« first day (2027 days earlier)      last day (3290 days later) » 
00:00 - 22:0022:00 - 00:00

GGG
GGG
00:17
Why does $x \equiv 3 \pmod 7 \text{ and } x \equiv 1 \pmod{11}$ imply that $x \equiv 45 \pmod{77}$?
@GGG by the Chinese remainder theorem
GGG
GGG
@idonutunderstand is there a way to get that implication without the CRT?
Why do you need to get it without the CRT?
GGG
GGG
00:37
Well, I tried to learn the CRT, but didn't understand what they meant by things like $p^{-1}\mod{q}$ unless that actually means dividing by $p$. (In this link crypto.stanford.edu/pbc/notes/numbertheory/crt.html).
00:53
Maybe a simple way to explain what $p^{-1}\mod{q}$ is would be to say it is the integer r between 0 and q such that $p*r \equiv 1 \pmod q$?
Also the set of all congruence classes of the integers for a modulus n is a commutative ring and you can define the inverse that way: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Modular_arithmetic#Integers_modulo_n
GGG
GGG
I think I get the idea now, thank you. However I keep getting $47 \mod{77}$ instead of $45 \mod{77}$.
How are you arriving at $47 \mod{77}$?
Also my previous statement about the commutative ring is not quite right I think because one must first define the inverse before one even knows it is a commutative ring.
GGG
GGG
01:15
$11r = 1\mod{7}$ gives me $r = 2$. And $7r = 1\mod{11}$ gives me $r = 8$. Thus $11^{-1}\mod{7} = 2$ and $7^{-1}\mod{11} = 8$.
Is that correct so far?
GGG
GGG
01:36
So $x \equiv 3 \times 11 \times 2 +7 \times 8 \mod{77}$ so $x \equiv 122 \mod{77}$ therefore $x = 45 \mod{77}$.
Thank you very much @idonutunderstand
 
1 hour later…
02:47
If a mathematician invented Celsius, freezing would be $0$ and boiling would be $1$.
 
3 hours later…
06:06
@MikeMiller You asked for a proper diffeomorphism of $\Bbb R$ whose derivative is not uniformly bounded. I believe $f(x) = x + x^3$ works: $f'(x) = 1 + 3x^2$ which is nowhere zero, and $f' > 0$, so $f$ is strictly increasing forcing injectivity. It is not hard to see (either by staring at the graph or solving the equation) that $f$ is also surjective. So $f$ has an inverse, and that inverse is also continuously differentiable because $f' \neq 0$.
Thus, $f$ is a diffeomorphism - it is clear than $f$ is also proper. $f'$ is unbounded because $f$ becomes arbitrarily steep towards infinity.
06:36
Hi @L33ter.
Hi @BalarkaSen how are you doing
I have economics exam after tomorrow
I am good. Wish you luck on the exam!
Didn't study open the book or study it for a month it is easy though. It is 100 level economics just bunch of introductory stuff. I just feel you know I shouldn't be doing these stuff haha.
Art elective sucks
But economics is not arts!
It is considered as art here
06:39
That's silly.
I guess any social science here is considered art.
I do agree anything that doesn't follow the scientific method shouldn't be classified as science.
Maybe political science and nonsensical stuff. Economics doesn't classify as arts, though.
@L33ter But economics is just applied mathematics. It should be classified as science.
Yeah, if you look at it from this way.
economics is a weird mix of social science, applied math, and politics.
Also, definition of "scientific method" is arguable. E.g., I think biology atleast at a high school level doesn't deserve to be called science, because there's no logical thinking involved.
Hi @Semiclassical.
06:44
hi
I guess it depends, but for that course that I am taking it just bunch of non-sense stuff.
@Balarka: That works. You have another.
@Semiclassical: What's a center manifold? Have you heard of that?
@MikeMiller I know. I have to leave for a couple hours (family gathering nonsense), but as soon as I get away I'll think and come up with a solution.
haven't encountered it before, or at least it doesn't come to mind
Ok, the book I'm reading cited a mathematical physics journal for the proof, so I figured it was worth a shot.
06:48
ah. well, glancing at the Wiki page, it seems straightforward enough
i've definitely encountered that kind of thing in physics, just not under that name
especially in the context of RG flow (and I almost think i have seen that term there)
I'll look at that... The definition I saw in the book was pretty unmotivated so I should looj at that
what was the claim?
the entry at Scholarpedia for center manifold also looks good
Center manifolds exist for a certain gradient flow (on an infinite-dimensional space)
I just want to understand why I care
ahh.
wikipedia has the following statement in the intro paragraph: "Center manifolds play an important role in: bifurcation theory because interesting behavior takes place on the center manifold; and multiscale mathematics because the long time dynamics often are attracted to a relatively simple center manifold."
I don't know what that means haha
06:55
also, I mentioned RG flow? well, that's pretty much the go-to example of a flow in an infinite-dimensional space in physics
you start with a physical system with infinitely many parameters available, but with only a few of them being finite. in doing RG flow, you change which particular system you're interested in, and that amounts to some trajectory in that infinite-dimensional parameter space.
and depending on the dynamics involved in that, you learn a lot about the relevant physics
(i don't actually do RG flow stuff myself, so that's a half-remembered description)
Yeah, I think I should try to ynderstand s finite dimensional example
I have a good intuition/understanding for my setting so I'll try to transfer the finite dimensional understanding
yeah, that's sensible. i talk about that infinite-dimensional example, but in terms of how i intuit things i really only have the finite case in mind
I think that's true for everyone
I learned something cool earlier
Let me tell you when I'm free in a little bit
07:06
i think what the center manifold concept practically says is: If I consider a flow in some parameter space, the number of 'relevant' coordinates can be a lot smaller than the dimensionality of the system
Seems like that, yeah
@MikeMiller you'll have to tell me tomorrow, it's 1am here and i should sleep
I have a simple kind of crank-ish question: what are the consequences of a negative answer to the global regularity conjecture for Naiver Stokes?
@Semiclassical: Sure thing
07:17
nevermind
 
