Hello!!
We have the sentence:
$\forall x\in \emptyset \ \exists ! y\in \emptyset : (x,y)\in \emptyset $
This is true because $\forall x\in \emptyset$ is aleays true and so the whole sentence is true, or not?
But the sentence:
$\forall x\in \{1,2,3\} \ \exists ! y\in \emptyset : (x,y)\in \emptyset $
is false, or not? But why? Becayse when we take for example $x=1$ then we have that $\exists ! y\in \emptyset$which cannot be true?