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12:01 AM
What's the question, @T_01?
 
Well, ask, do'nt ask to ask. Happy that you are here. I will write down the question
Let $F: \Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^3$ with $\text{curl} F = 0$, and $\varphi: \Omega \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^3, x \mapsto \int_0^1 <F(tx),x> dt$. I have to show that then $F = \nabla \varphi$
We did not have any advanced integration theorems, I only know that I can put the partial derivatives into the integral because F is continuos differentiable (forgot to mention that)
 
Yes, this has been answered (including by me) several times on main.
 
Okay, I'm sorry. Then i will search for that question!
 
You will differentiate and use the curl 0 condition to change so that it works out perfectly with integration by parts.
Where are you stuck?
So you write down $\partial\phi/\partial x_1$. What do you get?
 
It takes so long to type the latex.
 
12:11 AM
You should get the sum of two integrals.
 
I will take an image of one of my ideas
I had something like this a few sheets of papers ago
 
Blue pen on dark checked paper is horrible.
Let me try.
 
I'm sorry :D
Well I get a sum of three integrals
and the derivative of that, which I put into the integrals...
 
You have a confusion with indices. Let's just be explicit and do $x_1$.
 
Okay, I try that again.
 
12:14 AM
So one term will come from differentiating $x_1$, and other will come from differentiating $F_k(tx)$ with respect to $x_1$.
So, yeah, you get several terms like that.
 
So I get something like this
deriv_{x_1} $\int_0^1 F_1(tx) * x_1 dt + \int_0^1 F_2(tx) * x_2 dt + \int_0^1 F_3(tx) * x_3 dt$
 
No *s please
Yes. So the first term gives two terms, and the others give one each.
 
The second and third gives
$\int_0^1 \partial_{x_1} F_1(tx)x_i dt$
 
No, $\partial F_i/\partial x_1$.
Now you use the curl condition.
 
Oh. Indeed, I am messing things up
So because of zero curl this is equal to $(\partial F_1(tx) / \partial x_i) x_i$
 
12:20 AM
OK. So you have three terms like that plus one extra term from the first integral.
 
Okay give me a minute, I write it down. Maybe I am now able to do it...
 
Cool.
 
I have really no Idea how I can spend hours on such problems and don't manage to get even the easiest steps
[\int_0^1] oh, no big latex here?
 
I think you got lost in indices. My suggestion is to do it in $\Bbb R^2$ and just write out the terms carefully.
use dollar signs
single dollar sign for in-line, double dollar sign for display
 
Oh, okay. Thanks
So this should be correct, is it?
$$\int_0^1 F_1(tx) dt + \Sigma_{x=1}^3 \int_0^1 (\partial F_1(tx) / \partial x_i ) x_i dt$$
 
12:28 AM
Yes, this is correct.
Now switch the integral and the sum on the right, and recognize what that is.
 
i might be completely on the false track, but isn't it $< \nabla F(tx), x>$ in the integral?
 
You mean $F_1$. Yes. But you're integrating with respect to $t$, so that suggests something you might be looking for.
 
Ah, yes, $F_1$.
wait a second this is a part of $\varphi$
no it is $\varphi$
 
No.
 
at least a part of it?
 
12:33 AM
No, you've got a gradient of $F_1$ dotted with $x$. Nothing to do with $\phi$.
 
well I meant the integral over that. But yes, we have this gradient thing. Somehow, I still do'nt see how does this help me with integrating with respect to $t$.
I already see the moment coming where I will bang my head on the desk
 
Hi! After having Eilenberg-Maclane spaces, can I just have product of them to build a space for any homotopy type?
 
What would you love to have in order to integrate $dt$?
Finitely many, you mean, Konform?
 
maybe the derivative of something with respect to t :D or at least something "concrete" where I can grab the $t$
 
Yes, the derivative of something with respect to $t$.
 
12:37 AM
@TedShifrin Hmm so infinite product doesn't preserve the homotopy groups? Is there a systematic way to create a space for any homotopy type using Eilenberg-Maclane spaces?
 
I haven't thought about this in decades, Konform. Talk to the topology folks.
 