3 hours later…
09:53
hi there :), anyone online?
10:59
Hi @robjohn
Do you maybe have an ideaa about my question: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1662005/can-we-just-set-it ?
11:42
Hi
I have some problems in understanding singular complex, and I asked a question on the site, could anyone help me?
there is a answer on it, but I still have problem on it
 
2 hours later…
13:45
I am trying learn some easy facts about the **Discrete Fourier Transform** (like as you can read in Wikipedia, concerning the definition, the inverse transform, also I see some easy example with online tools, Plancherel and Parseval, and I remember what is a phase and an amplitude for a cosine function). On the other hand I have a lot of doubts, and I've read in a book that refers an experiement (**Marek Wolf**,*1/f noise in the distribution of prime numbers*, I believe that the author put in our hand a copy in researchgate.net), and I believe that I have no abilities to understand and repr
 
1 hour later…
15:02
@BalarkaSen The function $f:x + x^3$ has invertible derivative at every point and also $(f')^{-1}$ is uniformly bounded. Did you get an example where such a condition is not satisfied instead function's unboundedness on each unbounded set is satisfied?
15:35
Whoops, alright. You want $\Bbb R \to \Bbb R$?
$\Bbb R^n$ for any $n$
15:47
Anyone around?
I'm trying to work out a differentiation problem by parts.
@Balarka: Just work one out, it shouldn't take too long.
So we want a proper $C^1$ function $f : \Bbb R \to \Bbb R$ such that $f'$ is invertible everywhere and $1/f'$ is not uniformly bounded. Hmm.
Hey @robjohn
Do we use the fact that $\int_{\mathbb{R}^n} \delta(x-y) dy=1$ ?
16:04
Make it smooth.
@BalarkaSen Sorry I went for dinner. Yes exactly!
16:36
@Balarka: I have something else for you if you're bored of that.
@MikeMiller Yeah I tried a few piecewise things, threw $e^x$ and $\arctan(x)$ at it but I can't find an example :S
I do think I can make a piecewise thing work though. But not sure if there's already something easy out there.
Most of my examples are proper restricted to the positive x-axis, but not to the negative one (and vice versa).
You're probably thinking too hard. All we're asking for is a function whose derivative gets arbitrarily close to zero - $x^{1/3}$ does that. Modify it near zero to fix the obvious problem.
I don't see how to modify $x^{1/3}$ near zero to make $f'$ nonzero.
And yet make $f'$ go arbitrary close to $0$ at $0$.
What? You can't possibly make it go arbitrarily close to 0 near 0. That's a compact set.
The only way you can make the derivarive get very small is to go to infinity.
All you're doing near 0 is to smooth it out.
Ah, I misunderstood you. $f'$ gets arbitrarily close to $0$ at $\infty$, true.
16:44
You can either modify it by hand or use some amount of invocation of the Whitney extension theorem. In any case, that's something to do later.
Question. What direction does $\nabla f$ point?
I should have found this out by myself :( I thought about $x^{1/3}$, but discarded it immediately as $f'$ is not defined at $0$.
?? $f'$ isn't zero, it's not defined
I am sorry, that's what I was trying to say.
(was thinking $x^3$)
@MikeMiller What is $f$ here?
Smooth function on $\Bbb R^n$.
Arbitrary smooth function?
16:48
Yes.
$\nabla f(a)$ points at direction at which $f$ has the greatest rate of change at $a$. Vector $v$ s.t. $\|D_vf(a)\|$ is maximum.
Hey
I have a question, it will be easy for you all.
hi @Owatch
No. I can't do that..
Well, we got far that time.
16:50
@BalarkaSen: OK. So, here's a more-or-less obvious application of the gradient. Suppose I'm standing on a point in $\Bbb R^n$, and I want to head towards a (local) minimum of $f$. Where do I go?
I wanted to say $1 < n$, if $n \in \mathbb{N}^{+}$
Nice trap question, @MikeM.
But that is not true..
Move forward along $-\nabla f(a)$, right?
@Ted: I suppose I've trapped myself, because I don't see what the trap is.
16:51
I think I already gave @Balarka the task to think about this phenomenon, and he solved it ... but that was months ago.
@Balarka: Infinitesimally, yup. Obviously I should not head in that direction forever.
@MikeMiller Nope.
Oh, no, I gave him a slightly different variant.
So, let's see, suppose I have a curve $\gamma(t)$, that "infinitesimally" is going in the right direction. How do I want to state this? Well, I want $\gamma'(t) = -\nabla(f)(\gamma(t))$.
@MikeM, @Balarka: Can you guarantee me that you'll end up at a local minimum?
16:52
@Ted: Shhh!!
