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1:03 PM
@CaptainAmerica16 Long story short, you can bookmark a script that turns it on constantly, or you can bookmark a script that renders all visible markup when you click it
 
$2$
@TobiasKildetoft Thanks for the help. I figured it out now! :)
 
1:31 PM
@Abcd yes
 
1:44 PM
@LeakyNun Never mind I got my mistake.
@LeakyNun What is the statement of the Tower of Hanoi problem in Programming?
I mean I can find the algorithm everywhere
But cant find the problem statement
Like where to begin your program of Tower of Hanoi, what to do?
 
The Tower of Hanoi (also called the Tower of Brahma or Lucas' Tower and sometimes pluralized) is a mathematical game or puzzle. It consists of three rods and a number of disks of different sizes, which can slide onto any rod. The puzzle starts with the disks in a neat stack in ascending order of size on one rod, the smallest at the top, thus making a conical shape. The objective of the puzzle is to move the entire stack to another rod, obeying the following simple rules: Only one disk can be moved at a time. Each move consists of taking the upper disk from one of the stacks and placing it on top...
 
@LeakyNun How to represent rods and discs in java man
 
Let $f : \Bbb{R} \to \Bbb{R}$ be some function. Is it true that $f$ is not differentiable at some point $x_0$ if and only if the derivative $f'$ is not continuous at $x_0$
 
output the steps
(1,2) for moving the top piece from the 1st tower to the 2nd tower
@user193319 no
 
"If the [Riemann] hypothesis is proven to be correct, mathematicians would be armed with a map to the location of all such prime numbers, a breakthrough with far-reaching repercussions in the field."
What does that mean?
 
1:47 PM
@LeakyNun Shoot...Do you have a counterexample in mind?
 

 Sir Michael Atiyah's Proof of the Rie

For all those who are interested in Sir Michael Atiyah's proof...
let's keep that discussion out of this room @Aubyn
3
@user193319 yes
 
@LeakyNun What does that have to do with what I've said?
 
ask the two people who starred my message
 
@LeakyNun Mind sharing?
 
@user193319 I don't
 
1:49 PM
@LeakyNun So, what does the function look like?
 
@LeakyNun No need to be cheeky. I didn't mention Atiyah's proof.
2
 
[Random]
$e^e = \frac{p}{q} \implies e = \ln (\frac{p}{q})$
$\ln (\frac{p}{q}) = \frac{r}{s}$
$\frac{p}{q} = e^{\frac{r}{s}}$ contradiction
$\therefore \ln (\frac{p}{q}) \in \Bbb{T}$
 
@Secret why is that true?
 
@Holo I forgot to put the words "assume"
 
1:54 PM
@Aubyn he's not being "cheeky," just sensitive to 89 year-old mathematician
 
And T is irrationals?
 
nope, transcendentals
Next trial: Find $p,q \in \Bbb{Z}$ such that $e = \ln (\frac{p}{q})$
$\ln$ is monotonic under reals
 
@user2646 actually I'm sensitive to other people's sensitivity
2
 
:-)
 
@user2646 You're guys are the ones mentioning this guy. I didn't mention him, the quote wasn't from him or his paper.
 
1:57 PM
He has a point..
 
nobody wants to talk about it
 
so we just don't talk about RH anymore? lol
5
 
yeah, let's not overreact: questions about why the Riemann hypothesis is considered important may be influenced by the present context, but they're still distinct from it
5
 
I'm glad to answer anything related to that topic, as long as it is not in this chatroom.
 
(My own grounds for not wanting to answer that question is not that it's impertinent but that it's been done to death. If you want to learn about the Riemann hypothesis, there's plenty of sources on- and offline)
 
1:59 PM
Also @Aubyn we all know where that quote is from
3
 
@Secret monotonic property is not enough
 
star spam
 
thus if there exists such $\frac{p}{q}$ it is unique
 
Oh, true
Assuming $q,p$ are coprimes
 
But, I am not sure if there are other things about ln that can be used. Most proof of transcendentals that does not make use of lindlemann Weistrass often involve crazy integrals defined and then somehow shown to violate some inequalities
Still yet to comprehend those
I wonder...
$1 = \ln (\ln (\frac{p}{q}))$
 
2:04 PM
also, the above holds so long as one is asking for the meaning of the quotation. the moment it crosses over to questions about the writer of said quotation, then it's no longer about the Riemann hypothesis as such
and at that point I definitely agree that there's no reason for it to be here
 
@LeakyNun Could you please explain how to execute the algorithm of tower of H in Java
 
I thought you said algorithms are everywhere
 
@LeakyNun Yes I understand how to solve it but am unable to put it in form of code
 
@Abcd sorry, please ask somebody else
 
we knew if $q$ is rational, then $\ln (q)$ is transcendental
 
2:07 PM
@LeakyNun OK ...
 
