@Lord_Farin I wanted to show that $n \subset m \rightarrow n \in m \lor n=m$.
The induction hypothesis is that $\forall n(n \subset m \rightarrow n \in m \lor n=m)$
We want to show that $n \subset m' \rightarrow n \in m \lor n=m'$
We assume that $n \subset m \cup \{m\}$ and we distinguish two cases for $n$: $n \subset m$ and $n \not\subset m$.
I have understood the case $n \subset m$.
For the other case:
We know that $n \subset m \cup \{m\}$ and we want to prove that $n=m'$.
So doesn't it suffice to show that $m \cup \{m\} \subset n$ ?