For all the talk about how Lebesgue integrals are better than Riemann integrals, we haven't learned how to actually find the integrals , only prove that they're finite
I am reading a section in my differential equations textbook and am trying to fill in the left out steps in their explananation of how to nondimensionalize the second order system $$mr \ddot{\phi}=-b\dot{\phi}-mg\sin \phi + m r \omega^{2}+mr\omega^{2}\sin \omega \cos \phi$$
Where $\dot{\phi}=\fr...
we haven't actually proved that and he said we won't, which annoys me, but the Lebesgue integral is only better than the Riemann integral in cases where the latter isn't defined
Question (informal)
Is there an empirically verifiable scientific experiment that can empirically confirm that the Lebesgue measure has physical meaning beyond what can be obtained using just the Jordan measure? Specifically, is there a Jordan non-measurable but Lebesgue-measurable subset of ...
You can heuristically think about the Lebesgue integral as coming from partitioning the $y$-axis, whereas the Riemann integral comes from partitioning the $x$-axis.
Yes, DogAteMy. $\displaystyle{\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}x\,dx}$ exists Riemann, not Lebesgue.
$\frac{d \tau}{dt}=\frac{1}{T}$, but I don't know what $\frac{dg}{d\tau}$ is. It's supposed to give me $\frac{1}{T}\frac{d^{2}\phi}{d\tau^{2}}$ but I don't understand how it does that.
If $x=c(\epsilon +n)$ and $t=\epsilon -n,$ then $u_{xx}=\frac{1}{2c}(\frac{1}{c}u_{\epsilon\epsilon}\frac{1}{2c}+\frac{1}{c}u_{\epsilon n}\frac{1}{2c})$ is correct?
@TedShifrin the answer should be this $u_{xx}=\frac{1}{2c}(\frac{1}{c}u_{\epsilon\epsilon}\frac{1}{2c}+\frac{1}{c}u_{\‌​epsilon n}\frac{1}{2c})$ or this $u_{xx}=\frac{1}{2c}(u_{\epsilon\epsilon}\frac{1}{2c}+u_{\‌​epsilon n}\frac{1}{2c})$ but I don't which is the correct answer
In mathematics, domain coloring or a color wheel graph is a technique for visualizing complex functions, which assigns a color to each point of the complex plane.
== Motivation: four dimensions ==
A graph of a real function can be drawn in two dimensions, such as x and y. By contrast, a graph of a complex function (more precisely, a complex-valued function of one complex variable g : â„‚ → â„‚) requires the visualization of four dimensions. One way to achieve that is with a Riemann surface, another by domain coloring.
== Method ==
For easy visibility, complex values are represented with colors. This...
So $(g_1)_{ij}$ is the metric of $S^p\times B^q$ you're defining, whereas $(g_2)_{ij}$ and $(g_3)_{ij}$ are the usual metrics of $S^p$ and $B^q$ respectively
and $g_1$ is defined by that equation from earlier
(cont.) and thus, we still have one leftover degrees of freedom (blueness) to plot something of higher dimension. making a grand total of 6 dimensions that can be cramped onto a piece of paper
Perhaps someday I should code a quaternion explorer
@Secret Open sets are indeed atypical, in some informal sense. The thing is that of all the possible topologies on a set, typical ones have far 'more' sets that are neither open nor closed, and so a typical set in that topology is neither open nor closed.
Closure under union and finite intersection is nowhere near enough to make open sets typical.
We can't know the properties of the "rogue elements", because they don't, in fact, exist. The point is that the first four axioms don't exclude the possibility of something unexpected being in $\mathbb{N}$. Maybe $i$ is in there, or $\omega_\omega$, or a woolly mammoth. There's no way to talk about the "properties" of completely unspecified things! But we don't want woolly mammoths in $\mathbb{N}$ so we add an axiom to the effect that we only allow the right things in there. — KundorDec 23 '14 at 4:51
Well, I don't see how we can say anything about these elements, other than they don't begin at zero cause by Axiom 2.2, we have if n is a natural number, then Succ(n) is also a natural number, so n can in principle be anything
See the remark I made on KSmarts' answer, which is wrong for the reason I stated. You can see for yourself that 19 clueless upvoters do not realise it. Hurkyl's is also wrong, because he conflates properties on N (namely sentences with one parameter from N) with subsets of N. He does know better, but his answer as written is simply wrong. hardmath and Ross Millikan gave answers that are technically correct but fail to successfully address the asker's misconceptions.
Dan's answer is not only wrong but is a self-advertisement.
tbh, in my rough works, I sometimes use einstein summation notion so as to save me all that truoble of writing out the $\sums$. Only when it is an infinite sum I cannot do that because you cannot always interchange summation signs
mathematical notation has one purpose: to communicate mathematical ideas clearly to your audience. If Einstein notation is sufficient for that purpose, then it's fine. If it's not, then it's not.
To be dealt with later: Check why we cannot have a nonstandard PA model where e.g. there's a natural 0<c<1 and thus the successor of c forms another increasing well order that intercalate with $\omega$
To append $w1, w2$, since $w2$ can be formed by $\lambda x_1 x_2 x_3 \dots$, and from the basis step $w\lambda=w$: $w1\cdot(\lambda x_1 x_2 x_3 \dots)\\ (\dots(w1\cdot\lambda)x_1)x_2)x_3 \dots)$.
@BalarkaSen in Hatcher (P.138 on print, P.147 of pdf), it is claimed that an infinite dimensional CW-complex $X$ is homotopy equivalent to $T := \bigcup_{n \in \Bbb N} X^n \times [n,\infty)$
I don't believe him
in fact, the homotopy that he tried to create, forgot to specify what happens at $t=1$
Hi, is someone here knowledgeable on sparse symmetric eigenvalue problems?
I'm trying to find 200-300 lowest-lying eigenvectors of a 3M x 3M square symmetric matrix, and I am not sure if the method provided by python (eigsh, which interfaces with implicitly restarted lanczos method implemented in arpack) is the correct algorithm to use, given that k (number of eigenvectors) is so large.
Hi. Quick question. Say you have two identical right triangles whose shortest sides coincide and whose hypotenuses are perpendicular. Is there any way to find the angle between the two bases?
i cant use comments to ask for more information, because i don't have 50 reputations. will anyone do a favor for me by asking a valid question in the comment section?
@TobiasKildetoft I am weak in English.Its difficult for me to imagine the figure by writing. I need a figure of hoop in the accepted answer of math.stackexchange.com/questions/664/…
@MaryStar @Rick @MudassirMalik you've entered the room at one of the quietest times of the week. Within a few hours it should pick up in activity. (See the chart at chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/info/36/mathematics)
@Secret (was that intended for this room, or the hbar? I.e. these may not be the GR lunatics you're looking for?)
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2708676/show-that-mathbb-z-20-mathbb-z-cong-mathbb-z-2-mathbb-z-times-mathbb-z-4-m anyone here time to look at this question?