@Secret $q=1$ is rational...
(I think that's neverthless true in general, but there is that one exception)
 
ah great... how does that escaped the contradiction...
$\frac{p}{q} = e^{\frac{r}{s}}$
 
@LeakyNun Hey, I have a naive question about the proof-software that we talked about the other day
 
ah, $e^q$ is transcendental except for $q=0$
 
@rschwieb go ahead
 
2:09 PM
@Secret for rational q, you mean
 
@LeakyNun In a conversation with a developer of a different-although-related technology, they said there were some complications with programming in what a finite set is.
 
with constructive maths maybe
 
@LeakyNun Do you know if there's any difficulty with that in the thing you were working on?
 
I know of at least 4 inequivalent definitions of a finite set
 
@Semiclassical yeah, I was reusing labels without declaring them, in the p/q line, p, q are both integers, while in the e^q line, q is any rational
 
2:10 PM
right
 
@rschwieb well sometimes
 
Ones which can safely live in that proof-software context?
 
each of them can do that
 
In a series perspective, it is easy to see why $e^q$ when $q=0$ is rational, because it kills off the infinite sum, thus there is no chance for it to be irrational or even transcendental
 
@LeakyNun I guess I have an even more naive question. What's the interaction with the software like? Do you just type up an encoded version of the human proof, and the software looks at it and gives a thumbs up or dowN?
 
2:11 PM
@rschwieb you can see the "context" of the proof
i.e. the list of assumptions and your current goal
 
So for $p\neq q$, $\ln (\frac{p}{q})$ is transcendental
 
@rschwieb here's what you see with Coq
I don't use Coq though
(so why did I put a screenshot of Coq?)
 
Whew, pretty dense
 
Let $\ln (\frac{p}{q}) = t$ where $t \in \Bbb{T}$, what can we say about $\frac{p}{q} = e^t$
$\frac{tp}{q} = te^t \implies W(\frac{tp}{q}) = e$
 
@rschwieb LHS is the code, RHS is the context
 
2:15 PM
@LeakyNun So is it verifying proofs or is it actually constructing them?
 
We also knew that $W(e^{1+e}) = e$
Thus $\frac{tp}{q} = ee^e$
 
@rschwieb both...
well we sort of write programs to construct proofs
or we can construct the proofs ourselves
or both
 
$\ln (\frac{tp}{q}) = \ln e + e \ln e = 1+e$
ok this is not useful
 
Secret you are moving in circles
 
don't disturb his circles
 
2:21 PM
@LeakyNun Have you ever seen anyone prove a finite Desarguesian geometry is Pappian in such software?
 
@rschwieb maybe the curry howard correspondence will help you understand more
I don't know much about projective geometry
is the proof hard?
 
@LeakyNun No, it's definitely something that can be proven in an introductory book
But the thing is that where I saw it proven, they were forced to go through Wedderburn's little theorem, and they commented that it would be interesting to see a direct proof.
That book was written perhaps in the 50's or 60's bya . famous mathematician
 
@rschwieb maybe you can tell me the definitions and the proof and I can tell you how long it would take me to prove it in the software :P
 
I've been thinking of asking if anyone took up his challenge and solved it between now an dthen.
 
If $e^t$ is algebraic, then there exists some polynomial $P$ such that $P(e^t) = \sum_{n < \omega} a_ne^{nt} = 0$
 
2:26 PM
@LeakyNun Uhh, the ideas for a proof that I know in a nutshell are "desarguesian planes" can be coordinatized by a division ring, and "pappian planes" can be coordinatized by a field, so if your plane is finite Wedderburn's little theorem says your division ring is commutative. As for the actual definitions of desarguesian and pappian, I'd have to look those up again myself :)
 
lol
 
I remember the desargues theorem in terms of Euclidean geometry, but of course it has a projective version
 
Multiply $P$ by the least common multiple $\ell$ (which there always exist one since we only have finite many $a_n$ to get rid of denominators, we have:
$\sum_{n <\omega} \ell a_n e^{nt} = 0$
Relabel $\ell a_n = b_n \in \Bbb{Z}$
Also typo earlier, let $e^t$ be rational (as I don't know how to handle algebraic $a_n$s)
so... $\sum_{n < \omega} b_n e^{nt} = 0$
$b_0+b_1e^t+b_2e^{2t}+\cdots = 0$
that looks familar...
 
