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05:26
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Q: What exactly does "que" mean in these constructions that mean "if", but lack "si"?

US Topic This syntax lacks si to signify "if". So where does the meaning of "(even) if" hail from? que itself doesn't mean "if". But que stems from Latin quod or quia. Would quod or quia explain this syntax below? Glanville Price, A Comprehensive French Grammar (2007 6 ed) p 330. Roger Hawkins, Fr...

 
4 hours later…
09:22
@Joonas: Do you remember, a year ago, when we were studying Latin dialogue from the film, "The Passion of The Christ"? Some of the Latin was garbled; unintelligible and when clear, did not always correspond to the English subtitles. I found the notes I scribbled-out, at the time. Subtitle: "His (Jesus's) good looks are giving me a hard-on.", I translated as, "forma eius me arrigere." (The Latin could 've been anything.).
@Joonas: A question, please? When person "I" refers to himself in the accusative, "me", are the actions of "me" reported indirectly ("me arrigere")? Why have I waited a year to sort this out? It happens.
 
1 hour later…
10:26
@tony You can always ask a separate question about that on the site! There's no reason to hide questions here in the chat, especially with the constant need for incoming questions on the main site.
@tony That Latin doesn't work; there's no verb in a personal form.
 
1 hour later…
11:35
@Joonas: Thanks for looking at it. I thought it was a bit rude for the main site and could even offend those of a religious persuasion--coarse Roman soldiers contemplating sex with Jesus. Purists talk about the "Classical World"; there is nothing classical about ill-disciplined soldiers, in any time-period/ society. The translation, literally: "The beauty of him is arousing me."; a "personal form" meaning?
 
1 hour later…
13:00
@tony You really shouldn't worry too much about offending others with the choice of topic. If your question comes from a movie or some such reasonable source, it's fine.
That said, it can make sense to make a question less offensive. And here it would be simple: If you are asking about the grammatical structure itself and not in desperate need of describing erections, just change the words. It's not the grammar that is offensive, it's the choice of words.
And you if want to ask about expressing "something gives someone an erection" (which I think would make a good question), ask just about that. Don't mix anything else to it, just keep it focused to just that question. Those who are uninterested can skip it; we all skip questions on that basis anyway.
In summary: Pick a single thing and ask about it. If you want to compose that sentence, I strongly recommend asking two separate questions: One about the accusatives and indirect discourse, one about word choice for physical excitation. Those are very different issues and they are best handled separately!
 
1 hour later…
cmw
cmw
14:23
@tony It needs to be third person. Forma arriget.
@tony Did you ever see this question? The site has no issue with vulgarity per se.
 
4 hours later…
18:08
EUM IT DORMITUM = he is going to sleep?
or
SOMNUM EAT = he wishes to go sleep
 
1 hour later…
cmw
cmw
19:44
@JohhanSantana What does "he is going to sleep" mean? How would you translate that to Spanish? Break down the grammar, don't just translate word for word.
 
2 hours later…
21:26
@cmw el se va a ir a dormir
basically the same as in English
well, He is going to go to sleep means what I said in spanish
el se va a dormir = he is going to sleep
21:52
@JohhanSantana Does "going to" mean future time or motion here?
Last time we got into a long discussion about the semantics of the two options, but it makes a difference in Latin.
Is he walking towards his bedroom in order to sleep? Or is he planning to sleep? Or will he sleep?
This often happens with translation: It's not enough to give a text. You need to explain what you want it to mean.
22:23
I think it means motion. He goes to the room in order to sleep or something like that. I think it should be present as in he is now going to the room to sleep.
but as simple as possible to communicate that He/she is now going to sleep
22:46
@JohhanSantana My point was that the English phrase can mean either thing. The question is: What do you mean with it?
When it's motion for the purpose of doing something, an idiomatic Latin choice is ire with the supine: dormitum it.
If it's just a reference to future time, then the plain future tense often works well.

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