the reason I knew it had to be a sphere was because I knew I could choose whatever meridional circles/longitudinal circles I wanted, because up to homeomorphism, it doesn't make a difference
which led me directly to just using the boundary circles, and then noting that im just collapsing the whole boundary of $I^2$ to a point (not dissimilar to how when you mod out by an ideal $(a,b)$, you can mod out by $(a)$ and then $(\overline{b})$ and you get the same ring)
koro convinced me after a while that you get $S^2 \lor S^2$, if you take a torus, plus a meridional disk (so a closed disk sitting in the interior region the torus bounds, circumscribed by a meridional circle on the torus itself), and collapse both the meridional disk plus a longitudinal circle to a point
this is the next 60%
initially I thought huh maybe that would work, but soon realized it makes no difference
at the very least, I suspected, you need to collapse another meridional disk
in that case, I think you would get $S^2 \lor S^2$
so then he claimed what he was thinking was, collapse a meridional disk, and not a longitudinal circle exactly, but a longitudinal circle that intersects the meridional disk at a circumference point, and enters the interior region of the torus afterwards,
this led to some confusion because, what he was describing was not a circle on the torus at all
he gave me this picture to explain what he was trying to convey
and I asked him if he intended the red line to be wholly in the interior region of the torus, or not
I then concluded that if he indeed intended for the red line to be wholly in the interior region of the torus, collapsing that plus the meridional disk (which he drew in purple/blue) , will not give $S^2 \lor S^2$, but collapsing the red line if it met the meridional disk at a circumference point , stayed for a while on the boundary, and then in the interior afterwards, should really give $S^2 \lor S^2$
no worries haha
im basically procastaworking
soo finally (end of story) I concluded from his picture, that his initial confusion, assuming that his red line actually is longitudinal circle, so it really doesnt enter the interior region, and the purple line is just a meridional circle, was that the shape after the arrow, gets disconnected after you cut along the red line
if you draw that shape in a particular way, it can appear to be disconnected
so I wagered his initial confusion stemmed from that picture, as if cutting along the red line would yield $\mathbb{D} \coprod \mathbb{D}$ with common boundary red-line, rather than just $\mathbb{D}$ with boundary red line (plus purple/blue pinch point)
and then if one were to think the former, collapsing the common boundary would yield $S^2 \lor S^2$
i feel pretty strongly this was the initial source of confusion lol, mostly because ive been here before plenty of times
because a pinched torus does resemble a sphere in someway, I think this confusion is relatable , if you cut along an equivalent red line on a sphere, you would indeed get a disjoint product of open disks with common boundary
the catch being I guess, that the genus one property gives you connectivity after the cut
right, its homemorphic to a sphere with antipodal points identified
anyway, i should try and get back to this analysis crap lol, ive been procrastaworking a bit too long ( not that this wasnt enjoyable, it was definitely a bit too attractive considering how much time ive spent not working on what im supposed to be working on )
@Koro Why is $|PSL_2(q)|= \frac{q^3-q)}{\gcd(2, q-1)}$? Since $Z(PSL_2(q))=\{\pm I_2\}$, we should have a denominator of $2$. The reason is given at the bottom of Pg 5 here.
You did not pay attention to the definition — is the simple answer to your question. Instead of spamming, you should look carefully at the definition and make sure you understand it.
You kept posting the center of $PSL_2$, but in fact you were posting the center of $SL_2$.
I can't tell if i did this wrong or if this is indeed not family of solutions to the function. $\frac{dP}{dt} = P(1-P), P = \frac{C_1 e^t}{1+C_1 e^t}$ I did quotient rule $\frac{(1+C_1e^t)(C_1e^t)-(C_1e^t)(C_1e^t)}{(1+C_1e^t)^2} = \frac{C_1e^t}{(1+C_1e^t)^2}$ doesn't work when I plug it in to verify though
It's strange how the discussion with @porridgemathematics turned to 'why I thought the answer was $S^2$ touching another $S^2$' from 'what space I get by collapsing {meridianal circle, longitudinal circle} to a point'.
I think it was like the following situation: Suppose I am grading someone's answer script, and there is a question whose answer is say 3.1. So I would know what type of mistake student will make to get an answer say 4.3 or say 9 or say 11.
But it would shock me if someone gets the answer as $\pi$. That would put me to thinking -how he might have done it. Haha
Yeah, when I wrote math competition questions that were multiple choice, I tried to include answers that one might get by making some obvious common mistakes.
@CuriousMind As I suggested yesterday, go back to all those limit proofs with quadratics or reciprocals. You have to do this a priori bound every time. When I taught this material, I always talked about "stipulate" [in case there were potential lawyers in the class] :D
@Koro Is that really true? I mean, if you mod out by a whole factor, sure, but not in general.
@TedShifrin ohh, it seems to be same as identifying something in a torus-somewhat like the what I was discussing with porridge earlier. Sorry, I don't immediately see how to visualize $S^1\times p$. I'm still at rectangle description :).
I say opposite in the following sense: We want to define product topology on cartesian product to be the smallest (coarsest) topology so that all projection maps become continuous but in quotient topology we want the largest (finest) topology on the codomain to make the onto map continuous.
@TedShifrin So I think the opposite is meant in the following sense: If we see both these concepts (product topology and quotient topology) as ways to construct new topological spaces, then the ways of constructing these are opposite (in the sense that in one case we want the coarsest such some map(s) become continuous, in the other finest).
It's always different whether you're talking maps out of a space or into a space. You've observed the difference before in looking at continuous maps $\Bbb R^2\to \Bbb R$ versus $X\to\Bbb R^2$.
@Koro oh I sincerely apologize if it conveyed any disrespect, I just found it useful to contemplate , its a thing I tend to do in general, because there's often valuable meaning in trying to figure out what thought process lead to a technically incorrect answer (I make no claims that what I postulated before was what led to anything, its just an error I and a lot of people I know comitted before learning AT so I was fairly confident it could be why)
before and after of course, at least I tend to recommit errors if I dont keep in touch with certain areas of math
also sometimes some thought process that leads to a technically incorrect answers can be tweaked here and there to be correct under some additional hypothesis, idk, i feel like this is the flora and fawna of 'mathematical thinking' if such a thing were to be defined
yeah, its spelled fauna :(
and commit
so actually it wasn't because the answers shocked me or anything, i think its fairly rare that any math that broaches this sort of stuff can ever really be called 'intuitive' in common parlance, it may be to some folks, but it seems more likely to be the case that people confuse high familiarity with something based on experience with conflating some problem that they can see the answer for quickly with being "easy", and then 'intuitive' kind of loses meaning
this definitely is a thing for professors, a lot of them may end up teaching some undergrad courses and carry out certain steps that involve invoking theorems, and its often the case they wouldn't be able to give you more than an intuitive explanation for why those theorems are true (as in something very far from a sketch leading to a complete proof) - normally of course this happens if the course is pretty far removed from their research specialization
and you'll often here phrases like 'this result is trivial because its just an immediate consequence of insert theorem that is a staple of mathematics here'
Gamma must explain why graphing $x!$ on Desmos doesn't make sense when the thing seems continuously increasing for $x\gt 0.463$. That never made sense. In fact, it still doesn't, why is there a local minimum at $(0.462, 0.886)$? Are these rational numbers?