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tony
tony
07:42
@cmw: If "ipse" = "I", then it could be omitted giving, "me consolor", couldn't it?
@Canned Man: Would you be comfortable with the omission of "ipse"?
 
4 hours later…
Joonas Ilmavirta
Joonas Ilmavirta
12:02
@tony That's a bit too black and white. At the most literal level you can omit a subject, but this is really a matter of emphasis. It's much like "I sing" and "it is I who sings" in English.
@tony It's not @CannedMan's call; it was Cicero who chose not to omit it!
 
3 hours later…
tony
tony
14:45
@Joonas: What about the pronoun being "in the verb"--it could be argued that "ipse = I" is an added affectation. How would "me consolor" be translated? Of course, "ipse", here, may be an intensifier; which could be superfluous.
@Joonas: Well, Canned Man & Cicero in the same sentence! Doubtless, Canned Man will be flattered. It's unlikely that Cicero is wrong but it's good to debate.
 
1 hour later…
Joonas Ilmavirta
Joonas Ilmavirta
16:00
@tony I wouldn't say that the pronoun is in the verb in Latin. Many languages have personal conjugation like Latin, and that's a pretty misleading way to put what it means. Language tends not to be minimalistic; the same thing is often conveyed several times.
I'm not saying you do so, but I see sometimes people on the site essentially argue that language is a logic puzzle as opposed to a practical means of communication. That really makes a big difference when you ask whether a given word is needed in a sentence.

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