I have an issue understanding this.
https://math.berkeley.edu/~vvdatar/m185f16/notes/Lecture-19_Zeroes.pdf
Proof of Theorem 0.1. he says, if f is not identically zero, there exists a point (according to the lemma) there exists a point at which the derivatives until some index equals zero.. the previous lemma only states, if a function has such point to all indexes equal to zero then the function is zero. my problem is, how does he even guarantee the existence of such point?!