Completely unrelated problem: can $\Bbb R^+$ be separated to $\aleph_0$ disjoint sets such that all of them closed under addition?
I successfully proved it if you change $\aleph_0$ to any natural number but I am stuck there
What I did is induction, and I showed that if you can separate it into partition $P$ of size $n$ I can divide at least one of the elements in $P$ into 2 and so I get $n+1$ elements
Problem is that to prove it to $\aleph_0$ using similar method means I have to use transfinite induction
And I have no idea what the limit step should be
(I am assuming the axiom of choice)
 
2:57 PM
In mathematics, an algebraic function is a function that can be defined as the root of a polynomial equation. Quite often algebraic functions are algebraic expressions using a finite number of terms, involving only the algebraic operations addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, and raising to a fractional power. Examples of such functions are: f ( x ) = 1 / x {\displaystyle f(x)=1/x} f ( x ) = ...
 
Let $G$ be a group. Suppose that $G$ has a unique element of order 2, denoted by $a$. Prove that $ag = ga$ for all $g \in G$
How do I proceed here, I am not sure what exactly having a unique element of order 2 gives me here to show $ag = ga$?
 
If $f$ is an algebraic function, and $t$ is transcendental, what condition is $f(t)$ algebraic
 
3:12 PM
anyone have any ideas?
 
What affect does conjugating an element have on its order? @SharathZotis
 
What do you mean by conjugating?
 
$b$ and $a$ are conjugate means that $b=g a g^{-1}$ for some $g$
 
I see
Now what relation does this have to order?
 
Well, let $b=gag^{-1}$. You want to show that $b=a$
 
3:22 PM
 
But, what can you say about the order of $b$?
 
Actually, in positive terms, what does the contradiction mean. Does it mean that any difference between $e$ and its $b$th partial sum is smaller than all conceivable rationals?
 
Im not seeing it, what can we say about the order of b?
 
Well, what's the definition of the order of b?
 
oh its also 2?
right
definition of order of b
 
3:25 PM
Yep. Why?
The basic point is that $b=gag^{-1}\implies b^n =g a^n g^{-1}$
 
the definition of order of b is that b^ord(b) = e
 
Not quite---it's the smallest such positive integer for which that's true
 
oh yeah smallest right
 
But anyways. It's easy to see that if $a^n =e$ then the same is true for $b^n$ and vice versa
which in slogan terms means that conjugation preserves order
So a and b will have the same order (2)
 
Right
 
3:28 PM
But what do we know about elements of order 2 here?
 
they are the same
a = b
 
there's only one such element, so yeah---b must just be a
 
since $G$ has a Unique element of order 2
exactly
 
In mathematics, a transcendental number is a real or complex number that is not algebraic—that is, it is not a root of a nonzero polynomial equation with integer (or, equivalently, rational) coefficients. The best-known transcendental numbers are π and e. Though only a few classes of transcendental numbers are known (in part because it can be extremely difficult to show that a given number is transcendental), transcendental numbers are not rare. Indeed, almost all real and complex numbers are transcendental, since the algebraic numbers are countable while the sets of real and complex numbers are...
 
so $b=ga g^{-1}=a$ and you're done
 
3:29 PM
and where does that integral operator came from othter than it works
 
A quick, random question: Are there any sequences which you would describe as "interesting" which remain in mod1000?
 
What?
 
wait how does this imply $ag =ga$?
 
@SharathZotis Rearrange it
You're always free to multiply on the left or right by $g$ or $g^{-1}$
 
ok
so $bg = ga = ag$
 
3:31 PM
ya
In more formal terms: The center of a group is defined as the set of elements which commute with everything else in the group
So you've shown that, if there's a unique element of order 2, then it must lie in the center
 
$\mathbb{U}_5$
this group is cyclic correct? and generated by $<3>$
 
@Secret no, it says that the difference between $e$ and $S_b$ must be rational number with denominator both smaller than $b!$(so it will be able to divides $b!$ and be an integer) and greater then the numerator times $b!$
 
How do i listing all of its sub groups
 
I don't know what that group is
 
$\mathbb{U}_n$ multiplicative group of integers relatively prime to $n$ modulo $n$
 
3:38 PM
Ah. I usually see that written as $\mathbb{Z}_n^\times$
 
so $\mathbb{U}_5 = {1,2,3,4}$
 
3,3^2=9=4,3^3=27=2,3^4=81=1
checks out
 
There's another such generator tho
 
how do i list its subgroups tho
is the other generator 4?
 
