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12:00 AM
faust ! not there yet
 
Zee
Ya Faust knows algebra better than me , he can help you
 
doing some repetition of linear algebra
using Lang's Book
 
Zee
@JoeShmo you want a cookie bro ?
 
cause its saying that pick some $v_0$ it must be an eigenvector for the geneeralized eigenspace, but in this case you can show that the it is an eigenspace
 
@0celo7 its fine you can safely go back to being grumpy now. all is good with the world. until it isn't. then ill be back
 
12:01 AM
hmm
ill keep drilling on that :D
 
@Zee if you had a cookie, I'll take it
 
thnaks yall
 
I'm busy
 
you need to show there is only one other eigenvalue other than 0
@KasmirKhaan
 
writing up an awful proof
 
Zee
12:01 AM
@JoeShmo you gotta risk it to eat the biscuit
 
oh man
yuck. who has to read it?
 
@KasmirKhaan i am also slightly concerned you have the question missing/ copied down missing a piece of information one slight modification and the question is alot easier
 
scrolls up and reads chat I've made a horrible mistake
 
@Faust the question is wrong faust, that is my opinion on that
or the author assumed other stuff he did not mention ><
@Faust do you have linear algebra book , author Lang ?
 
mm no but i can try googling it
 
12:08 AM
if so check page 58 question 16 +17
third edition
he is assuming stuff he is not mentioning
 
no its correct...
 
@Adeek Mabrouk
 
think of this way
 
@EricSilva thanks for the warning
 
tfw youve met with a terrible fate
 
12:17 AM
@Faust it only makes sence if dim V = Dim kerF +1
 
say $ V=W \oplus U $ where W is everything sent to the kernel and U is everything that isnt in the kernel. Now assume that the dimension of U is 2 but we have that dim (R) is clearly 1 so U can't be sent to a 2 dimensional space it can only be sent to a 1 dimensional space.
That means that one dimension of U is sent to the kernel but thats a contradiction to our assumption that U has nothing sent to the kernel. if you assume the U is dimension 0 then $ V= W $ a contradiction so U must be dimension 1. you have some theoreom that says every 1 dimensional space is just an eigenspace.
@KasmirKhaan
so$ F(u) = \lambda u $ for all $u \in U $
or in your questions case $ c \in \Bbb R $ and $ u = v_0 $
spans U
 
hmm this makes more sense now
but hmm
why would have that every elemnt in V can be written as a sum of w+cv
ahaa
if we take an element in the kernel
then our c =0
 
yup
 
if not in the kernel then w=0
now it makes sense thanks faust :D
 
Precisely the hard part was showing theres only one eigenspace (sorry for going straight to generalized eigenvectors but its easier that way if you dont see the argument above)
wasnt your textbook jumping ahead that was my bad
 
12:23 AM
no that is fine
i just wanted a reasble argument
i was going crazy :D
the key part was the dimention here
that v_0 was generating V\W
 
theirs some formula that says $ \dim im T + \dim ker T = \dim W $ where $ T \in \mathcal L (V,W) $ thats what i used
once you know the $ \dim im F =1 $ then you can argue about the dimension of the subspace
and it leads to that contradiction argument i showed you
it looks like the argument just came from have a clever thought but the reality is its just from using a definition and following your nose.
<--- no cleverness to be had ^^
 
@AkivaWeinberger Find and solve the appropriate congruences.
Anklebiters Childcare Centre bought t toys. The toys came in packs of 10. The next day, at the start
of the day there were n children at the centre. The children were evenly divided into groups of 4, and
each group was given 6 toys. There were 2 toys left unused. Two toys were destroyed by the children’s
brutal style of play and had to be thrown out. Later on, m more children were dropped at the centre.
The children were then divided into groups of 6, with 7 toys per group. There were 6 (intact) toys not
 
I can tell that whoever wrote this problem loves children
 
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist do you know why n is at min 48 yet?
 
Lol. My NT lecturer gives unusual questions...
 
12:33 AM
@Faust You mean 6(n/4), no?
'Cause that's the quantity that's t-2
 
24x -10t -2 =0
 
Because 4 groups of children were given 6 toys each.
 
tells you n must be at least 48
 
24n=2 mod 10 (as two were unused)
 
12:35 AM
@Faust Why 24?
Groups of 4, 6 per group, means 6/4=1.5 per child on average
 
n=6x we know that 6x * 4 mod 10 = 2
 
No... What's your x?
 
I think Akiva is right, because the question states that the children we're evenly divided into four groups.
 
why am i so bad at explaining things
 
Usually in number theory we work with divisors not multiples. Yeah, I also suck at explaining, I'm dyslexic.
 
