Nomenclature question for you guys, is there a name for taking function of derivatives, for example $$\cos{\frac{d}{dx}} \equiv \sum_{n=0}^{n=\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n)!} \frac{d^{2n}}{d x^{2n}}$$
I keep trying to search for "cosine of a derivative operator" and all I get are results for "derivative of a cosine"
@MikeMiller Hatcher clarifies in his exercise set why $S^1$ with two disks attached by degree 2 and 3 maps is homotopy eq to $S^2$. If I interpret his hint correctly, here's how it goes. $X$ be the CW complex obtained from attaching the two 2-disks by deg 2, 3 maps to $S^1$. This is the same as attaching disk wedge disk to $S^1$, one disk by deg 2 other by deg 3. I think this attaching map is homotopic to the one which attaches each disk in the edge by identity map to $S^1$.
Now prop 0.18 should give you a proof. I am not too confident about this though.
oh, actually, here's the correct way to do it. Attach one disk by degree 2 map. You get $\Bbb{RP}^2$. Then if you attach the next one by degree 3, as a degree 3 loop is homotopic to one with degree 1 ($\pi_1(\Bbb{RP}^2)\cong \Bbb Z/2$), you can homotope the attaching map to degree 1. Now apply prop 0.18.
Will get to it after checking through some problems in Hatcher's additional exercises. The other half of (1) doesn't look as obvious as the first half.
To answer the point $iii)$, note that
$$\lim_{n\to \infty} \sin ^2\left(\pi \sqrt{n^2-n}\right)=1,$$
since we have that
$$\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{n}}\approx 1-\frac{1}{2n},$$ when $n$ is large.
Q.E.D. (which you combine with $\sin{\pi\sqrt{n^2}}=0$ to show divergence)
100 points bounty!
(to be honest it will be hard to beat robjohn - but you never know until you try it)
In mathematics, Abel's summation formula, introduced by Niels Henrik Abel, is intensively used in number theory to compute series.
== Identity ==
Let be a sequence of real or complex numbers and a function of class . Then
where
Indeed, this is integration by parts for a Riemann–Stieltjes integral.
More generally, we have
== Examples ==
=== Euler–Mascheroni constant ===
If and then and
which is a method to represent the Euler–Mascheroni constant.
=== Representation of Riemann's zeta function ===
If and then and
The formula holds for It may be used to derive Dirichlet's t...
@Khallil Actually I'm not use either because, in the theorem I'm studying, my book reports that $y-y_0$ thing surrounded simply by the modulo operator (single straight line), while wikipedia uses the double/norm version :/
Wolfram keeps giving me something weirdly different, but can anyone attempt to tell me what they get when solving: $x^{4} \frac{dy}{dx} + 4x^{3}y = sin^{3}x$ ?
Yes. I have another professor who refuses to give out anything.
Answers to homework? Denied. Can we get help before-hand from the TA's? Denied. Can we see the answers to the old-exam paper? Denied (He had to give us one as the school requires they make an example available, but he decided the answers aren't included)*
I remember the mid-exam started with a multiple-choice problem section before going on to the main part (Problems). And I was writing down my answers on scrap paper so I didn't have to go back to the cover page and fill them in over and over. The supervisors came and took it away. :( No writing answers like that down I guess.
It's not the school, it's the professor in question who makes things hard.
He tells us the reason he doesn't provide answers for homework and whatnot (After it's been done for weeks even) is somehow because we need to be motivated to study or something. I don't know. It's hard to imagine how to study well if you never know what you're doing is correct.
He seems a bit paranoid to me.
He asked in the lecture once if we had covered boolean algebra or something. And someone stupid said we had done a bit of it in the last block. So he said okay, and skipped to the end of the whole section and decided since we apparently knew it all (Obviously not) none of it would be covered at all.
He also decided to make the homework harder, since he felt people were getting higher grades than they ought to. (He specifically said he felt people must be cooperating even thought he could not prove it, since they are pretty un-varied answers), and so the difficulty would be increased to a level where you would need multiple people to solve it.
I probably ought to have said we didn't. But I still feel he is being a bit aggressive about it.
@DanielFischer: a very simple question: when showing that $\mathfrak{sl}_2(\mathbb{R})$ is simple, we considered the usual sl2-triple $e,f,h$. assume $V$ is an ideal of $\mathfrak{sl}_2(\mathbb{R})$. note that we can restrict $\operatorname{ad}_h: V \to V$. now the argument is that assuming $V \neq \{0\}$, one of the three eigenvectors of $\operatorname{ad}_h$ must be contained in $V$, i.e. $h,e$ or $f$. why?
I understand well that those are eigenvectors to $-2, 0, 2$ on $\mathfrak{sl}_2(\mathbb{R})$ but why does one of them have to be in $V$ too then?
I mean on $R^3$ I could have some eigenvectors $e_1, e_2, e_3$ and a subspace spanned by $e_1 + e_2$, which contains none of those eigenvectors. I assume it has something to do with the ideal property, @DanielFischer ?
