna work through some chapters of Farb & Margalit
primer on mapping class groups
I see.
Huy
Huy
11:17
right now I want to understand the Alexander method
which I have no idea what it is :) but I wish you luck.
Huy
Huy
just a fancy theorem that helps compute mapping class groups
what are you working on? still doing analysis?
i see. i don't know what the deal with mapping class groups is though - i just know the definition.
@Huy i just started studying integrals & forms. i am also studying algebraic geometry.
Huy
Huy
I don't really know the deal with them either, yet. :P
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ Did you like my question?
12:29
is there any online resource where I can find examples of inclusion and exclusion to bounding some sets / functions?
I recommend math stackexchange
12:45
Does Bezout hold in higher dimensions? Namely, if $X$ and $Y$ are degree $p$ and $q$ varieties of dual dimensions in $\Bbb P^n$, need it be true that number of intersections of $X$ and $Y$ upto multiplicity is $= pq$?
This is true for smooth varieties over $\Bbb C$ due to cohomological reasons of course.
hi everyone. I ask in chat as I do not think it would be a proper question for the site.

I am writing a paper (not for a mathematical journal) and while I am quite familiar with parametric curves and splines, my supervisor is not.

This means that he is not familiar with the various theorems, in particular he wants me to cite the original work about arc-length parametrization (where is defined what arc-length prametrization is) and the one that says that such parametrization is not possible with rational functions of the arc length unless the curve is a straight line.
13:00
@BalarkaSen If it's true over $\Bbb C$, it's true over any field of characteristic zero. More or less.
@Federico arclength parametrization is one of fundamental notions of differential geometry of curves, so I guess if you want to find the original source it'd trace back to Gauss or maybe even before him. so I don't think that's a reasonable endeavor. But I am sure someone more knowledgeable on (the history of? :P) differential geometry can comment on this.
@MikeMiller Um, I know there's a thing called Lefschetz principle, but I never found a satisfactorily rigorous statement of it. But I can believe you. Thanks.
@BalarkaSen yeah, google scholar seems to suggest Newton. I am aware of the fact that it might not be reasonable, but I have to prove it to someone that has never heard of differential geometry (and assumes that everyone else in our field does not know as well)
@BalarkaSen: Someone on MO said you should take it as a philosophy, not a theorem, that you can prove things in these other settings too.
Why don't you refer to some textbook in differential geometry instead?
It's obviously not actually always true.
13:04
@MikeMiller Ah, alright.
Let me find the link.
@BalarkaSen I will try to propose it again, last time the answer was "you should cite the original, not a derivative work"
25
Q: What does the Lefschetz principle (in algebraic geometry) mean exactly?

stjcThis principle claims that every true statement about a variety over the complex number field $\mathbb{C}$ is true for a variety over any algebraic closed field of characteristic 0. But what is it mean? Is there some "statement" not allowed in this principle? Is there an analog in char p>0? Is...