It feels embarassing, but I still do'nt see how to integrate this. Should I quit mathematics? :(
 
You aren't recognizing a fundamental formula from derivatives.
 
This
$$ \int_0^1 <\nabla F_1(tx), x> dt $$
is what we are looking at, right?
wait can I apply the chain rule backwards or something
 
LOL, yes, it's the chain rule.
 
12:54 AM
@KonformistLiberal I mean, it's called a product because it satisfies the universal property of a product. Maps into a product are the same as a choice of map to each factor. Apply this to pointed maps from X (or from X x I) to see that [X, prod_j Z_j] = prod_j [X, Z_j] for any index set J. In particular the homotopy groups of a product are a product of homotopy groups.
 
does $<\nabla F_1(tx), x> = \frac{d}{dt} F_1(tx)$ hold?
 
Oh, but you did mess up earlier, and I didn't pay attention, @T_01.
Yes, @T_01, but there was something wrong when you differentiated. You forgot the chain rule there.
 
where did I differentiate?
 
At the very beginning. You have $\partial/\partial x_1 \,F_i(tx)$.
 
you mean without the $x_i$ factor?
 
12:56 AM
Yes, the $x_i$ is there, too. But what is this partial derivative?
 
I forgot to multiply with $t$ i guess
 
Yup. Now it will all work perfectly.
 
would you believe that universities in germany are giving people like me degrees?
 
Stop whining :P
 
Thank you so much. Somehow I struggle more with analysis than I should
Do you have any general advice on how to survive the third of these courses, too? :D
 
12:58 AM
I don't know if you've tried, but some of my YouTube lectures might help you.
 
Did not know that you do are creating youtube content. this sounds great
 
112 lectures on linear algebra and multivariable calculus/analysis ...
 
+1 sub
 
LOL, yes.
The video messed up.
 
What do you mean?
 
1:50 AM
@Knight good morning, sorry I had to leave. I tracked down your book and I found out why the authors gave you this proof. This is because in the definition of L(f,P) and U(f,P), the infs and sups are over the closed intervals. This means that if you use the partition P from the step function f, $L(f,P) \neq U(f,P)$. You should verify this is the case with e.g. $$ f:[0,1]\to\mathbb R, \quad f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & x < 1/2 \\ -15 & x=1/2 \\ 0 & x > 1/2 \end{cases}$$ which is a step function
i strongly suspect using the upper/lower sums with sups/infs over open intervals will give the same result for many sufficiently nice functions but I havent given it too much thought
 
 
1 hour later…
3:13 AM
0
Q: self-complimentary graph and cut vertex

beta_me me_betaI have difficulty understanding this 'let v be a cut-vertex in a self-complementary graph G . The graph G' − v has a spanning biclique, meaning a complete bipartite subgraph that contains all its vertices.' I narrowed down my argument to following : v be a cut vertex in the self-complimentary gra...

Can someone look over thsi question
*this
 
3:39 AM
@CalvinKhor Oh Kay! I have understood that now.
(Given your sleep time I want to know if you’re an Asian?)
 
yup lol
 
Would you mind telling me your country?
As a friend, you can easily put my request to Trash :-), it’s just a curiosity
 
Malaysia
where you at?
 
US
 
cool :)
 
3:49 AM
So, can you explain how the author came up with that inequality?
 
so you mean the rest of the proof?
 
Yes, I agree with your explanation that we cannot use partition $P^{\ast}$ for calculating the upper and lower sums because of closed and open interval issues
So, how do we go on for proving the integrability of step functions?
 
looking at an arbitrary partition, it should be clear that there are two cases to consider when trying to estimate each term in the sum that makes up U(f,P)-L(f,P)
 
First of all tell me why the author has never said explicitly that $f$ will not take infinite values (or undetermined value) at end points $z_0, z_1 , \cdots z_k$?
 
if the function is constant on $[x_{i-1},x_i]$, then this summand is the same for U and for L, so this summand is actually 0
 
3:56 AM
Yes
 
lemme check the book
 
You downloaded it?
 
yup lol
 
:)
 
they did say it cant take infinite values because they said its a function $[a,b]\to{\Huge\mathbb R}$
the values at the endpoints can be whatever, as long as it fits the definition I thought a textbook would stress this possible point of confusion (my lecturer did) but oh well
 
