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1:36 AM
Morgue 2.0
 
huh?
I take it youre not a fan
 
2:14 AM
X is a complete metric space.
I want to show that the set of all isolated points of X can't be countably infinite.
Suppose on the contrary that {x_i: i in N, i>=1} is the set of all isolated points.
 
baire category theorem comes to mind.
 
I claim that $X\setminus \{x_i: i\in N, i\ge 1\}$ is closed.
@leslietownes By BCT, the set $\cap_{i=1}^\infty X\setminus \{x_i\}$ is open.
Since $X\setminus \{x_i: i\in N, i\ge 1\}=\cap X\setminus \{x_i\}$
It follows that RHS is X (because by BCT, RHS can't be empty) or in general equal a set V that is both closed and open.
This gives contradiction in case X is connected.
I think that there is no contradiction if X is not connected.
 
seems right. consider Z as a subset of R with the subspace topology.
 
because in connected X, there are sets apart from emptyset and the full X which are both open and closed.
 
Maybe someone can help me find the term (which I suppose exists) that I'm looking for?
It's the idea of a function defined by a small set of algebraic properties of the function. E.g. let f be a function with the properties that (i) f(a+b)=(f(a)+f(b))/(f(-a)+f(-b)) and (ii) f(x)>0 for all real x.
Or e.g. f has the properties that (i) f(ab)=f(a)+f(b) and (ii) there exists b>1: f(b)=1. (Logarithm, IIRC.)
 
2:24 AM
In mathematics, a functional equation is, in the broadest meaning, an equation in which one or several functions appear as unknowns. So, differential equations and integral equations are functional equations. However, a more restricted meaning is often used, where a functional equation is an equation that relates several values of the same function. For example, the logarithm functions are essentially characterized by the logarithmic functional equation log ⁡ ( x y ) = log ⁡ ( x )...
 
nitsua sometimes these things are called 'functional equations'. the cauchy functional equation is a classic example. things get fairly subtle fairly quickly. no known general theory that i am aware of.
 
Functional is totally the word I was thinking, but I kept ending up at en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Functional_(mathematics)
 
calvin beat me to it.
 
what do I do with my question? :(
 
i recall seeing books specifically on functional equations but idk how deep the hole is yeah
 
2:25 AM
Thank you! I'm not crazy!!!
 
@leslietownes by a microsecond
@nitsua60 yw!
 
(All day I've been going "functional, right?" And then thinking I was wrong.)
 
that's another word that has a million meanings now that i think of it...
 
yeah, 'functional' is something of an overloaded term. although many functionals do satisfy the cauchy functional equation.
:D
 
does this mean im going to start minting nfts
 
2:26 AM
nitsua you might still be crazy, just not for the reason that you think there's a math term for this.
you could be crazy for a separate, independent reason.
 
@leslietownes You mean, like, for thinking that writing a six-page letter to my boss and their boss about understaffing and its knock-on detrimental effects to students might be a good idea?
Yeah, pretty crazy.
 
calvin a lot of people are minting NFTs on the lesliecoin blockchain and living their dreams. akiva weinberger just bought his third yacht. ted shifrin drives a solid gold car that gets 10 gallons per mile.
nitsua: four pages would have been one thing, but six pages is crazy.
 
@Koro Huh?
 
^in not connected
 
@leslietownes Sooth. Wisely, wisely.
 
2:33 AM
the question was: If X is complete, can the set of all isolated points be countably infinite?
I was trying to prove that it can't be countably infinite.
 
X is what?
an arbitrary metric space?
 
koro i think you were able to show it under more hypotheses but in general it can happen.
 
X is a complete metric space.
 
does an interval with all the integers on the real line work?
 
15 mins ago, by leslie townes
seems right. consider Z as a subset of R with the subspace topology.
 
2:36 AM
it would have to be a closed interval
 
we're still assessing that.
 
leslie is on fireeee
 
Z is complete.
 
so why not? the interval would have to be closed
 
any cauchy sequence in Z is eventually a constant sequence.
 
2:38 AM
so like $[1/2, 3/4] \cup \mathbb Z$
yes it is
 
yeah, I think that works :-)
@JoeShmo yes, but it was not relevant here?
 
no, it wasn't :-)
 
all points of Z are isolated.
 
yes
 
:-)
 
2:39 AM
sometimes i feel like a point of Z.
 
in fact you only need one integer
well false
 
me, a point of Cantor set
 
2 integers
 
:D
 
false yet again
all integers
 
2:40 AM
countably many at least.
 
you dont need that interval I gave you. adds nothing
the answer that leslie gave you 15 minutes ago... :-)
 
BCT is amazing :-)
 
BC who?
 