Or, I guess don't sh, maybe I should think about how I want to phrase this.
Balarka actually did give me an example of a very closely related phenomenon.
I think I gave you an example where you take arbitrarily long time to end up at a local minimum/maximum.
Right, @Balarka, that you did.
@MikeMiller Right, true.
I mean, when you're doing this, you won't literally ever reach the critical point.
You should be able to prove that.
16:55
"The" critical point? There's by assumption a unique such?
A critical point.
Alright. I think I'm in the clear here. Sorry I didn't really articulate my question. Hello back Ted.
(I would call such a $\gamma$ a "gradient flow line"; normal people would probably call it "a path of steepest descent")
LOL, glad to be of service, @Owatch. That's the best way :)
We call the zero set of $\nabla f$ the "Critical set" of $f$.
16:55
@MikeMiller I am not sure what is the question you are asking.
@Balarka: It's unimportant, so whatever.
1) Suppose the critical set of $f$ is compact. Show that a gradient flow line accumulates somewhere on the critical set.
2) If it's not compact, find an example where it doesn't. Feel free to work on the upper half-plane or something if that's more convenient.
heya DogAteMy :)
Okay, one last thing then.
Now, note in 1) that I never said you actually have a limit. You might "Spiral in" towards the critical set. (You should at least be able to draw an example where this happens, even if you can't write down the explicit function.)
16:57
¿Qué pasa?
If $ 0 \leq i < i+1 \leq n$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}^{+}$. Can I say: $0 \leq i < n$ ?
Mike is playing our favorite game: Stump the Balarka.
Sure, @Owatch.
3) Suppose $f$ is real analytic. Use the Łojasiewicz inequality to prove that $\lim_{t \to \infty} \gamma(t)$ exists and is a point on the critical set. (That is to say, you don't spiral in: you have an actual unique limit.)
Yes!
That's (2), not (3), by the way. Also, cool.
16:58
No, there's a 2) up there.
I think 2 is the least interesting question of the bunch, since in every case I care about, the critical set is compact.
Oops, yup.
In many applications of gradient flow lines you'll see people assume that the critical set is finite. The Lojasiewicz inequality says you don't have to make an assumption like that.
I've actually never encountered that before, @MikeM.
Encountered the problem, or the assumption on the critical set?
17:00
What came up in my research stuff was Whitney conditions on stratifications. Not quite related, but ...
the inequality, I meant, Mike.
@Owatch You need $i$ to be an integer, also, if you want them to be equivalent. Consider $i=1.5$ and $n=2$. The first set of inequalities is false but the second is true.
Of course, yes, Owatch is dealing only with integers here.
i is an integer.
We had $i\in\Bbb N^+$ before.
$i \in \mathbb{Z}$, and $n \in \mathbb{N}^{+}$
No?
n was.
17:01
Oh, oops. The DogAteMy's complaint is valid :P
I learned it yesterday in an infinite-dimensional context. The authors didn't want to assume (or perturb so that) the critical set of the Chern-Simons functional was nondegenerate, eg finite. So they used an infinite-dimensional generalization of Lojasiewicz, due to Leon Simon, to prove that finite energy instantons have a unique limit on the critical set, no matter how nasty it is.
Should be ok then.
Leon Simon's done some good stuff.
Yes, and it got me all excited by this inequality.
So I'm talking about it as much as I can so that I don't forget it.
17:03
Yeah, that'll work. :D
When you say zero set of $\nabla f$, you mean the zero locus of the function $\nabla f : \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$ given by $a \mapsto \nabla f(a)$, correct? ($f$ here is a function $\Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R$).
To interrupt, sure.
ok. So it's just the collection of critical points of $f$.
Yuppers.
BTW, for this problem you should assume the domain of $\gamma$ is $[0,\infty)$. I don't care about the backwards time direction.
17:08
Right.
@Ted: Feel free to interrupt, I'm busy cleaning up from the rowdy poker boys.
Make sure you sweep up all the cigarette butts.
I'm off for a walk to the bank. BBIAB.
They're not that rowdy.
Sorry, I was away. I am onto problem (1).
17:24
@MikeMiller Yet
17:40
@MikeMiller Should it be immediate to me why the gradient flow line accumulates arround the critical set? Or do I have to do nontrivial amount of thinking to figure out?