3:41 PM
Well, what do you know about the order of a subgroup in relation to the order of a group?
@SharathZotis what are the powers of 4 mod 5?
 
are they the same
 
write them out
 
order of subgroup in relation to order of a group
 
@SharathZotis they needn't be identical, no
 
4^0, 4^1 = 4, 4^2 =1, 4^3 = 4, 4^4, hmm i see
4 doesn't generate
 
3:43 PM
correct. nevertheless, <4> is still a subgroup
 
2 does generate i believe
 
since 4^n 4^m = 4^(n+m)
right
 
so does each generator generate a subgroup?
 
one easy way to see that is that 2=-3 mod 5
@SharathZotis well, you should be able to test that
If you pick two powers of some $a\in U_5$, then you have $a^m a^n =a^{m+n}$
So the set of powers is closed under the group operation
You should check for yourself that any <a> generates a subgroup
What I"m not remembering is if that generates all the subgroups (up to isomorphism)
i.e. if A is a subgroup of a group G, then is there an element $g\in G$ such that $A=\langle a \rangle$
The answer is probably "of course not" but I forget the specifics
 
Well not all groups are cyclic @Semiclassical
 
3:52 PM
ya, true
I mean, the group U5 is small enough that there's not really a lot of options
 
Every subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic (that is a good exercise)
 
oh, nice
So it's fine in this context. (On the other hand, counting the subgroups of something like S6 presumably would require more finesse)
 
can anyone help me better understand how to prove completeness in a logical system? I've already got soundness down I think
(not a student / just a bored person at work self-learning)
 
Definitely, I suspect that could be done by hand without to much work, but it would be more work
 
for reference: oeis.org/A005432
in particular, for S6 one gets 1455 subgroups (yikes)
it only goes up to S18, at which point they basically just say "nope"
 
4:01 PM
Bah, 125889331236297288 isn't all that many. :P
 
in the Holt paper linked in that OEIS entry: "The complete calculation of the 5 808 293 fixed-point-free subgroups of S18 using these techniques took approximately four cpu-days."
 
4:16 PM
Problem: For any continuous function $f : [-1,1] \to \Bbb{R}$, show that $\int_{-1}^{1} f(x^2)dx = 0$...Question: Is continuity necessary? All that's needed is Riemann integrability, right? To prove it, I just noted that $xf(x^2$ is an odd function, so it suffices to prove that the integral of an odd integrable function over an interval symmetric about $0$ is $0$.
Wait! The composition $f(x^2)$ isn't necessarily integrable if $f$ is just assumed to be integrable, right?
So continuity is necessary?
 
@user193319, I don't follow your "to prove it, I just noted that ..." ... Also, you should be able to prove that if $f$ is integrable and $g$ is continuous, then $f\circ g$ is integrable (on $[a,b]$). As a simple case, take $g$ monotone.
 
@TedShifrin I thought it was the other way around: $g \circ f$ is guaranteed to be integrable on $[a,b]$.
 
Yeah, what I said is wrong. But it is correct when $g$ is monotone.
Neither $f\circ g$ nor $g\circ f$ is right, actually, in general.
I still don't understand your argument, regardless.
 
hi @Ted
 
[Random]
 
4:29 PM
@user193319 Was the integral meant to be of $xf(x^2)$ instead?
 
By the way, @user193319, the problem you're trying to prove is just flat wrong.
Ohhhh ....
That would explain it ... @Tobias
 
Well, since $xf(x^2)$ is odd, then if I just prove that whenever $h : [-a,a] \to \Bbb{R}$ is an odd integrable function, $\int_{-a}^{a} h(x)=0$.
 
Yeah, you typed the problem wrong.
 
Oh, I see: I dropped a parenthesis.
 
No, you dropped an $x$.
 
4:30 PM
No, you dropped an $x$
 
LOL
 
Oh, whoops...
 
oO
 
Damn. Sniped by a more grammatically correct version.
 
I did drop a parenthesis in my OP, though; so I was right about that!
 