Baire Category Theorem
 
you can use it to prove a lot of things.
 
2:46 AM
topology fell out of favor for me a long time ago
I used to love it. then one day I wasn't getting the fix anymore
I started falling for analysis
 
hm im just now realising my cat has attempted to become my co-author probably a couple days ago
 
my cat has a superpower, she can tell when my wife wakes up. she can't seem to tell when i wake up.
i was up around 5:30 this morning, just sitting in bed. my wife wakes up around 6 and the cat immediately runs into the room and is meowing at her and trilling and winding between her legs.
 
I think the cat likes your wife a little better les
 
they spend a lot of time together. during work from home she usually sits behind my wife's laptop. you just see paws sticking out from each side.
 
cute
I wake up with my dog sitting on my head every morning. He is not a cat.
 
2:58 AM
she blocks the fan exit from the laptop so the thing often revs into high gear and sometimes overheats.
 
3:10 AM
@leslietownes by design
 
must feel cosy
 
3:21 AM
@JoeShmo Can't relate
So here's a question
 
to which part?
 
Leaving topology for analysis
Maybe one day I'll know enough analysis to like it, but so far I'm pretty meh towards it
 
you should hear what analysis says about you.
 
harmonic analysis is the way to go
algebra is fun too, the little of it I know
 
@JoeShmo Where can I learn it?
 
3:24 AM
harmonic? first Stein, then Katzanelson
 
yitzhak katznelson has a good book on the classical theory. dover reprint i think there is also a free pdf online.
 
jinx
 
anyway i somehow have a pdf of the book.
 
its available online
rep theory looks like a looot of fun
but I just dont know when I'll get around to it
 
fell and doran have a good book on the not necessarily commutative case.
 
3:28 AM
rep theory or harmonic?
 
representation theory. although some of it is definitely what you might call noncommutative harmonic analysis.
 
sure
 
mackey had a good book about this stuff too. or set of notes.
 
nice
I actually recently came across a set of notes online I really liked
it was an introduction, rather concise, well written, and well organized
 
serre's linear representations of finite groups is good. maybe a little too concise, but good.
 
3:31 AM
@AkivaWeinberger basically if I were to do mathematics all over again, the advice I'd be looking for would be: drop everything else, do harmonic analysis. But that's me... if you happen to be a particularly talented topologist I dont want to take that away from the world... :-)
 
Hello Guys
 
hey!
 
@JoeShmo i want to cite something for the L^p boundedness of CZ operators on say (R/Z)^d. Assuming I didnt just explain how dumb i am, got a suggestion?
 
cite calderon or zygmund.
 
lol
 
3:38 AM
@JoeShmo I went the other way, though I took it from Stein in person.
@CalvinKhor I think Harmonic Analysis on Euclidean Spaces by Stein might cover that.
 
@CalvinKhor no clue, sorry
 
i have a set of notes somewhere from the guy who taught me most of what i learned about harmonic analysis that may have that. but i don't think he ever published them.
he was paranoid about putting stuff on the web, i don't know why. it's not like people are combing academic websites for this stuff. or that any of it was new.
 
@robjohn it does in fact. but its more a consequence of the R^n theory + some result that lets you pass to periodic stuff, so not stated cleanly
or maybe i didnt see it. i'll check again!
 
@robjohn very interesting.. any particular problem that took you to the dark side?
 
@CalvinKhor It has been a long time since I went through that stuff, so I might be mixing things up.
 
3:42 AM
@robjohn well i can tell you its in one of the books for sure :) its where i learned it from
 
@JoeShmo the dark side? you mean analysis?
 
:-)
you went from analysis to topology as I understood it. Any particular reason why?
 
@leslietownes funny you say that, lots of now-offline professor websites are backed up on the wayback machine
sometimes but not always with their notes
 
yes. i think there is a complete archive of quizzes and midterms i wrote 20 years ago.
 
ive got some shit i dont really want to put out but its cuz i think its not good lol
 
3:45 AM
it's stopped somewhat in recent years. in the mid 2000s a lot of universities began using 'course management software' which keeps that stuff one step away from the public web. before that it was all online.
 
leslicoin :-)
 
4:40 AM
If a metric space X has a countable base, then why is it true that every open cover of X has countable subcover?
if X is not separable (i.e., X does not have a countable dense subset), then can X have a countable basis?
 
math.stackexchange.com/questions/967454/… introduces relevant terminology.
 
Thanks a lot leslie.
 