@Balarka: Everything here requires a nontrivial amount of thinking, because what's the point of trivial problems? But I think I need more assumptions.
And by "I think" I mean "I know".
So compactness of the critical set is not sufficient?
Maybe assume in addition that the curve has finite energy, $\int \|\gamma'(t)\|^2 < \infty$.
Ah, OK.
@Balarka: No, let $f$ be like $1/(1+x^2)$. Obviously you just flow off to infinity.
Yes, ok, this is the desired assumption.
17:44
In mathematics, sexy primes are prime numbers that differ from each other by six. For example, the numbers 5 and 11 are both sexy primes, because they differ by 6. If p + 2 or p + 4 (where p is the lower prime) is also prime, then the sexy prime is part of a prime triplet. The term "sexy prime" stems from the Latin word for six: sex. == n# notation == As used in this article, n# stands for the product 2 · 3 · 5 · 7 · … of all the primes ≤ n. == Types of groupings == === Sexy prime pairs === The sexy primes (sequences  A023201 and  A046117 in OEIS) below 500 are: (5,11), (7,13), (11,1...
Huh, didn't think this would be a thing
(I was just asking whether I should be able to solve it after sufficient amount of starting, like e.g., your irrotational vs. conservative vector field problems or whether it was really very nontrivial like e.g., the exotic sphere problems. If later, I could ponder on it rather than stare)
@MikeMiller Hmm.
Oh yeah, true.
You mean "if the latter". You should be able to solve all these, but I don't know what the difference between the two cases above is. But no big deal.
Note, BTW, that finite length implies finite energy - but I am not willing to assume finite length.
I agree.
4) Figure out if finite energy is equivalent to accumulating on the critical set. (I think it is but don't have a proof off the top of my head.)
<-- observes Mike keeps distracting @Balarka from all the problems he's already supposed to do :D
17:53
5) Show a finite length gradient flow line indeed does automatically have a unique limit.
Can't get your 225B students to do these, Mike? :)
@Ted: He distracts me from all the problems I'm supposed to do, so it's fair.
@Ted: Haven't tried. But I doubt any of them would do any problem I assigned.
Last time I taught Riemannian geometry, less than half the class made serious efforts on the homework.
But the ones that did learned a lot, at least ...
I hate proofs.
If you're an engineer, that's ok, @Owatch. If you're a math major, then it isn't.
17:56
Every block I think I've gotten away from courses requiring proofs. Not a single time yet.
I'm not a math major.
Of course, a certain amount of proofs really does help you problem-solve better.
Usually I don't know what I'm doing when I start.
So thats no good.
I actually know what I need to do now in the one I'm working on. But it's been long enough that I've been working at it to get here.
All damn afternoon..
As with methods of integration and lots of applied things, practice is key in learning mathematics ... proofs, too.
I don't have to do those kind of proofs actually. These proofs are for program correctness and stuff. It's like another course I took which just required I prove things using logical symbols like conjunctions, disjunctions, negations, and letters. Also existential and for-all quantifiers.
Well, yes, theoretical computer science is really mathematics.
18:02
Yeah yeah. Belongs on this spectrum: xkcd.com/435
Probably before the physics guy.
@Owatch The QR code on your profile is wrong. It links to unisung.com, but that doesn't exist anymore. I'm guessing you want it to link to unisung.blogspot.com.
Yeah I didn't renew the domain.
I'll have to take that down.
You can ignore anything linked via my network profile. It'll be updated to just a hello or something soon. Change will take some time to propagate. If you're trying to get the App I have linked on the blog, that's down too. My iOS license expired and they took my App down.
:(
Honestly, I was just curious what the QR code was.
Yeah, I thought it was a cool way to link things.
I don't actually know how to scan a QR code on my screen. I just opened your profile on my computer and scanned it with my phone.
18:18
Yeah, that's how you do it. I don't know about websites that do it for you, but there may be some you can just 'drag-and-drop' QR codes into.
18:41
wow
this thread has become incredibly low quality math.stackexchange.com/questions/1665899/…
Guys please give your views to this question.
3
Q: Differenciating a function with respect to another function confusion