4:00 AM
Okay
 
I can't reply to my own message lol. but anyway you have those where the summands are 0, and you have some others where they aren't. Here you instead use that the gap of the paritition is small, so that this summand in U(f,P) - L(f,P) is small
 
How can be derive that inequality? I couldn’t understand what crossing index was
 
do you get what I said above? I was trying to draw a picture with words lol not so easy
 
Lol
 
4:15 AM
This is a graph of a step function in black, with some random partition $P$ which I drew in yellow
its more or less the same step function I defined earlier, I just changed -15 to something easier to graph
when you compute U(f,P) or L(f,P), you will add up a bunch of terms. Most of these terms are the same for both U and L. In this case, with this exact choice of partition, there's one summand that is different
that term is the term that causes U(f,P) ≠ L(f,P), and it is the reason for defining this "crossing index"
@Knight can you follow?
 
Yes
I can see that not for some closed intervals $M_i\neq m_i$
 
ok great, then the rest of the proof is just working out the details about how to track these kinds of terms and make sure that the terms -> 0 fast enough
the crossing index is the observation that, for this term where $M_i \neq m_i$, you must have had one of the points in $P*$ (not $P$) in the closed interval $[x_{i-1},x_i]$
maybe there's more than one point of $P^*$, but at least one
 
4:31 AM
I couldn’t understand the definition of crossing index and that line “each partition point of $P^{\ast}$ can belong to at most two partition intervals of $P$”
Can you please explain these two things?
 
the above is hopefully explaining the definition of crossing index
in the picture $P^*$ would consist of only 3 points, 0 ,1/2, and 1
 
Okay, $P^{\ast}$ consists of only three points then?
 
yeah
well you could pick other refinements of P* but lets stick with three points
so in the notation of the book $k=2$. For this yellow partition, there are 5 partition points, so $n=4$
 
@Knight,@CalvinKhor, hi!
 
@Arjun yo
 
4:42 AM
@Knight, i recommend you to this book,books.google.co.in/books/about/…
about maths
 
@CalvinKhor yes
5 partition points
 
writing $P = \{x_0,x_1,x_2,x_3,x_4\}$ where $x_i$ is in increasing order, we see that $0\in[x_0,x_1], 1/2 \in [x_1,x_2],$ and $1\in[x_3,x_4]$
so the set of crossing indices is $\mathcal C = \{1,2,4\}$
 
Okay
 
does this example make the crossing index definition clearer
its just a way to track intervals where elements of $P^*$ appear
 
Yes
 
4:47 AM
these are important because they are the points where $f$ can change, and if $f$ is not constant, then it contributes to $U\neq L$
 
And what about this statement “each partition point of $P^{\ast}$ can belong to at most two partition intervals of P”
 
so in my example, each partition point of $P^*$ belongs to only 1 partition interval of $P$
which I guess partition interval means the closed interval defined by consecutive partition points
Can you find a partition where 1/2 belongs to more than one partition interval
 
Yes.
 
and it can never belong to more than 2
so at most 2
 
$P=\{ 0, ,1/4, 1/2, 3/4 , 1\}$
 
4:50 AM
yup
 
Thank you so much Calvin
 
glad to help!
 
You are very friendly and knowledgeable
 
nice to hear :)
gonna make lunch, ping if theres anything
 
Have a good lunch :-)
 
4:53 AM
thanks!
 
 
3 hours later…
7:33 AM
Lunch done, Calvin?
 
7:46 AM
@Knight yup
shouldnt you be/have been asleep lol @Knight
 
8:36 AM
@CalvinKhor I’m back
As you said that step function can take arbitrary large values at end points of sub intervals of $P^{\ast}= \{z_0, z_1, z_2 \cdots z_k\}$ then how can we have a $M \gt 0$ such that $$-M \lt f(x) \lt M$$ ??
 
