@DanielFischer So, we use the fact that: $q \notin <x,y> \text{ iff } q(0,0) \neq 0$ and we have the following:
We suppose that $p\notin \langle x,y\rangle$. Then, $p(0,0) \neq 0 \Rightarrow p^n(0,0) \neq 0 \Rightarrow p^n \notin <x,y> \Rightarrow p^n \notin <x^5,y^3> \Rightarrow p^n \notin I \Rightarrow <x,y> \notin Rad(I)$
So, we have proven that $p \notin \langle x,y\rangle \implies p \notin \operatorname{Rad}(I)$.
$\operatorname{Rad}(I) \subset \langle x,y\rangle$
Right? Or have I understood it wrong?