5:36 AM
i guess everyone knows convex now. dearth of questions.
 
6:11 AM
@copper.hat they're just below average functions.
 
Let P be the set of all condensation points of an uncountable set E, then P is perfect set.
I can show that P is closed.
 
well, it definitely contains all its limit points.
 
For if x is any limit point of P, then for every r>0, B(x,r) contains a $p\in P\setminus \{x\}$ and a sufficiently small ball around p contains uncountable many points of E.
that is, B(x,r) contains uncountable many points of E for every r>0
Hence x is a condensation point of E. So x is in P.
Hence P is closed.
But how do I show that every element of P is a limit point of P?
2
Q: Baby Rudin condensation points

Chris Kerridge$\newcommand{\seq}[1]{\left\{#1_n\right\}}$ Question 27 says Suppose $E \subset \mathbb{R}^k$, $E$ is uncountable, and let $P$ be the set of all condensation points of $E$. Prove that $P$ is perfect and that at most countably many points of $E$ are not in $P$. I seemed to be able to prove t...

I found some more similar posts, but nowhere was a clear answer.
Also, if B(x,r) contains uncountable points of E then there is no reason to believe why any sub-ball will contain countable points of E.
 
6:36 AM
I checked my notes. I got it now.
$E\subset \mathbb R^k$.
 
 
2 hours later…
8:20 AM
if you follow a post, does the OP get notified?
 
8:30 AM
how much reputation is earned if I get my answer as "accepted" answer?
 
8:44 AM
10
 
8:54 AM
@SHASHAANKB.H. has anyone tried to tell you about redemption?
 
9:23 AM
@pejel1967 15
 
@robjohn We get only 10 right?
 
no. 15
 
upvote gives 10
acceptance gives 15
 
Oh Ok
I got confused
 
9:33 AM
@SHASHAANKB.H. it's okay at least you got redemption
 
redemption?
Wdym?
 
i won't tell you, it'd be better if you know it yourself
maybe some time in the future
 
10:34 AM
we're tasked to prove that $x \in \text{int} A$ iff there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$.

Attempt:

$(\Rightarrow)$ Let $x \in A$, then by definition of $\text{int} A$, there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$.

$(\Leftarrow)$ Let there be a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$, then by the definition of an interior point, $x$ is an interior point of $A$. Thus, $x \in A$.

Is that correct or is something wrong or are there any lapses?
we're tasked to prove that $x \in \text{int} A$ iff there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$.

Attempt:

$(\Rightarrow)$ Let $x \in A$, then by definition of $\text{int} A$, there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$.

$(\Leftarrow)$ Let there be a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$, then by the definition of an interior point, $x$ is an interior point of $A$. Thus, $x \in \text{int} A$.

Is that correct or is something wrong or are there any lapses?
edit: $\text{int} A$
 
11:37 AM
seems correct to me but
anyone?
 
@automorp15m what is your definition of int A?
sorry typo on what i wanted to ask
 
the union of all open sets
contained in A.
 
I am having brain Freeze, please endure this Stupid question
 
sure, kinda silly if thats the definition to ask. @automorp15m
 
Is it possible for a holomorphic function, to have a derivative to be equal to zero at some points and not at others? i keep thinking that if a complex function has derivative zero at ome points then it is zero everywhere
I am not sure why, can someone confirm or deny this
 
11:43 AM
@MadSpaces yes, but they must be isolated points
e.g. z^2 is holomorphic and has derivative zero at 0
 
So what would this mean?
In analysis language.
 
what would what mean?
 
You can only have zero derivatives for none constant function if they are isolated?
 
that's the identity theorem
either f=0 identically or the set for which f=0 consists of isolated points
in particular then sin(1/z) whose zeros accumulate at 0 is not analytic
 
How many isolated points can you have, without breaking holomorphicity
 
11:47 AM
@CalvinKhor $$\text{int} A = \bigcup_{V_i \subseteq A, V_i \text{is open}} {V_i}$$
 
I got to go, but i will check back in thirty minutes or so
 
infinitely many. @MadSpaces take sin(z).
 
@CalvinKhor sorry I don't get what you mean
 
@automorp15m yes, but maybe you should explain precisely what the set U is in your "=>", and perhaps explain why rather than just saying 'by definition' in "<="
@automorp15m i mean the question seems like it is just trying to check you understand the definition. and maybe if you know how to write a proof
 
will elaborate it thanks
 
11:52 AM
Let X be a complete metric space and Y be a completion of X. What can be concluded from this information?
 
how do you complete a complete metric space and get something different?
 