8:51 AM
@Knight thats OK because the M depends on the step function
each step function can be arbitrarily big, but a step function's image is finite
a finite set has a maximum and a minimum
 
9:05 AM
@CalvinKhor Didn’t get that? A step function can be arbitrarily big but it’s image is finite? Doesn’t it’s image at end points gonna be infinite (if we allow that)
 
9:21 AM
no
give me any step function, and I'll give you an M st |f|<M
once you see this M, you can go, aha, now I have a worse step function
but thats allowed, I'll just change the M
like the above explicit example, i could choose M=200
 
A step function can not be arbitrarily big
You can find arbitrarily big step functions (plural)
 
Is the A in italics cuz its not so prevalent. But yes that is the emphasis
 
But each single one is bounded
 
mmm i did say each step function can be arbitrarily big. I should have said what you said. Step functions can be arbitrarily big
 
I need a proper clarification, I’m not a very smart student like @LeakyNun :-)
(I’m tight)
 
9:26 AM
A step function defined by $N$ partition points can take how many values?
 
$N$
 
no
there's N-1 intervals, and then the N partition points, thats 2N-1
 
Yeah
No we have N+1 points
 
well you either have the N points which you label up to the $(n-1)$th, or $N+1$ points and you label until the $n$th, since your book's lists begin with 0
but OK, either way, you have at most, 2N+5 points. that's a finite set of real values.
 
Yes
 
9:30 AM
Hi all, quick question: Say, you have an iterative algorithm. So, for example $t = 0, 1,...:$ 1. Set $a_t = f(a_{t-1})$ (where f is some function dependant on $a_{t-1}$) and 2. Set $b_t = g(b_{t-1}, a_t)$ (where g is some function dependant on $b_{t-1}$ and $a_t$. Now, if you want to talk about the {b_t}, what would you call them? I've seen them be called "the iterates {b_t}$ but I think that may be wrong.
If you happen to know, what they're called in German that'd be even better (I got stuck because I wanted to translate a sentence into German and the word iterates seemed wrong after a google search)
 
How $2N+5$ ? 5?
 
I just chose a number big enough so that ≤2N+5 is correct. If you don't like it then you can make it 2N+100. finite is all that matters
 
In case it helps to clarify what I mean about talking about the {b_t}: In the particular text I was looking at, it talked about how "the AMP iterates $b_t$ converge to the MLE" where AMP is an iterative algorithm
 
this finite list of numbers lets say $L$ has a maximum and a minimum. Take the largest in absolute value, and call this absolute value $M$. then $|v| \le M$ for each $v\in L$. But for each $x$, $f(x)$ always belongs to this list $L$. so $|f(x)|\le M$.
@MathStudent that sounds like something that either doesn't have a catchy name, or would only have context-specific names. iterates? updates? just "the sequence $b_t$"? these sound fine to me...
@Knight If you want to be precise, you should have gotten at most 2N+1 values for N+1 points. But if you take at most 2N+1 points, you also take at most 2N+1000....I like to "give myself some room" if its available, sorry if that's confusing
 
@CalvinKhor ah yeah, the latter two are simple known names that I couldn't think of, thanks! Btw, with them I also just found a book calling them "the iterates (i.e., the sequence of updates) ".
 
9:49 AM
i think something like that is called updating if you're doing kalman filters @MathStudent
 
@CalvinKhor let’s agree that we have $2N+1$ values of $f$. Then my question is what ascertain that $f$ is bounded?
 
if I give you 2N+1 numbers $a_0,\dots,a_{2N}$, can you find a number that's bigger?
 
Hmm... but who’s to claim that none of $a_0, a_1, \cdots a_{2N}$ is infinity?
 
the fact that $f:[a,b]\to{\Huge \mathbb R}$
 
Okay! Means if ever it is written that $$ f : [a,b] \mapsto {\Huge \color{blue}{\mathbb R}}$$ then $f$ is always bounded?
 
9:59 AM
Is there a cw-complex for every homotopy type?
 