user166748I am having problem solving the following question- Differenciate $\tan^{(-1)}{(\sqrt{1-x^2}/x)}$ with respect to $\cos^{(-1)}{(2x\sqrt {1-x^2})}$, where $x$ is not $0$. My attempt - I took the tan function as $a$ and cos one as $b$. Now we need ${(da/dx)/(db/dx)} $ So here if I substitute $...

I do not understand if my book is correct or wrong
GGG
GGG
By the Chinese remainder theorem the solutions to $a^2 = 1 \mod{15}$ are given by $a^2 = 1 \mod{5}$ and $a^2 = 1 \mod{3}$. So we need to solve $a = \pm 1 \mod{5}$ and $a = \pm 1 \mod{3}$. Let $p$ and $q$ be comprime. By the Chinese remainder theorem the solution to the system of equations $x = a \mod{p}$ and $x = b \mod {q}$ is $x = aqq_1+bpp_1 \mod{pq}$ where $p_1 = p^{-1}\mod{q}$ and $q_1 = q^{-1} \mod{p}$ (where $p^{-1}\mod{q}$ means the integer $r$ such that $pr = 1 \mod{q}$).
Using this we have $a = (\pm 3 \cdot 5^{-1}\mod{3}\pm 5 \cdot 3^{-1} \mod{5})\mod{15}$ and since $5^{-1}\mod{3} = 2$ and $3^{-1} \mod{5} = 2$ this gives $\pm 6 \pm 10 \mod{15}$ which gives $a = 1,4,11,14$.
How do I write the above proof in a clear manner? I'm hopeless at writing proofs! :[
@ggg what are you working on?
could this be of any use to you math.stackexchange.com/questions/1661650/…
sorry ignore that
i see you're doing a different problem
GGG
GGG
18:59
@Brennan.Tobias I'm trying to find all the integer solutions to $a^2 = 1 \mod{15}$ which I believe I've done, but is the way I've written it okay?
one easy way would be to try a=1,2,3,4,...,15
@GGG is that any use to you
GGG
GGG
@TobiasKildetoft Yes, actually -- all the solutions can be found that way. But I was was using the CRT so that I know how to solve problems like this when the modulo is bigger.
well another way to do it is this
you want to solve a^2-1 = 0 mod 15
that's the same as 15 | (a-1)(a+1)
so clearly a=1 and a=-1 work
but you might also have 3|a-1 & 5|a+1 (or the reverse)
limit of product= product of limits can it be applied to a function which is in multiplication with 1/x^2
like
19:10
that will find you the other two 'extra' solutions
limit (x tends to 0) x/sin(x)*1/x^2 = limit( x tends to 0) x/sin(x)*lim(x tends to 0) 1/x^2
is it correct?
@sharafzaman, you can do that at points a function is continous at
quick question, is the group of deck transformations on a covering space always isomorphic to a subgroup of the fundamental group?
if f and g are cont. at y then lim x->y (f(x)g(x)) = (lim x->y f(x))(lim x->y g(x))
GGG
GGG
Thanks, @TobiasKildetoft. That's a nice way to do it.
19:14
can it be a function whose limit exists but not continuous
okay! but limit x->0 {1/x^2} exists because LHL=RHL
no it doesn't thats division by zero
then even lim x->0 sin(x)/x should not exist
isn't that 1?
because near 0, sin(x) is like x
so its just x/x = 1
19:19
If someone could check this out and verify it, that would be awesome: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1664962/…
but sin(0)=0 so 0/0 if taken in other way
im not being rigorous just showing intuition
yeah! i understood sorry!
3
Q: $\lim_{x\to 0} (2^{\tan x} - 2^{\sin x})/(x^2 \sin x)$ without l'Hopital's rule; how is my procedure wrong?