4:31 PM
Yes, but even I am not that picky if I understand what you are saying.
So, anyhow, I do believe that if $f$ is integrable, then $f\circ s$ is integrable for $s$ monotone, and then even for $s(x)=x^2$ (why?).
 
"Polynomial flow" iterated function:
Motivation: Consider a sequence of iteration of a function $f$ e.g. $f \circ f^2 \circ f^3 \circ f^2 \circ f$
Ok fail, because the fact that $f^n \circ f^m = f^{n+m}$ holds always means that even if I do something as crazy as $f^{\int_a^b g(x)dx}$ I can always find some real number $r = \int_a^b g(x)dx$
and that is already captured in the study of flows
 
I don't know what that means for most functions $f$.
 
@Secret I have a function $f : A \to A$ such that for any $x$, there is $n$ such that $f^{n!}(x) = x$, so I can write $\cdots \circ f^{4!} \circ f^{3!} \circ f^{2!} \circ f^{1!} \circ f^{0!}$
this function shows up in field theory
oh and of course, $f^{n!} \ne id$ for any $n$
(@TedShifrin am I doing the right thing?)
 
@LeakyNun Well, you can construct such a function without needing the factorials as well quite easily (though possibly less naturally)
 
sure
we don't know if $\sum n!$ is an integer right? @TobiasKildetoft
 
4:39 PM
I am guessing there isn't any point to introduce an uncountable analogue of an algebraic function (the countable analogue of an algebraic function is a transcendental function) because of the fact that any real number can always be approximated by a sequence under the open interval topology
 
I have no idea what you're doing, @Leaky, nor why the infinite composition makes sense.
 
@LeakyNun Sum over what?
 
@TedShifrin because it's well-defined at every point
@TobiasKildetoft $\sum_n n! \in \overline{\Bbb Z}$
 
I don't see why things stabilize when you compose functions.
 
but $\sum n!$ should blow up to infinity, no?
 
4:40 PM
@TedShifrin because of the property of my function
 
If $f^6(x)=x$, what is $f^{4!}(x)$?
 
x, of course
 
@TedShifrin en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Iterated_function iterated function compositions always obey index rule
 
I have no idea what you're doing.
I withdraw from this discussion.
 
$f^{24}(x) = f^6(f^6(f^6(f^6(x)))) = x$
 
4:41 PM
so as long the countable operation converges to some number $r$, then $f^r$ is well defined
 
Oh, right.
I still withdraw.
 
@TedShifrin that isn't what I mean
I mean, am I doing the right thing by encouraging him, lol
 
A complex number is said to be hypertranscendental if it is not the value at an algebraic point of a function which is the solution of an algebraic differential equation with coefficients in Z[r] and with algebraic initial conditions. The term was introduced by D. D. Morduhai-Boltovskoi in "Hypertranscendental numbers and hypertranscendental functions" (1949). The term is related to transcendental numbers, which are numbers which are not a solution of a non-zero polynomial equation with rational coefficients. The number e is transcendental but not hypertranscendental, as it can be generated from...
ok I did not expected that...
but it is not an uncountable thing
rabbit hole way too deep, better stick with transcendentals for now
2
Q: Product of Uncountably Infinite Number of 1s

JonJust like the title says: What is the product of an uncountable number of 1s? Intuitively the answer is 1, but how does one go about defining such a product in general?

technically, uncountable products are well defined with a net, but it is not really necessary
This is because all real numbers are either algebraic (which can be mapped to zero under finite number of algebraic operations) or transcendental (which can be mapped to zero under countably many of these)
The reals simply does not contain any intrinsically uncountable structure in it, other than its cardinality
I think we need to get to the surreals or banach spaces in order to have an intrinsically uncountable structure, but we will deal with this later...
 
(Unrelated)
Let $f$ be an algebraic function. That is given polynomials $a_n$, $\sum_{n < \omega}a_nf^n =0$. Suppose $t$ is transcendental:
Let $f(t)=r$. Then we have: $\sum_{n < \omega}a_n(t)r^n=0$
Suppose $r$ is algebraic, then $r^n$ is also algebraic by field closure of algebraic numbers
Expanding the sum, we thus have a polynomial of algebraic coefficients $Q(t) = \sum_{n,m < \omega} r^nb_{nm} t^m =0$
But this is a contradiction since this will mean there is a polynomial $Q$ which $t$ is a root
 
5:08 PM
The following is discombobulating: I thought that I was out of a medication, to the extent that I was having to skip doses to keep it up longer. But the pharmacy says that what I picked up at the end of August should've been enough to keep me through this month
wtf?
 