No, $f$ can have arbitrarily large values, but all of them are Real Numbers, so infinity is not part of the game
 
Okay
 
for example $f:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$ defined by $f(x) = \begin{cases} 0 & x=0 \\ 1/x & x\neq 0 \end{cases}$
 
Okay
 
in the special case of a step function, being a map $f:[a,b]\to \mathbb R$ automatically means that its bounded, because its image is finite, and a finite set is a bounded set
but the example above shows that this isnt true for all functions
 
10:05 AM
How can we write $f(x) = 1/x$ in that mapping form of domain and range ?
 
the domain cannot contain 0
strictly speaking, the definition of the function comes with the domain and range, but one answer to your question could be domain $\mathbb R\setminus \{0\}$ and range $\mathbb R\setminus \{0\}$
 
Okay I agree
So, we got an $M\geq 0$ such that $$ -M \leq f(x) \leq M$$
That means for any sub interval $[x_{i-1}, x_i]$ we have $$ | M_i| \leq M \\ |m_i| \leq M$$ right?
 
yyyyup
 
How can we obtain $$M_i -m_i \leq 2M$$ ?
 
triangle inequality
 
10:17 AM
I don’t know about that
Is there any other way?
 
alternatively/equivalently note that saying $|a|\le b$ means that both $a\le b$ and $-a\le b$
so $M_i \le M$ and $-m_i \le M$
 
You can't tell me that you don't know the triangle inequality
 
since hopefully you have proven already that ($A\le B$ and $C\le D$ implies $A+C\le B+D$) is true, this implies the result
also yes you should probably learn the triangle inequality lol
 
@Thorgott Why ? Is that something very obvious?
 
i will say it wasnt obvious the first time i saw it. but its used over and over and over again, so its worth burning into your memory
 
10:20 AM
Oh okay! I didn’t know it’s name. I always say “sum of two sides of triangle is greater than the third side”
I almost never used the term “triangle inequality”, and I learned this fact in 7th Grade
Oh gosh! I made myself a joker
 
lol turns out im the one with the dunce cap, being shown up by 7th graders
i spent days trying to prove the triangle inequality lmao
 
I'd say when put in terms of triangles, it actually is obvious
Intuitively, I mean
You definitely ought to know this inequality, because it is used in proving much more fundamental facts in real analysis than anything in integration theory
For example you use it to prove that if $\lim a_n=a$ and $\lim b_n=b$, then $\lim a_n+b_n=a+b$
 
oh its blindingly obvious...but it was hard for at least one uninitiated person to translate it into symbols (past me)
 
So, how can we get $M_i -m_i \leq 2M$ from triangle inequality?
 
u wanna give it a go or shall i tell you
builds character
 
10:24 AM
@Thorgott That’s a good advice for future, I shall surely follow it.
@CalvinKhor Let me try
 
:P oki
 
$$ -M \leq M_i \leq M \\ -M \leq m_i \leq M$$
Am I correct this far?
 
yes
though im not sure this leads to an answer via triangle inequality, this can lead to the answer
FYI triangle inequality in the form most useful for you right now: If $a,b$ are real numbers, then $|a-b|\le |a| + |b|$
 
Yeah, translating anything into symbols is hard when you're uninitiated
 
Considering only this $$M_i \leq M \\ -M_m_i$$ and now using the practical rule we have $$ M_i -m_i \leq 2M$$
 
10:28 AM
It's kind of hard everytime anew when you learn new symbols
 
Considering only this $$M_i \leq M \\ -M\leq m_ii$$ and now using the practical rule we have $$ M_i -m_i \leq 2M$$
 
Which is why it's good to keep intuition in mind to not lose track of what one is doing
 
yup, thats it
 
Thanks Calvin
 
Now that you have one proof, I'll give you the triangle inequality proof...$$ M_i - m_i = |M_i - m_i| \overset{\star}\le |M_i| + |m_i| \le 2M$$
and the inequality step marked with a $\star$ is of course where the triangle inequality in the above form is used
 
10:31 AM
Wow
 
@Thorgott I've only recently started to step away from "everything needs to be formalised before I call it a proof". this is something I 'knew', but now its something I 'believe', if that makes any sense
@Knight glad you like it, as practice, you should prove the triangle inequality if you haven't. Its very very similar to your proof
im off, see you guys!
 
@CalvinKhor Bye Calvin
 
cya!
 