sharaf zaman please explain why my procedure is wrong i am not able to find out?? I know the property limit of product is product of limits (provided limit exists and i think in this case limit exists for both the functions). The actual answer for the given question is $\frac{1}{2}\log(2)$. My course book h...

check out my that question why it is wron
*wrong
0
Q: Order-Preserving Adjunction?

Julian RachmanLet there be two categories PrO (category of preordered sets) and ProM (category of preordered monoids). If we know that there exists an adjunction $F\dashv G$ for functors $F:\textbf{PrO}\to\textbf{ProM}$ and $G:\textbf{ProM}\to\textbf{PrO}$, how can we show that this adjunction is order-preserv...

(There we go)
I did look at that @JulianRachman but I couldn't say anything about it
19:26
@s.harp: No; the double cover of a circle has deck transformation group $\Bbb Z/2$.
Anyone please answer my question it will be greateness
@Brennan.Tobias that's alright. At least you took a look. :)
no reply? i know i am loud
@sharafzaman It seems there are 7 answers there
@AkivaWeinberger What?
19:32
Your question has seven answers
hey! how?
@MikeMiller I think my memory may be a bit messed up, is the statement that covers correspond to quotients of the the fundamental group true?
and @k170's answer starts with a good two-sentence explanation of what went wrong.
@EricStucky how?
Have you read the first two sentences of his answer?
19:34
What do you mean "how"? Seven people answered your question.
Also, user254665 points out another issue
You're talking about this question, right?
3
Q: $\lim_{x\to 0} (2^{\tan x} - 2^{\sin x})/(x^2 \sin x)$ without l'Hopital's rule; how is my procedure wrong?

sharaf zaman please explain why my procedure is wrong i am not able to find out?? I know the property limit of product is product of limits (provided limit exists and i think in this case limit exists for both the functions). The actual answer for the given question is $\frac{1}{2}\log(2)$. My course book h...

@AkivaWeinberger i think it has no answers because my question is why i am wrong (it is not plzz solve)
yes
What do you mean it has no answers? Click on the link, scroll down…
19:37
Yes?
notice that most of the answers are
just saying hoiw to do it correctly
which does not answer the question he asked
it's a fair complaint
@EricStucky THANKS
But as I mentioned, sharaf, there are two that do.
True. Not all of them, though
Basically, you replaced $\lim f(x)g(x)$ by $(\lim f(x))\cdot(\lim g(x))$, which is not always possible
19:39
Consider this "false proof":
Is anyone familiar with coding theory?
\begin{align}\lim_{x\to\infty}1&=\lim_{x\to\infty}x\cdot\frac1x\\&= \lim_{x\to\infty}x\cdot\lim_{ x\to\infty}\frac1x\\&=\lim_{ x\to\infty}x\cdot0\\&=\lim_{ x\to\infty}0\\&=0\end{align}
@sharafzaman
Do you see what the mistake is there?
19:42
Let $C$ be a linear code with minimum distance $2k$. I want to show that there is a coset of $C$ that contains at least two vectors of weight $k$.