Thanks.
Hi. Is PDE both singular and plural? Like deer and fish? Does anyone have any idea why?
13:14
@MikeMiller Apparently there is a concrete theorem quoted in Martin Brandenburg's answer, but nobody seems to care much other than taking it as a cue that the analogous statement is true for fields other than $\Bbb C$ and thus worth trying to prove it - or that's the impression I get. Is this like a Godel or Freyd kind of thing, then?
I think it seems rather difficult to apply Martin's statement.
I don't understand it to be honest, not sure if I should try to.
Yes, part of why I wouldn't be able to apply it is because I don't understand it.
14:07
at how many points $f(x)=\frac{4-x^2}{4x-x^3}$ is discontious?
My question didn't end.....
sorry for spelling mistake!
Morning @Semiclassical. Hi @JulianRachman.
@ramsay hmm, it is discontinuous at 3 points {$0,-2,2$}
14:23
@DeNiSkA your answer matches my book answer, but why can't we write the function as $\frac{4-x^2}{4x-x^3}=\frac{1}{x}$ because $4-x^2$ cancels out?
Morning @BalarkaSen
@ramsay $(4 - x^2)/(4x - x^3) = 1/x$ only when both of the expressions are defined. You can't cancel when $x = 2$, e.g, because the left hand is $0/0$, not well-defined. You can't cancel when $x = 0$ similarly. $f(x) = (4 - x^2)/(4x - x^3)$ and $f(x) = 1/x$ are two different functions.
@BalarkaSen but they seem to be same functions, right?
@ramsay you can't modify the given function when you are finding continuity, i mean $\frac{4-x^2}{4x-x^3}$ is equal to $\frac{1}{x}$ only when there domains are equal! and domains of these two functions are different!
They are the same functions only when $x$ is not $0, 2$ or $-2$.
But, $1/x$ is defined at $2$ whereas $(4 - x^2)/(4x - x^3)$ is not. So you can see why they are different.
r9m
r9m
14:28
@DanielFischer did you get my ping yesterday? :)
@JulianRachman How's it going?
thank you @BalarkaSen and @DeNiSkA
@r9m Yes. But you had already left. I haven't thought about how much you exactly need to require, but at least for all analytic functions decaying sufficiently fast, it holds. Let me think for a moment whether $\lim_{\operatorname{Re} z \to +\infty} f(z) = 0$ already suffices.
14:45
@r9m pong ;-)
BTW there was a suggestion on meta to create some *rules for chatrooms generally'. (There is a post on meta with rules for this chat room.)
But considering that the rules for this chatroom are ignored by most user, I am not sure whether working on general rules would be a useful way to spend time.
BTW isn't there some network-wide guidance how to use chat? And if it is, does it mention the problem which sparked that meta post?
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer kay .. :) thanks for looking into it!
@robjohn :D LOL .. (pong as in unpleasant smell? :P)
15:02
@r9m $\lim_{\operatorname{Re} z \to +\infty} f(z) = 0$ suffices. But $\lim_{x\to +\infty} f(x+iy) = 0$ for every fixed $y$ probably doesn't.
Ping-pong is a trademarked name for the game of table tennis. Ping-pong, Ping pong, or Pingpong may also refer to: In film: Ping Pong (1987 film), a British film Ping Pong (2002 film), a 2002 Japanese manga-adaptation film Ping Pong Playa, a 2007 film directed by Jessica Yu Ping Pong (2012 film), a British documentary, directed by Hugh Hartford In music: Ping Pong (EP), a 1994 EP by the group Stereolab "Ping-Pong", a song by X-Wife from Side Effects PingPong (band) Israeli band who participated in Eurovision 2000 Ping Pong over the Abyss, a 1982 album by The 77s "Do You Know? (The Ping Pong Song...
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer I see .. interesting! :-) gotta scratch my head over that .. thanks!
@DanielFischer I got that :P ping-pong ... I was trying a make an unpleasant smelling joke :P
@r9m Yeah, I was just impressed by the disambiguation page. And disturbed by the last entry there.
r9m
r9m
@DanielFischer :P lol .. Mother of God! .. I just noticed that ..
@r9m People are really weird, aren't they? Who would even think of something like that?
@r9m No, I was intending ping-pong as Daniel Fischer notes.
@r9m as far as the question you asked yesterday, as long as $\mathrm{Re}(\lambda)\gt0$, the answer should be yes.
@r9m but I see that that was one of the constraints.
r9m
r9m
15:18
@DanielFischer I read a S&M manga (like a comic story) once .. and I came to the conclusion .. people can get really creative with those sort of things :P
@robjohn yes .. I got that too (considered a contour with vertices $r$, $r(1+\frac{\Im(\lambda)}{\Re(\lambda)})$, $R$ and $R(1+\frac{\Im(\lambda)}{\Re(\lambda)})$) and let $r \to 0^{+}$ and $R \to \infty +$ ..
split the integral as $\displaystyle \int_0^{\infty} \frac{f(x) - f(\lambda x)}{x}\,dx = \int_0^{\infty} \frac{f(x) - f(\Re(\lambda) x)}{x}\,dx + \int_0^{\infty} \frac{f(\Re(\lambda)x) - f(\lambda x)}{x}\,dx$ :)
the contour's for the second integral in the right ..
15:33
@r9m I would close the contour and use Cauchy's Theorem. I think that works.
Someone help with this question?
@AkivaWeinberger not cool
Hello @robjohn !!
Could you take a look at the edit part of my question: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1723438/differential-equation-of-higher-order ?
@AkivaWeinberger Fair warning: I'm going to April Fool you today.
ugh, april fools day
15:39
@BalarkaSen I have been warned
You better be! 'Cause I have something very bad for you coming up.
r9m
r9m
@robjohn :-) yay! .. thanks!
@MaryStar Did you really mean "$k^4-2k^2+k=0$"?
Sorry, it is a typo... It should be $k^3-2k^2+k=0$. @robjohn
r9m
r9m
@robjohn We could use Mellin inversion too right? (via Ramanujan's Master theorem?)
15:54
@r9m I have never really worked with Mellin inversion. I have usually found other approaches where some people have used Mellin.
Is the partial solution at the edit part correct? @robjohn
r9m
r9m
@robjohn 'kay! .. (I was just trying out ways ... )
@MaryStar 'swhat I thought.
So can we have only a value for $A$ ? Do $B$ and $C$ stay constants ? Or do we set them for example equal to $0$ ? @robjohn
@MaryStar did you see my answer?
Yes, I am thinking about it!! Thanks!! :-) @robjohn
Do you maybe have also an idea for my other question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1723503/… ? @robjohn
@MaryStar I just noticed that the constant of integration $D$ was the same symbol as I was using for $D=\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}$, so I changed it to $F$.
16:30
Hey @Semiclassical
@Semiclassical Could you take a look at my question:
0
Q: Find domain of functions