12:37 AM
you have 6 toys
and 4 groups
 
n/4*6 mod 10 = 2
@Faust Not 4 groups
Groups of 4
 
the number is divible by 4
n= 4x
 
so 6n/4= 2 mod 10?
 
We don't know how many groups
 
so you have 4x *6 -10t -2 =0
 
12:38 AM
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist That's what I'm thinking, yeah
@Faust It's not four groups
 
i dont mean theres 4 groups
 
We'll make 6n=8 mod 40 in that case, Akiva.
since 1.5 is not an integer.
 
Appendix E of the thesis is done.
Only one proof left.
 
is the answer 252 incorrect?
 
@Faust If x is the number of groups, then n=4x, yes, but then 6x-10t-2=0
not 6*4x
 
12:40 AM
You could be right, Faust. But I have to work with congruences, not the ones in linear forms.
 
32 makes sense for the first half @DarkVampiricAbstractArtist
 
the onyl work u need to do on n is to find the minium number that makes sense
 
becauae then it's 32/4=8 groups and 6*8=48 toys
 
otherwise its completly unneeded
who cares about the number of groups!
 
but it could also be 12 @DarkVampiricAbstractArtist
 
12:41 AM
well at least u got the right anser
the minium number of toys used is 48
 
because then it's 12/4=3 groups and 3*6=18 toys
 
in the first session
 
so we need the second half of the problem to decide between 12, 32, 52, etc
 
6*7y = 42y -10t =8 is the other relation
 
72 maybe? Lemme try that
First half: 72/4=18, 18*6=108, works
Second half: 72/6=12, 12*7=84
…not quite
 
12:46 AM
its 252...
 
let m=6x, 6x-10t=8?
 
Oh I forgot about the extra kids!
 
not m=6x
m+n = 6x
you start with n kids and you add in m more kids
so your bucket has n+m kids in it
 
It's 32 at the start, then 4 are dropped off so it ends with 36.
Check it; it works. 50 toys at the start, two are destroyed, 48 toys at the end.
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist
Anklebiters Childcare Centre bought 50 toys. The toys came in packs of 10. The next day, at the start of the day there were 32 children at the centre. The children were evenly divided into 8 groups of 4, and each of the 8 groups was given 6 toys, for a total of 48. There were 2 toys left unused. Two toys were destroyed by the children’s brutal style of play and had to be thrown out, leaving the Centre with 48 toys. Later on, 4 more children were dropped at the centre, with 36 total. The children were then divided into 6 groups of 6, with 7 toys per group, for a total of 42. There were 6 (in
^The problem with real numbers substituted in
 
I backtracked from 46 because the second time six toys weren't used.
i mean 42-6=36.
 
12:53 AM
@BalarkaSen If I want to be a geometry apologist, the thesis is done
 
48-6=42 @DarkVampiricAbstractArtist
 
What's left is some technical elliptic regularity and then that's it
 
wierd so 42 is a solution
why can n<48
 
32, you mean? @Faust
n=32, m=4, t=50
 
6 of those 48 toys were unused, Faust.
 
12:55 AM
The point is that t is 2 more than a multiple of 6, and that t-2 is 6 more than a multiple of 7.
t=50 is the smallest number that satisfies those.
Once we solve for n and m and see that they are positive integers (as they should be), we're done.
 
we have 6 *4 = 24 toys oh
 
i dont get it
if n can be less than 48 then 42 is a soltuion
but i dont understand how n can be less than 48
 
There are 32 kids. They are divided into groups of 4. Each group is given 6 toys. How many toys were given? @Faust
Answer: (32/4)*6=48
At no point do you multiply 4 by 6
 
4x *6 = 24x with 2 left over from to so x=2
ah
n=4x
n=8?
 
12:59 AM
WHY ARE YOU MULTIPLYING 6 BY 4 I DON'T UNDERSTAND
Or n by 6
n is the number of kids. n*6 would only make sense if you gave each kid 6 toys.
 
you have to have at least 4 groups?
 
No one said that
There are "groups of 4", that means each group has 4 kids in it
There might be 2 groups, there might be 100 groups, we don't know, all we know is that each group has 4 kids
There are n/4 groups
 
thats the same thing as im saying x is the number of groups
n=4x
eveyr group gets 6 toys
 
So then you look at 6x
6x+2=t
 
oh because not every child gets only one toy
they fat asses and get more than 1 i get it
 
1:02 AM
Each child, on average, gets 6/4=1.5 toys
 
i assumed each child got 1 toy
 
In any case, solution: n=32, m=4, t=50
 
why am I seeing numbers everywhere
am I in the wrong room
 
i had the coltions down to 42z -10t - 2 =0 but ruled out z=1 as a solution
cause i thought eveyr chidl had to get at least 1 toy :(
 
Number Theory @LeakyNun
 
1:04 AM
anyway thanks
 
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist put an "elementary" in front of it. don't insult proper number theory.
 
lol
 
number theory is appropriate elementary number theory is really hard
 
How do I work n=32, m=4, and t=50 into a linear congruence equation? 6n=4 mod 50?
Oh wait, you've already solved it for n and m, I think.
 