It depends on how much medication you have left and what is the original instruction
 
Any chance they gave it in multiple bottles and you misplaced some?
@Secret that feels tautological lol
 
@MikeMiller that's what I have to wonder
 
Maybe you got a ghost problem
 
I think I could see how it would happen
 
5:10 PM
@MikeMiller ah right, your's is a more likely possibility since some pharmacy sometimes give you slightly more than necessary
 
But it throws you for a loop when the mismatch between the reality implied by the medical records is so off from what you think is going on
 
@Semiclassical You can surely call your doctor for an emergency refill, though. That's certainly better than shipping meds
 
N..
so, what's the answer to @user193319 original question? Is continuity necessary to prove that $\int_{-1}^{1} \! x f(x^2) dx \equiv 0$? Naively I would have said that an integrable $f$ has antiderivative $F$, the integrand is $(F \circ \varphi)'(x)$ and used the fundamental theorem
 
"Find kernel of f: G -> G, f(x) = x^2 for G abelian" I can't be more precise than {x in G | x^2 = e} without knowing more about the group right?
 
@MikeMiller the tricky thing is that I'm in the middle of a transition between clinics right now
and haven't been able to get set up with the new one yet
 
5:13 PM
(unrelated cont.) and therefore $f(t)$ must be transcendental.
 
(the old one was the university clinic, which I don't have access to now that it's fall semester and I've graduated)
so it's a bit delicate
 
Combined with the fact that $f(k)$ is algebraic for all algebraic number $k$, it means the image of any algebraic functions will preserve the transcendence of its arguments
ok, that could be useful...
 
Secret is churning out knowledge here
 
Can't you just do the substitution $u = x^2$? :> Since the lower limit = upper limit and $f(u)$ is continuous you would have $0$
 
Hmm...
 
5:17 PM
@bphi yes
 
I know $0$ analysis so it's almost certainly wrong but :P
 
Thank you @LeakyNun
 
N..
@Lozansky for continuous $f$ you can split the integral and do that I suppose, can you do that when $f$ is only integrable?
 
Can someone explain the entropy formula
Shannon entropy
 
Let $g$ be a transcendental function. Suppose $t$ is transcendental. Let $g(t)$ be algebraic, that is there exists some polynomial $P$ such that $P(g(t)) = \sum_{n < \omega} a_n[g(t)]^n=0$
 
N..
5:20 PM
@Lozansky I thought the initial question "does it work if $f$ is integrable" more interesting than the actual proof for continuous $f$
 
where i come from, the state of chat rn would be described by most high school teachers as a "fish market"
 
@N.. Not sure, but I can't come up with a counter-example
 
One pound fish!
 
where i come from, it would be "wet market"
but even that term is not common English, so this is the definition:
> In Hong Kong English and Singapore English, a wet market is a market selling fresh meat and produce, distinguished from dry markets which sell durable goods such as cloth and electronics.
 
5:36 PM
Hey everyone
So there's this theorem that says "If $H \leq G$ such that $[G : H]= 2$, then $H$ is normal in $G$. The proof starts as follows "Since $[G : H] = 2$, there are only two left cosets of $H$ in $G$, namely $H$ and $G \setminus H$"
Now I fail to see how $G \setminus H$ is a left coset of $H$ in $G$.
 
@Perturbative Do you see that there are two cosets?
 
@TobiasKildetoft Yeah, that part I'm fine with
 
And that $H$ is one of them?
 
@Perturbative maybe work with an example
work with $S_3 = D_{3,6}$
 
@TobiasKildetoft Actually let me just think again why $H$ is one of them, I thought it was trivial initially
 
5:45 PM
it is.
 
@TobiasKildetoft Okay yeah so initially $G/H = \{aH, bH\}$ for some $a, b \in G$. Then $aH = H \iff a \in H$, but since $1_G \in H$ (because $H \leq G$) it follows that $a \in H$, so $aH = H$. So $G/H = \{H, bH\}$ for some $b \in G$
 
I'm still a bit stuck with this one.
 