EvindaI want to find for which intervals $(c,d)$ there are functions $y:(c,d) \to \mathbb{R}$ that are differentiable on $(c,d)$ and are solutions of the differential equation $y'(t)=1+(2 y(t) +t+3)^2$. Could you give me a hint how we could find the desired intervals? Is there a theorem that we could...

@robjohn I came across the integral $$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\sinh(px)}{x}\left(\frac{1}{\cosh(px)+\cos(ax)}-\frac{1}{\cosh(px)+\cos(bx‌​)}\right) \, dx=\frac{1}{2} \log\left(\frac{p^{2}+a^{2}}{p^{2}+b^{2}}\right) \, $$ where $p >0$. The integrand is the real part of $$\frac{\tanh\left(\frac{x}{2} (p+ia)\right)- \tanh\left(\frac{x}{2} (p+ib)\right)}{x}. $$
Since $\tanh(z)$ is analytic in the right half-plane, and $\tanh(z) \to 1$ as $\text{Re}(z) \to +\infty$, I concluded (with hesitation) that Frullani's formula would hold here.
@RandomVariable This looks okay, but you will need to justify the extension of Frullani that we discussed above.
@robjohn I asked r9m about the extension, and then he asked about it here.
@RandomVariable Okay. Do you see how to justify it?
16:46
Ah ok... Is it maybe as follows (at the second question)?

$y'=F(y,x) \\ \Rightarrow (x-xy(x))+(y(x)+x^2)F(y,x)=0 \\ \Rightarrow y(x)(1-x)+x^2+x+x^2F(y,x)=0 \\ \Rightarrow y(x)=-\frac{x^2F(y,x)-x-x^2}{1-x}$

@robjohn
@robjohn Yes, but is an analytic continuation argument possible?
@RandomVariable how would you do an analytic continuation argument?
@robjohn We know that the formula holds for $\lambda >0$, and the principal branch of the logarithm is analytic on the half-plane $\text{Re}(\lambda) >0$. So I guess we would need to show that the integral is analytic on the same half-plane.
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