1:11 AM
@LeakyNun I take it you have never looked at springer.com/gp/book/9783540586555
 
@anakhronizein what do you mean?
 
You can put whatever you want in front of it, doesn't make it any less trivial. ;)
 
lol
but when you say "elementary" we know you're talking about olympiad stuff
 
Seriously, take a gander at that book whenever you can. Great book apparently, but I'll never know!
 
hey for the following row reduced matrix -- wolframalpha.com/input/…;*x_3,+x_1*x_3,x_1*x_2,+1%7D%7D
the claim is that it's rank is 2 for all x != (t^-2,t^-2, t, t^-3)
why?
how did they figure out x != (t^-2,t^-2, t, t^-3)?
 
1:22 AM
@JoeShmo it depends on the number of pivots. For example, if the matrix has (1,0,0), (0,1,0), and (0,0,1) then the rank is 3.
 
yuh,
the question is where does x != (t^-2,t^-2, t, t^-3) come from?
actually, i think i know
if x == (t^-2,t^-2, t, t^-3), then i think the rank is 1
since if the matrix is as above , then A(t^-2,t^-2, t, t^-3) will give you the same entry on the top and bottom
 
Yes, I think the rank is 1 because one of the entries on second row and third column is a nonzero.
So the rank can't be 2, but it's 1.
 
something doesn't add up. the row reduction is not defined at x1 = x2
any point that satisfies that. so why go as far as x != (t^-2,t^-2, t, t^-3)?
 
1:47 AM
So I just realized:
One of the principles of flag design is that a flag should still be immediately recognizable when really small or far away
which means that most of our user icons are good flags according to that
(Well, one of the other principles is "it should be simple enough that a child could draw it from memory" but whatever)
 
Are you talking about the "flags" that are used to report "spam"?
spam messages*
 
2:07 AM
@BalarkaSen ok so I watched the recording of the last lecture of the course
"last" as in "there's none after it"
and it ends on the equivalence between simplicial and singular homologies
so, ugh, not even degree
 
hey @EricSilva
 
2:26 AM
Why is 3B1B consistently high art
 
[Philosophy] I need to reread this again before proceeding:
In the philosophy of mathematics, ultrafinitism, also known as ultraintuitionism, strict-finitism, actualism, and strong-finitism, is a form of finitism. There are various philosophies of mathematics that are called ultrafinitism. A major identifying property common among most of these philosophies is their objections to totality of number theoretic functions like exponentiation over natural numbers. == Main ideas == Like other strict finitists, ultrafinitists deny the existence of the infinite set N of natural numbers, on the grounds that it can never be completed. In addition, some ultrafinitists...
 
sup
 
In number theory, Skewes's number is any of several extremely large numbers used by the South African mathematician Stanley Skewes as upper bounds for the smallest natural number x for which π ( x ) > li ⁡ ( x ) , {\displaystyle \pi (x)>\operatorname {li} (x),} where π is the prime-counting function and li is the logarithmic integral function. These bounds have since been improved by others: there is a crossing near e ...
But basically, in order to get a better idea to speculate what kind of future technology that the concept of both potential and actual infinity can provide us, we need to first ignore their existences and see how things fall apart (if any)
Very recently in the logic room we have deduced even potential infinity that is the (constantly growing) collection of all natural numbers may not be realisable in a physical universe because a computer will ran out of memory
This speculation, while may not lead to fruitful results because it is so hard, is inspired by how something as abstract as logic lead to one of the most important transformation of the modern society: The computer
Since infinity should be a bit less abstract than logic (as you can easily define it using logic), we suspect it should be easier to extrapolate the technology it promised to give us in the future
 
Wait....you're saying you deduced in the logic room that countable infinities aren't realizable because computers will run out of memory? Isn't that obvious?
 
no, it's more like this:
 
2:37 AM
Is analysis more 'applicable' than algebra?
 
in Logic, Mar 16 at 3:37, by user21820
@Secret What does it mean by "they cannot prove"? The point is that any practical formal system you design will essentially be equivalent to a proof verifier program that must be run on an ideal computer (one with unbounded memory and time and so on).
in Logic, Mar 16 at 3:55, by Secret
I am trying to understand whether actual infinity is needed to talk about the existence of a model of PA, in order to understand why it is circular, but it seems I have been misunderstood about potential infinity the whole time, thus I think I need to revise everything and reformulate the question later.

