if you are serious about wanting to up your geometric intuition
not the big book, the little book
I honestly can't think without a picture in my head. Symbols are too hard for me. Maybe that's bad who knows, but my point is I don't understand the full calculations perspective
why can you guarantee convergence? does the compact set necessarily possess a compact neighborhood in which the sequences eventually lie so you can pass to a convergent subsequence?
Say $(X, d)$ is a nice metric space, consider for any $x, y, z$ the quantity $b(x, y, z) = d(x, z) - d(x, y)$, the difference between the distance from $x$ to $z$ and $x$ to $y$
Let $C(X)$ be the space of continuous functions on $X$, you have a natural map $b_y : X \to C(X)$, $b_y(x) = b(x, y, -)$. $b_y(z)$ is indeed continuous by triangle inequality (in fact Lipschitz) and $b_y$ itself is a continuous function by triangle inequality again. You can also check it's an embedding
I'm confused by something which is likely extremely stupid. I have a function $f:\Bbb N\to\Bbb N$ (it is the growth function of a group but that is irrelevant). What's the difference between there exist constants $c,d$ such that $f(n)\leq cn^d$ for all $n>0$ vs for infinitely many $n>0$ and which one is polynomial growth
@KonformistLiberal For every space $X$ there's a CW complex which is weak homotopy equivalent to $X$, by CW-approximation. There's no CW complex homotopy equivalent to the Cantor set
virtually nilpotent groups have scaling limits which converge to nilpotent Lie groups by Pansu's observation, and from that you can deduce it means they have polynomial growth
I was telling Thorgott why $d\omega(X, Y) = X \omega(Y) - Y \omega(X) - \omega([X, Y])$ follows from Stokes' theorem on an infinitisimal flow pentagon given by $X, Y, X^{-1}, Y^{-1}, [X, Y]$
$\omega$ being the connection form is irrelevant here
I always find it easier to work with the vector bundle induced by a linear representation of the structure group. I believe this theorem is a consequence of the following loop formula (a terse proof can be found in Holonomy Equals Curvature):
If
\begin{align*}
M &= \text{smooth manifold}\\...
@Thorgott Call the pentagon given by $\varepsilon$-flows of $X$ and $Y$ to be $P_{\varepsilon}$. Then $d\omega(X, Y) = \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0} \frac{1}{\text{Area}(P_\varepsilon)} \int_{P_\varepsilon} d\omega$, agree?
yeah, negative sign is missing, but coefficient is fine
if you flow $X,Y,-X,-Y$ for $\varepsilon$ time, there is no missing edge up to first order and it's $-1/2[X,Y]$ in second order, whereas if you flow $X,Y,-X,-Y$ for $\sqrt{\varepsilon}$ time, you get $-[X,Y]$ up to first order
this is the second picture after substituting $\varepsilon\mapsto\varepsilon^2$
There's nothing special about $d\omega$, just take any 2-form on $\Bbb R^2$, $f dx\wedge dy$. Write it out, and notice that only the linearized vector fields $\hat{X} = \sum X(p)^i \partial_i$, $\hat{Y} = \sum Y(p)^i \partial_i$ matters.
Maybe you do need 1st order terms, I haven't thought about it. Because you're dividing by area. Higher order terms in the vector field gives $O(\varepsilon^3)$ terms, which cancel with $O(\varepsilon^2)$ term in the denominator.
I thought about giving the example later, but I already started the elaborate explanation of why $\Omega^1_2$ obviously measures holonomy around the flow pentagon, so.
Off-topic: What would be a random Riemannian metric on a manifold? The space of Riemannian metrics is the positive cone on $T^*M \otimes T^*M$; equip a fiberwise Gaussian measure?
In the mathematical field of probability, the Wiener sausage is a neighborhood of the trace of a Brownian motion up to a time t, given by taking all points within a fixed distance of Brownian motion. It can be visualized as a sausage of fixed radius whose centerline is Brownian motion. The Wiener sausage was named after Norbert Wiener by M. D. Donsker and S. R. Srinivasa Varadhan (1975) because of its relation to the Wiener process; the name is also a pun on Vienna sausage, as "Wiener" is German for "Viennese".
The Wiener sausage is one of the simplest non-Markovian functionals of Brownian motion...
jsyk Mike, instead of doing what you asked, I'm just going to cheat by looking up what cobordism groups are and copy-pasting a proof of the result you said
@MikeMiller But wait doesn't Thom-Pontryagin say $\Omega^{SO}_*(pt) \cong \pi_*(MSO)$, and rational homotopy groups of $MSO$ are rational homology groups of $MSO$ by Sullivan theory i.e., $H_*(BSO; \Bbb Q)$ which is generated by Pontryagin classes
Impossible man you're just trying to paint Thom black
I can't believe it
Wow actually it's all rational homotopy theory, $H_\ast(BSO; \Bbb Q) \cong U(\pi_*(BSO) \otimes \Bbb Q)$ and $\pi_\ast(BSO) \cong \pi_{\ast-1}(\Omega BSO) \cong \pi_{\ast-1}(SO)$ which has rational homotopy $\Bbb Q$ in $4k$ degrees by google and Bott periodicity
I don't even need to know what Pontryagin classes are
Sullivan, my savior
To Gromov, Thurston and Sullivan I pray, every day