Let $g$ be a transcendental function. Let $q$ be algebraic. Suppose $g(q)=a$ is algebraic. Then there exists polynomial $P$ such that $P(g(q))=0$. Inverting this equation using the preimage, we get $g(q)=P^{\leftarrow}(0)$. Inverting $g$ using the preimage, we have $q = g^{\leftarrow}(P^{\leftarrow}(0))$
Since $P$ is an algebraic function. It follows $P^{\leftarrow}$ is also an algebraic relation. Since $0$ is algebraic, $P^{\leftarrow}(0)$ must also be algebraic
 
@TedShifrin: Do you have any hints?
 
@LeakyNun that's the image i was going for, but TIL "wet market"
 
5:57 PM
@SohamChowdhury you're from singapura?
 
no, lol
i meant the "fresh meat and produce" thing
 
I see
 
Kolkata, India
"fish market" is a word-for-word translation of the Bengali machher bajar (where bajar is cognate with Hindi bazaar, as you might expect)
 
indeed, that is exactly what I might expect :P
 
"Ever-so-slightly-broken Indian high school teacher English is a joy forever"
 
6:01 PM
$e^e=q \implies e = \ln q \implies (\ln q)^{\ln q} = q$
 
Okay I got it, so to prove $G \setminus H = bH$ observe first that since $bH \neq H$, it follows that $b \not\in H$, so $b \in G\setminus H$. I'll first show that $bH \subseteq G \setminus H$. Suppose that for some $x \in bH$ we have $x \not\in G \setminus H \iff x \in H$. Then $x = b\cdot h$ for some $h \in H$. But then $xh^{-1} = b$ and hence $b \in H$ (since $x \in H$ and $h^{-1}$ and $H \leq G$). Thus $\forall x \in bH$ we have $x \in G\setminus H$. So $bH \subseteq G\setminus H$.
Now conversely to show $G\setminus H \subseteq bH$ choose $y \in G \setminus H$ and suppose that $y \not\in bH$. Since the cosets partition $G$, we must then have $y \in H$ a contradiction. Hence $y \in bH$ so $G \setminus H \subseteq bH$. Hence $G \setminus H = bH$
 
$e^e=q \implies q = \ln q \implies (\ln q)^{\ln q} = q \implies$
$\ln q^{\ln q} = e^{\ln q} \implies \ln q^{\ln q +1} = (\ln q)e^{\ln q} \implies W(\ln q^{\ln q +1}) = \ln q \implies$
bumpbumpbump
 
6:22 PM
@Secret $e^e=q \implies q = \ln q???$
 
oops typo, should be $e = \ln q$
nevertheless it leads to nowhere
 
@Secret Proving that number is transcendental is usually extremely hard :)
 
In transcendental number theory, the Lindemann–Weierstrass theorem is a result that is very useful in establishing the transcendence of numbers. It states the following. In other words the extension field ℚ(eα1, ..., eαn) has transcendence degree n over ℚ. An equivalent formulation (Baker 1990, Chapter 1, Theorem 1.4), is the following. This equivalence transforms a linear relation over the algebraic numbers into an algebraic relation over ℚ: by using the fact that a symmetric polynomial whose arguments are all conjugates of one another gives a rational number. The theorem is named...
Meanwhile still trying to comprehend this proof
Why so many integrals out of nowhere
 
6:51 PM
@Oskar: How far did you get?
 
How do you factor x^2+x-1
 
Use the quadratic formula to find the roots.
 
Completely forgotten how to complete square
 
@Ultradark $x^2+x-1 = (x-t)(x+t+1)$ in $(\Bbb Q[t]/(t^2+t-1))[X]$
(it surely has no roots in $\Bbb Q$, so let's factorizing it in a splitting field)
 
@Leaky do ya remember the tip I gave you?
 
6:55 PM
(why is $\Bbb Q(\sqrt5)$ the canonical splitting field? what makes my choice not valid?)
@ÍgjøgnumMeg completely forgotten :P
 
Leaky is practicing being uber-obnoxious.
5
 
cough pedagogy cough
 
Hi everyone
 
hi demonic @Alessandro!
 
Hey @Alessandro
 
6:56 PM
Hey @AlessandroCodenotti @TedShifrin
 
hi Perturb
 
@ÍgjøgnumMeg omg is your throat alright
 
Lol
 
@Ted My algebra lecturer said something interesting today, apparently nobody knows how to classify finite groups of order greater than $2000$ (according to him), and the main tools to classify them at order near $2000$ rely on cohomology (I assume he was talking about group cohomology)
 
what does it mean to classify groups of fixed order?
or to classify groups?
 

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