From what we have discussed and I have comprehended so far, it seems potential infinity corresponds to an ideal computer thus even that is circular, let alone actual infinity
 
I know that's a very vague question
 
in Logic, Mar 16 at 6:55, by user21820
@Secret Sorry I was away. Yes, potential infinity corresponds to an ideal computer (of Turing's sort, namely not that we have an infinite tape but we have an indefinitely extensible tape).
 
Oh gotcha.
 
@orbit-stabilizer Well not necessary, for example, finite fields give us cryptography which runs most of the security of our current systems (and also future quantum proof encryptions), and semigroups are often involved in finite state machines and robotic programming
also don't forget about groups: They are literally everywhere from maths to other disciplines since they govern most symmetry in systems
 
2:40 AM
It seems like potential infinity is the common infinity 'model' used in basic analysis. Things growing without bound.
 
Indeed it is, this is why it is technically speaking not a number, but a process
 
Interesting. And how do we use actual infinity in math?
The extended reals? 1 point compactification?
Right, groups are everywhere. But it seems like rings are mainly used for number-theoretic purposes.
 
Actual infinity is the postulate of the existence of something larger than all finite numbers. In set theory for example, $\omega$ which is the set of all natural numbers in its usual well ordering, is an actual infinity since $n < \omega $ for all $n$ and any increasing function $f$ will not allow us to reach $\omega$ e.g. $f(n) < \omega$, unless it already includes $\omega$ in part of its specification
 
Wait a second. We have the axiom of infinity tho in ZFC, don't we?
Why do we need that if we don't use actual infinity in analysis?
You mean $\aleph_0$?
 
We normally don't see that distinction of these infinities in set theory (ZFC and ZF) because of the Axiom of Infinity, which basically postulate the existence of an infinite set hence $\omega$. Thus combining with the argument of ideal computers, basically as far we know we cannot have actual infinity in a system except adding it in from axioms.
$\aleph_0$ is the cardinality of $\omega$, but yeah it is also an actual infinity
 
2:46 AM
Ohh. I see...
What happens if we get rid of the Axiom of Infinity?
 
ZFC+~AoI is equivalent to PA
ZFC plus the negation of the Axiom of Infinity
 
@orbit-stabilizer This is a question heavily debated in the logic room. While from studying the various MSE and MOs as well user21820, Leaky's etc. insights, we seemed to be doing mostly fine by getting rid of uncountable well orderings and even lesbegue integration, I think the question on whether we can do analysis without potential infinity is still an open question
 
I think the right word is "bi-interpretable"?
 
You need choice for PA?
So Lesbegue integration goes away, but Riemann doesn't?
 
No, but ZFC+(neg AoI) is equivalent to ZF+(neg AoI)
With no infinite sets you don't need choice
 
2:49 AM
Ah, right.
 
You essentially map hereditarily finite sets to numbers, to show that it's bi-interpretable with PA
 
Sorry I typed slow, I will catch up with you guys soon enough
 
So, we could do analysis without AoI, but we're unsure if we can do analysis with potential infinity
 
If I recall correctly, {} is 0, and $\{x_1,\dots,x_n\}=2^{x_1}+\dotsb+2^{x_n}$
is how the mapping works
using $x_i$ to mean both the set and the number
This works if there are no infinite sets
 
I am doing the final proof of the thesis
much excite
 
2:53 AM
I did my first thesis when I was 9. Good times.
 
:thinking:
 
@Daminark tell me, wise one who just took FA, is the set of bounded invertiple operators $X\to Y$ open in operator norm
I am reasonably sure it is
 
Puzzle: Assume there is no continuous map from an $n$-ball to its boundary, fixing the boundary. Show that any polynomial in the quaternions with one term of highest degree has a root
(Meaning $ixi+x+j$ doesn't count)
(but $x^2+ixi+x+j$ does)
This is essentially FTA but weird
 
It is true if $X=Y$ using the Neumann series. I don't know if that trick works here.
 
@orbit-stabilizer whenever we are adjoining some algebraic structure with some infinite element (often defined to be larger than any element in the structure) that infinite element is an actual infinity. Thus yes, one point compactification and extended reals use actual infinity
 
2:58 AM
@AkivaWeinberger where is induction?
 
I dunno exactly but it's somewhere
Some combination of axioms
 
@0celo7 I remember that this is true
 
Prolly Foundation in the end
Thing what prevents x={x}
 
@Daminark I can't figure out how to prove it for $X\ne Y$. Quite frustrating.
 
@AkivaWeinberger the proof of induction inside ZFC uses axiom of infinity
at least the proof that I know
 
2:59 AM
Just wanted to clarify the following question:
Let P (n) be the product of all the non-zero digits in a number n. For example P (22) = 4 and P(207) = 14. Let S be the set of all positive integers with at most 2018 digits. Find the sum of the values of P(x) where x ranges over the elements of S.
 

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