Solving the system $Hx=0$, where $H$ is the parity matrix, we can find the coset of $C$, right?


But in this case we don't have a generator matrix of the dual code. How can we get information about the parity matrix?

Or how else can we get information about the coset of $C$?
@s.harp: Covers correspond to shbgroups but the correspondence isn't given by the deck transformation group. The deck transformation group is a quotient (IIRC, it's the quotient of $\pi_1$ by the normal subgroup generated by the subgroup your cover corresponds to)
This is written down somewhere in hatcher ch1
@AkivaWeinberger ya i saw
@sharafzaman It's basically the same flaw as in your question
Thanks, I had tried to use google to find the statements but I could not, I'll look into hatcher.
@AkivaWeinberger Hey!!! Do you maybe have an idea?
19:44
but this violates product of limit rule
@AkivaWeinberger product of limit = limit of products
That rule only applies if both limits exist, @sharafzaman
$\lim_{x\to\infty}x$ doesn't exist.
@AkivaWeinberger but LHL for that is equal to RHL
Hi @DanielFischer
The full theorem is, "If $\lim f$ and $\lim g$ both exist (and are finite), then $\lim fg=(\lim f)(\lim g)$"
19:47
@AkivaWeinberger i mean for limit to exist there is only 1 restriction left hand limit should be equal to right hand limit and it is true here the why? it doesn't exist
In my false proof, I wrote $\lim x\frac1x=\lim x\cdot\lim\frac1x$, but $\lim x$ doesn't exist
It's not finite
Oh, I see what you mean.
With $\lim\limits_{x\to\infty}$, there is no right hand limit anyway, so that criterion doesn't make sense.
But if it were $\lim\limits_{x\to c}$…
…then the limit would exist iff the left-hand-limit existed, the right-hand-limit existed, and the left-hand-limit and right-hand-limit are equal.
In your question…
we had $\lim_{x\to0}\frac1{x^2}$ at one point.
But neither the left-hand- nor the right-hand-limit exists.
They're both infinite.
So $\lim_{x\to0}\frac1{x^2}$ doesn't exist.
@AkivaWeinberger oh do you mean if a limit has no other solution then tending to infinity then the limit will not exist
am i correct
@AkivaWeinberger AWESOME!! you are expert
what's your age?
Somewhere between 0 and 100
19:57
hahaaaaaa!!
but i am a beginner with calculus
k bye! everyone
20:54
How would you define a 'planar curve'?
Any particular context?
@JohnJack A continuous function $f:[0,1]\to\Bbb R^2$, I guess
that better be continuous, Akiva :P
21:00
There is a question which asks if $z = 9 - x^2-2y^2$ is a planar curve.
Oh
Then it would be something that lies on a plane and is one-dimensional
@AkivaWeinberger Not necessarily a coordinate plane, just any plane?
@JohnJack I think so. But you probably learned how to figure out what shape that is.
There's a special name for that shape.
It's the shape as $x^2+2y^2=-z-9$
Are there any theorems that define the relationship between the orders of distinct subgroups?
21:20
You hoping for something like a necessary condition on a multiset, for it to be the orders for subgroups for some $G$?
(I don't know anything like this, btw, just wondering)
@EricStucky not exactly I need to prove that a group is cyclic if it has two subgroups with distinct orders. I've used lagrange's theorem but not sure where to go from there
Okay cool thanks
@Paradox101 Uh, that's definitely not true. You should check the statement again.
Of the problem, I mean.
@MikeMiller the question statement is that a group G is finite with order n. It has two distinct subgroups with distinct orders. show that G is cyclic
Where did you find this problem?
21:30
Precisely two distinct subgroups? Meaning that it has two subgroups that are neither $G$ nor the trivial subgroup, and they both have different orders?
Because I can believe that. But the phrasing "It has two distinct subgroups" makes me think first that there is some pair of subgroups with blah
No, then its still false, Mike.
Sorry
Might be true
Thought of something definitely cyclic.
yes precisely two. So if then they have distinct orders does that imply that their orders are relatively prime?
@Paradox101: No. Take $\Bbb Z/8$. Precisely two nontrivial proper subgroups.
Different orders.
21:35
Ok. This is tricky. In this case is proving through contradiction going to be simpler?
00:00 - 22:0022:00 - 00:00

« first day (2027 days earlier)      last day (3290 days later) »