@TedShifrin, after watching lecture 2 I think I know how to solve q1A-13 in this pset, so i take back all that stuff last week about lectures being a wasre of time
My solution prior to watching the lecture was purely pictoral, i drew the vectorz and concluded they produce the same triangle. Now i think using the strategy of explicitly referencing vectors from origin I can say why that is so (but cant say more now because i need to get back to work)
I'm currently seeing differential geometry, data structures (as in computer science) and grad linear algebra. I also would like to start measure theory by myself and algebra (with aluffi's algebra 0 which teaches with cat theory). Should I forget about MT and algebra by now?
@Tangoed I think it depends on the person but I think there may be a general tendency to try to do too much. I fell into this trap in undergrad. I took a lot of upper level math classes at once and I didn't learn them as well as I needed to and I've been going back and filling in ever since. I just wish I had slowed down a little and really learnt the stuff well the first time. But that's just me.
@Quin I feel like I have a lot of thing to learn, I can't lose anymore time!! I've found Rieffel's notes on measure theory very interesting to self-learn
@TedShifrin first year master's/grad, or advanced undergrad not sure
do Carmo M., Differential Geometry of Curves and Surfaces Duistermaat J. J., Kolk J. A. C., Lie Groups Lee J., Introduction to Smooth Manifolds Spivak M., Calculus on Manifolds Wolf, Spaces of constant curvature
rieffel's notes on measure theory are interesting. almost any approach to measure theory involves a good number of arbitrary choices. i think of it as more of a vibe or a perspective than a body of theorems, although obviously there are some core ones.
it seems like a strange place to start if only because measure theory isn't a preliminary to a lot of other stuff. you can do so much useful integration without it.
before you begin going crazy with measure theory or even constructing haar measure on locally compact groups it is helpful to have a rich familiarity with a body of examples that that theory intends to abstract from.
@TedShifrin When I asked him if I could audit the course he only sent me to his notes and asked if I felt ok with it. It's a first year master's course, and obvsly they expect undergrad knowledge
Anyway, thanks @TedShifrin @leslietownes and @Quin, I have this year to prepare myself as best as I can, so I may be panicking a little
oh that one...I binned it because I thought you were being sarcastic as in "good, don't think in that direction and go back to analyzing the first example"
oooh... I think I may have what you mean Ted, so the interior of $\overline{(0,1) \cup (1,3)}$ is $(0,3)$, that is because of the definitions of interior point being satisfied, but $1$ is not in $S$ itself, but is a frontier point.
examples, examples, examples.........I also read this in '"How to think mathematically"..........."specialize your conjectures with concrete examples, then worry about generalizing to proof"
well you answered my next question with regards to these ruts
I have to live what I preach "Always be open minded and experiment"
looks like I have to get better at it in practice in this environment
One of my issues I've found is I have a "fear/hesitancy" to manipulate/reconstruct certain objects. So for instance I was really hesitant of using $(0,1) \cup (1,3)$ because it wasn't the same thing I started with, i.e $(0,1) \cup (2,3)$ and was different
I'll take the lesson to heed about novel approaches though Ted...
@TedShifrin I worked on the question a little more this evening, I still havent solved the second part (and your hint has given me more than enough to work with), but feel like the first part is a way better argument now that the one I came up with before watching your lecture!
https://gofile.io/d/jdrdSC
(for reference my first attempt to answer the same question 2 months ago: https://gofile.io/d/B2OklM)
Vectors are arrows with no fixed location, so In the first part I can think of the vectors as originating at the verticies, OR I can think of them coming from an arbitrary point in space, wherever they are they sum to 0. So if I rotate them all 90degrees they still all sum to 0
I see that u1 + u3 = u2 from the second Kirchhoff's law, but in the textbook is not mentioned. And I do not see any other way how to get u1 + u3 = u2. Do you?
I am not sure, so for that reason I search for other derivation. But what I remember from the old studies at high school, that it is something like that if I go through the "circle", then the sum of voltages on resistances is equal to 0.
Thus, in this case u1 + u3 - u2 = 0, which is equivalent to u1 + u3 = u2.