I think: Y is also a complete metric space.
 
if words mean anything, then the completion of a metric space better be a complete metric space. In particular also if you started with a complete metric space
 
@CalvinKhor Since when do words mean anything?
 
@XanderHenderson uh oh.
 
12:00 PM
Definition: Y is said to be a completion of X if 1) there exists a isometry F from X to Y, 2) F(X) is dense in Y.
@CalvinKhor I think you mean using equivalence relation on Cauchy sequences.
 
sorry, gotta bounce! but yes
 
I don't yet know that completely :(
 
12:44 PM
@Koro Y=X
 
$\Bbb R^\infty\setminus\{p\}$ is homeomorphic to $\Bbb R^\infty$
The infinite product of lines is homeomorphic to itself minus a point
 
1:00 PM
@robjohn :-)
 
1:11 PM
@AkivaWeinberger from the statement alone I will bet that this is due to Jan van Mill
 
1:41 PM
@CalvinKhor By definition, $\displaystyle{ \text{int} A = \bigcup_{V_i \subseteq A, V_i \text{is open}} {V_i}}$. Now, suppose $x \in \text{int} A$. Then $x \in V, \exists V \subseteq \text{int} A$. Thus, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $x \in U \subseteq V \subseteq A$. Conversely, suppose that there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$, then $x \in \text{int} U \subseteq \text{int} A \Rightarrow x \in \text{int} A$.
kung naa cm nko dri pls laina lang ayaw kopya tanan lamats
is it correct now?
Problem:
Prove that $x \in \text{int} A$ iff there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$.


Attempt:

By definition, $\displaystyle{ \text{int} A = \bigcup_{V_i \subseteq A, V_i \text{is open}} {V_i}}$. Now, suppose $x \in \text{int} A$. Then $x \in V, \exists V \subseteq \text{int} A$. Thus, there exists an open neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $x \in U \subseteq V \subseteq A$. Conversely, suppose that there exists a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $U \subseteq A$, then $x \in \text{int} U \subseteq \text{int} A \Rightarrow x \in \text{int} A$.
or this part: Then $x \in V, \exists V \subseteq \text{int} A$.

should be Then $x \in V, \exists V \in \text{int} A$. right?
oh ignore that i think the above is already right
anyone?
 
2:17 PM
Hello everyone. I am self learning combinatorics by the book ' a walk through combinatorics', so, i frequently come across questions i cannot understand and there are no answers for them on stackexchange. Moreover, there are also questions that i am able to solve but when i try to check on stack exchange for that question, it isnt on the site.
Is it okay if i write those questions and then self answer them? or is it not allowed on the site ?
 
2:37 PM
Idea
Instead of writing "Lemma: the product of blahs are blah. Proof: Obvious" (which as we all know is bad pedagogy for using the word 'obvious'), simply write "Remark: the product of blahs are blah" without proof
@karnop Self-answering is allowed
Just check that box
Jeff Atwood on July 01, 2011
The FAQ has contained one key bit of advice from the very beginning: It’s also perfectly fine to ask and answer your own question, as long as you pretend you’re on Jeopardy! — phrase it in the form of a question. So … if you have a question that you already know the answer to…
 
Thanks dude
 
3:02 PM
anyone help me find the inverse of $(1-t)\exp(-tA)-tI$? for an invertible matrix $A$ and constant $t$, $I$ is the identity
sorry sign error- I meant to write $(1-t)\exp(-tA)+tI$
I can write it like this by factoring out a constant $(t-1)\big(\frac{t}{t-1}I-\exp(-tA)\big)$
and then calculating the inverse is calculating the resolvent $\big(\frac{t}{t-1}I-\exp(-tA)\big)^{-1}$ but im stuck
 
$\forall x \exists y \\
\exists y \forall x $

The first one means, there is idividual y to every x and the second one, one y for all x, right? or am i mixing up
 
@MadSpaces that is correct
 
thanks
 
The first could say to be more clear for each $x$ there exists a $y$ denoted $y_x$ or something liek that. but yeh you interpreted them correct.
 