10:58 AM
@Balarka Kreck just told me the story about the punctured torus' fundamental group. If you blow up the puncture, which even is a homeo, you get what looks like two crossing strips (which of course retract to two wedged circles). The loop around the puncture in the punctured torus corresponds to the loop traversing the entire boundary of this figure, which, in terms of the loops around the two circles in this figure, which are the generators of the fundamental group of the torus, is their commutator. On the fundamental square, puncturing can be thought of as removing all 4 corners and this l
I think I'm starting to grok
 
Yes, the punctured torus is just a small neighborhood of the wedge of a meridian and a longitude inside the torus
 
This is also the 3-chart atlas you described to me then
 
Well, my chart was the complement of the wedge
That's an R^2
$T^2 \setminus \{p\}$ however is not homeomorphic to $\Bbb C \setminus \{1, -1\}$, even though they are homotopy equivalent (to $S^1 \vee S^1$)
 
Yeah, I'm just saying the charts fit into the same picture
 
We briefly discussed that $(T^2 \setminus \{p\}) \times \Bbb R \cong (\Bbb C \setminus \{1, -1\})\times \Bbb R$ before, right?
 
11:04 AM
And yeah, I was also told about this, they don't have the same ends
Yeah, that was your example for non-cancellation of $\mathbb{R}$
 
Cool.
 
11:15 AM
Horrible picture, but this shows how the two wedged circles lie in each of these spaces. The boundary of the punctured torus here has just one piece, which is the single end, whereas the boundary of the doubly punctured plane has three pieces, which are its three ends respectively. So they are homotopy-equivalent and not homeomorphic.
 
Yup
 
How exactly does this difference get killed when multiplying with R?
 
Since R has nontrivial end, the end of X x R changes substantially from that of X.
Precisely, End(X x R) is End(X) x R glued to X x End(R) = X x S^0 along End(X) x End(R) = End(X) x S^0
So it's two copies of X with a tube End(X) x R glued along the ends of X
Like a connected sum, but at infinity
So End((T^2 \ p) x R) is two copies of T^2 \ D^2 tubed together along the boundary circle, i.e., T^2 # T^2
Similarly, End((S^2 \ {3 points}) x R) is two copies of S^2 \ {3 disks} tubed along the boundary circles, i.e., T^2 # T^2 again
 
11:37 AM
Hmm, I don't quite see why gluing two triply punctured spheres together along the boundary circles gives the connected sum of two tori
 
You get genus 2, no?
Let me draw a picture
The red and blue guys are triply punctured spheres
This is a genus 2 surface, aka T^2 # T^2
 
12:05 PM
oh, yuh, makes perfect sense
can I see geometrically how the twisting is undone by multiplying with R?
 
12:16 PM
@Thorgott Yeah. If $M$ is a manifold with boundary, what is the boundary of $M \times [0, 1]$?
Working in topological category, no funny corner business
 
12:31 PM
Oh when you say geometrically you mean for that specific situation
Observe that both of those surfaces $\times \Bbb R$ is a neighborhood of $S^1 \vee S^1$ in $\Bbb R^3$
So a genus 2 handlebody
 
$M\times\{0\}\cup M\times\{1\}\cup\partial M\times[0,1]$?
 
Yeah, also known as the double of $M$.
Gluing two copies of $M$ along $\partial M$
So that's the end of interior of $M \times [0, 1]$ i.e., $\text{int}(M) \times \Bbb R$
 
Yeah, it makes sense that both are neighborhoods of $S^1\lor S^1$, but why is the punctured torus one not "twisted" anymore? Somehow times R gives this enough space to un-twist itself (I think), but I'm not sure how exactly that takes place.
 
It's like how a neighborhood of the Mobius strip in R^3 is $S^1 \times D^2$
 
that does sound analogous
I'll have to convince myself the latter works real quick
 
12:39 PM
It's in essence because if $M$ is the Mobius strip bundle over S^1, $M \oplus M \cong \varepsilon^2$ is trivial of rank 2
The normal bundle to the Mobius strip, when restricted along the center circle, is another Mobius strip
I guess the most fundamental reason is a reflection can be realized by a rotation one dimension up. $O(n)$ embeds in $SO(n+1)$.
 
12:59 PM
Actually, isn't the statement about the bundle better? It says that if you have these two twists, you can essentially undo them independently. The neighborhood statement, I'm trying to picture this atm, just says that if you thicken up the strip it looks, well, like a doughnut.
 

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