Yep, I was looking at the mean value property of harmonic functions - If a function's harmonic over a ball, then the value at the centre is the same as the average over the surface of the ball.
I can't find anywhere where it would be appropriate to ask this, but I might as well try here...
Does anyone have recommendations for abstract algebra and topology texts ? Assume I have a good grasp of introductory real analysis (without topology), i.e., Bartle & Sherbert. I don't like Munkres or Dummit & Foote.
Here's what I look for in a textbook:
- I don't like extra fluff. A great example of this is teaching combinatorics in probability. As much as I love probability (heck, I'd maybe like to do a Ph.D. studying probability some day), combinatorics is not at all essential to understanding undergraduate probability.
@Huy You have a linear operator $T \colon E \to E$ with $\dim E$ distinct eigenvalues. You have a $T$-invariant subspace $F\subset E$. If $F\neq \{0\}$, does it have to contain some eigenspace of $T$?
@Huy (and @Khallil) That's what is done. You divide the surface measure by the area of the sphere and you get a positive measure such that the sphere has a total measure of $1$, i.e. a probability measure.
@Clarinetist: about the surjective iff right-inverse thing: that's something I have seen in freshmen analysis, for example. most people seriously attempting to learn topology would very likely have studied analysis before, so already know those kind of results
I still fail to see why a probabilistic measure would be important in defining such a property as the mean value one, @DanielFischer. Could we not have chosen another measure instead?
@Khallil You take an average, that means you integrate the function and divide by the total measure of the space. If you take a (positive) measure $\mu$ on a space $X$ and then consider the measure $\sigma = \frac{1}{\mu(X)}\cdot \mu$ to avoid writing $\frac{1}{\mu(X)}$ all the time, you get a positive measure with $\sigma(X) = 1$. Such measures are called probability measures. Simple as that. It hasn't really anything to do with probability.
@Huy Calculus has a 50% weight on the exam. I'd like to do analysis + calculus + topology simultaneously to knock that out, and then proceed to linear algebra, and then abstract algebra
@Huy It's been a while, but I remember a lot of calculus. The questions that really got me, though, were some of the analysis + topology questions. I still don't know what a compact or connected set is, for example
A plane through the origin and perpendicular to the unit vector (a,b) is $(x,y)\cdot (a,b)=0$, right? This stand when $a,b\in \mathbb{R}$, right? What if $a,b\in \mathbb{C}$ ?
@MikeMiller What you describe here is essentially the following, isn't it? Given $X$ of $TM$, extend it to a section of $T \Bbb R^n$ and via the usual linear connection on $\Bbb R^n$ (directional derivatives), we get a section of $\Gamma (T\Bbb R^n\otimes T^*\Bbb R^n)$. Orthogonally project it onto the subbundle $TM\otimes T^*M$ to get a section of $\Gamma(TM\otimes T^*M)$
By the uniqueness statement in the fundamental lemma of Riemannian geometry, it suffices to show that the so-defined connection is compatible with the induced metric $g$, and that it is symmetric.
@BalarkaSen Hmm, I know what a metric space is but I'm not seeing the connection here to a topological space. What "collection $\mathcal{T}$ of subsets" would I be working with?
So, in the complex case it is the same as in the real case? We have that $a=a_1i+a_2$ and $b=b_1i+b_2$, then $(x,y)\cdot (a,b)=0 \Rightarrow (x,y)\cdot (a_1i+a_2,b_1i+b_2)=0 \Rightarrow a_1xi+a_2x+b_1yi+b_2 =0$ right? @Huy
@BalarkaSen: I know that $\pi_1( X \times Y) \cong \pi_1(X) \times \pi_1(Y)$. can I somehow decompose $\pi_1(G/H)$ too? (I feel like I've asked this question before)
@Huy Well, if $X$ is a topological space, $G$ acts on $X$ properly discontinuously and freely, then there is a SES $1 \to \pi_1(X) \to \pi_1(X/G) \to G \to 1$.
actually, if not, then I think you get a fibration $H \to G \to G/H$. I don't know much about Lie groups to confirm. If there is a fibration, then you can still do it.
@Huy If my guess that $H \to G \to G/H$ is a fibration is true, then there is still a SES $1 \to \pi_1(H) \to \pi_1(G) \to \pi_1(G/H) \to 1$, I think. Quotient of Lie groups is Lie, isn't it? And second homotopy groups of Lie groups are 0, iirc.
To answer the point $iii)$, note that
$$\lim_{n\to \infty} \sin ^2\left(\pi \sqrt{n^2-n}\right)=1,$$
since we have that
$$\sqrt{1-\frac{1}{n}}\approx 1-\frac{1}{2n},$$ when $n$ is large.
Q.E.D. (which you combine with $\sin{\pi\sqrt{n^2}}=0$ to show divergence)
It's a mystery though that people stay away from taking a bounty. I mean at least a marvellous solution can be written there.
Maybe 100 points is not that attractive? Maybe. Maybe I should have granted 500 points.