@Kapur It's something like that. You might be right that the book isn't too accurate by saying you only need Kirchoff and Ohm's laws. But it doesn't really matter in the end
if $\phi_i$ is regular at $P$, then we have $\phi_i=f_i/g_i$ where $g_i(P)\neq 0$
and likewise $g\phi_i=f_i'/g_i'$ for some $g_i'(P)\neq 0$
if we write $g=r/s$
then we have: $rf_i/(sg_i)=f_i'/g_i'$
so $rg_i'f_i=sg_if_i'$
so that's getting close to what I want to show
I don't know if I can factor out stuff
I'm a bit unsure in this multivariate case
I think the following could maybe help (if this is correct):
if we have $f/g$ where $f(P)=0$ and $g(P)=0$, then we can factor out enough so that we get some $f'/g'$, where either $f'(P)\neq 0$ or $g'(P)\neq 0$, and $f/g=f'/g'$
I would think this is allowed, because we can always factor out roots, right? and so you keep doing this until you get the fraction you want
If a vector field $b(t,x):\mathbb{R}^+ \times \mathbb{R}^d \to \mathbb{R}^d $ to preserves a measure $\mu$? Say the lebesgue measure, then what does this say about the Jacobian of b(t,\cdot) ?
Is it always true that for a rational function $f/g$ and a point $P$, either $f/g$ or $g/f$ is defined at $P$? I would think it is, but I don't know how to show it. In the case of smooth points on curves, I can work with the order at $P$, and then the proof is simple - but is it also true in general? (and why?)
In measure theory, a discipline within mathematics, a pushforward measure (also push forward, push-forward or image measure) is obtained by transferring ("pushing forward") a measure from one measurable space to another using a measurable function.
== Definition ==
Given measurable spaces
(
X
1
,
Σ
1
)
{\displaystyle (X_{1},\Sigma _{1})}
and
(
X
2...
just wondering what happens to the density of the push forward
is it true that if $X$ is a CW complex and $Y \subset X$ is a subcomplex such that $X \setminus Y$ only contains cells of dimension at least $n$ then $Y$ contains $X^{n-1}$ , and therefore $Y^{n-1} = X^{n-1}$?
@Monty: Do you know that the divergence theorem tells you that the rate of change of the volume of a region as you flow by a vector field is the integral of divergence over the region?
It's quite intuitive, because the change of volume will be given by the flux of the vector field across the boundary, and by the divergence theorem this is in turn the integral of divergence over the inside.
(This is proved quite rigorously in the last section of my multivariable math book, but it is a classic result.)
It is very intuitive that divergence free vector field preserves lebesgue measure
since divergence free means I can take any small set and the mass flow in is equal to the mass flow out, and since the lebesgue measure has "distributed mass evenly" then the total change will be zero
or is this intuition bad?
silly question given any vector field will there always exist some distribution which is preserved under the flow of that vector field ?
@porridgemathematics if you click on the downarrow that appears to the left of the text of the comment, there is a link to a "permalink". I used that link in a [this question](<link address>) reference.
I suppose your definition of a "null set" is a set $A\subseteq\mathbb R$ such that, given any $\varepsilon\gt0,$ we can find a sequence $\{I_n\}$ of open intervals such that $A\subseteq\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty I_n$ and $\sum_{n=1}^\infty|I_n|\lt\varepsilon$ where $|I_n|$ is the length of $I_n.$
Assu...
where did his idea of the characteristic functions come from?
@Astyx do you have time for one more thing? ;o basically I had two definitions, and you helped me with well-definedness of one, and I finally proved well-definedness of the other, and now I want to show that they are 'equivalent', and I'm only lacking one direction ;x
I want to show now that if I start with a rational map $\phi=[\phi_0,\dots,\phi_n]$, where $\phi_i$ are rational, then by the procedure they describe, I will get an 'equivalent' rational map
Let $\phi$ be as in the first definition, and $\Phi$ as in the second one (where we've cleared denominators)
I've already shown that on each point $P$ where $\phi$ is regular, $\phi$ and $\Phi$ coincide
I want to show now that if $\Phi$ is regular at some $P$, then $\phi$ is regular there too, and the values coincide
if I write: $\phi_i=f_i/g_i$ for each $i$
then $\Phi_j=\prod_{i\neq j} g_i f_j$
since $\Phi$ is regular at $P$, we have some poly's $h_i$ s.t. $H=[h_0,\dots,h_n]$ and $h_i\Phi_j=h_j\Phi_i$
assume $h_i(P)\neq 0$
then I would have to multiply $\phi$ by some rational function
so that things work out
hm, I see a mistake I made now... I was multiplying each component $i$ in $\phi$ by $h_i/h_j$, but that's wrong, because then for each component I get a different rational function that I multiply by
hmm, I guess my question is:
would you know what rational function $r$ to choose to multiply $\phi$ with, such that $r\phi(P)$ would be regular (and equal to $\Phi(P)$)
My problem right now seems to be that I don't know which non-vanishing function to choose. Maybe I could pick $X_k^d/h_j$ for some $k$ s.t. the $k$-th coordinate of $P$ doesn't vanish, and $d$ = degree of $h_j$