3:17 PM
Is it just me or is this prose really dense
($Z$ is $\Bbb Z$)
A subpartition is a collection of disjoint sets. A simple subpartition is a collection of disjoint finite sets
Basically, if for each $i$, $A_i$ is an infinite family of disjoint subsets of $\Bbb Z$, then I can create an infinite family of disjoint sets $B$ made up of infinitely many elements of each $A_i$
*$A_i$ is an infinite family of disjoint finite subsets of $\Bbb Z$
 
4:02 PM
(The proof is basically just "there's nothing stopping you")
 
4:18 PM
@leslie Perhaps I missed the mention of lesliecoin in this.
@AkivaWeinberger I'd settle for horribly written, on various counts.
 
ted: all crypto is a scam except lesliecoin.
 
ted
i am having a little fight with my tutor
Would you like to tell me what you think before i go ape nuts on him
its about writing a complex $ z = x+iy$ i have always, being the autistic rigorious dude i am, wrote the isomorphy on top of the equality sign, since the way i understood it, its a notation agreed upon using the isomorphy between the complex and 2d Reals.
He keeps telling me not to do it, since and i quote " Z is actually x +iy"
Whos right.
 
4:34 PM
mm, i wouldn't get too caught up in the details of formalism. e.g. whether R "actually is" a subset of C or simply isomorphic to one. but in most constructions of C from R^2, you would have literal equality in z = x + iy due to the way that + and complex multiplication (i*y) is defined
e.g. if C is elements of R^2 with componentwise addition and a funny multiplication, it's expressing (x,y) = (x,0) + (0,1)(y,0) as a literal equality of ordered pairs of reals.
 
yes, but the way you wrote them, are vectors.
when you write z = x + i y you are implying real scalars
thats literally the isomorphy is it not
And people would really go on and write x ,y elements of the reals....
 
i don't see the vector/scalar distinction as very informative here. in this view, "x + iy" is just notation for (x,0)+(0,1)(y,0). you're identifying the real number x with (x,0), but this is not a distinction worth preserving in notation.
yes, implicitly x and y are real in the above. otherwise x might not be "(x,0)"
 
What happens when you start diving with i x and y?
No vector division is defined, arent you using the isomorphy
 
again, i don't think it's helpful to think of ordered pairs of reals as 'vectors' in this setting, for example, because you do have a notion of dividing by them when they are nonzero.
 
I am talking from a point of view of Rigor. not "helpful", in sense of Linear algebra
 
4:41 PM
from the point of view of rigor, then, if you want to think of complex numbers as vectors, you do have a defined notion of 'vector division.'
i don't think it's helpful to think of it that way, but it exists as a concept.
 
@AkivaWeinberger oof
 
Leslie.
even with that, then your + and * are not the same on the reals.
 
believe it or not, I think bitcoin is here to stay
and once it weathers the storm, it gains an immortal status
 
this is obvious notational abuse, which is why stating the isomorphy is essential
an when you literally say "identify (x,o) with x" thats LITERALLY the isomorphy
"autistic happiness screeching in my heart"
 
if you want to notationally preserve all of those distinctions you are welcome to do so. i don't think it helps and i don't think it really aids in 'rigor,' whatever that means.
 
4:51 PM
Leslie, say it.
I am.. Right
 
indeed, outside of the cauchy-riemann equations, i can't think of a beginning topic in complex analysis that is made easier by thinking of complex numbers as pairs of real numbers. it's better if they are first class citizens and numbers in their own right.
 
Yes but no one is talking about the aspect of helpfullness, i am talking pure riogor. I know they are helpful.
 
would you write integers as equivalence classes of ordered pairs of natural numbers? if not, why not?
 
No thats not the point i am making.
you are right its not helpful
But i will not accept the statement " writing z = x+iy " does not use the isomorphy and are the same, thats bullocks
 
it's just my original point. if you think of x and y in that expression as the complex numbers x and y (that just happen to have zero imaginary part), it makes literal sense. like you wouldn't nationally distinguish between real 0 and complex 0.
unless you would. i don't know.
 
4:55 PM
You would. a complex zero is literally a vector
 
and again, i wouldn't distinguish between real 0 and rational 0 or integer 0, but you're certainly welcome to do so.
 
You are completly missing the point of my argument and reverting to your argument about helpfullness
 
wait @MadSpaces why would you do that? how does that help you?
yes its the 0 vector. so what?
 
Whether to distinguish between the integer 0 and real 0 and rational 0 etc is one of those things that computer scientists and mathematicians tend to disagree on
 
you're saying that 'rigor' demands that you preserve this distinction and i guess i'm wondering why it starts at complex numbers and not sooner.
 
4:58 PM
I think computer scientists are more used to typed systems than mathematicians are
(unless those mathematicians happen to be type theorists, I suppose)
 
it's a choice about where to start. i think if you're gonna do complex analysis you should think of complex numbers like any other kind of numbers, and not something constructed out of lower-level data. but that's just my opinion.
 
In any case, it never really matters all that much
 
yes, @AkivaWeinberger is on the money
 
@MadSpaces He is right.
 
it's only technically true that theyre not the same
 

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