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12:00 AM
@Semiclassical This seems like something we talking about a long time ago, except we had lines instead of circular arcs
 
@Semiclassical I just realized
 
For all the talk about how Lebesgue integrals are better than Riemann integrals, we haven't learned how to actually find the integrals , only prove that they're finite
 
i wonder if that will change
 
These are incredibly hard to draw by hand
 
12:06 AM
Dec 5 '16 at 21:46, by Semiclassical
user image
Dec 6 '16 at 4:24, by Semiclassical
user image
Dec 6 '16 at 4:31, by Semiclassical
user image
 
handdrawn versions
 
0
Q: Second derivative of $\phi$ in nondimensionalization problem.

ALannisterI am reading a section in my differential equations textbook and am trying to fill in the left out steps in their explananation of how to nondimensionalize the second order system $$mr \ddot{\phi}=-b\dot{\phi}-mg\sin \phi + m r \omega^{2}+mr\omega^{2}\sin \omega \cos \phi$$ Where $\dot{\phi}=\fr...

 
One reason I exposed myself to fine art is to be able to cultivate an intuition so I can drew these labyrithine patterns easily
because it is almost impossible to drew them with purely analytical mindset
 
@GFauxPas If the Riemann integral exists, the Lebesgue integral exists and equals the Riemann integral
so the Lebesgue integral will never disagree with the Riemann integral
$\displaystyle\int_0^1\left(\begin{cases}a,&x\in\Bbb Q\\b,&x\notin\Bbb Q\end{cases}\right)\operatorname d\!x=b$
 
we haven't actually proved that and he said we won't, which annoys me, but the Lebesgue integral is only better than the Riemann integral in cases where the latter isn't defined
 
12:12 AM
48
Q: Physical meaning of the Lebesgue measure

user21820Question (informal) Is there an empirically verifiable scientific experiment that can empirically confirm that the Lebesgue measure has physical meaning beyond what can be obtained using just the Jordan measure? Specifically, is there a Jordan non-measurable but Lebesgue-measurable subset of ...

 
DogAteMy: Your statement is false for improper integrals.
 
okay that's an interesting example
 
Really? There are integrals where the Riemann integral exists but the Lebesgue integral doesn't?
 
You can heuristically think about the Lebesgue integral as coming from partitioning the $y$-axis, whereas the Riemann integral comes from partitioning the $x$-axis.
Yes, DogAteMy. $\displaystyle{\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}x\,dx}$ exists Riemann, not Lebesgue.
 
right Ted I've been shown that and it's interesting, but where are all these integrals that can't be Riemann integrated
well that's "improperly riemann integrable" you could argue, Ted
 
12:14 AM
having said that, it is unclear to me if Lebesgue integrals can arise naturally in analysis without introducing the full Borel algebra
 
I said improper integral, @GFaux.
 
@TedShifrin That's so weird. Is it because the Lebesgue integral is defined as the positive area minus the negative area, giving $\infty-\infty$?
 
"exists Riemann, not Lebesgue."
 
DogAteMy: For Lebesgue, $f$ is integrable iff $|f|$ is integrable.
 
I just need to know, if $t=\tau T$, how do I show by using the chain rule that $\frac{d^{2}phi}{dt ^{2}}=\frac{1}{T^{2}}\frac{d^{2}\phi}{d\tau^{2}}$
 
12:15 AM
Start with first derivative, @ALannister.
 
@GFauxPas $\displaystyle\int_0^1\left(\begin{cases}a,&x\in\Bbb Q\\b,&x\notin\Bbb Q\end{cases}\right)\operatorname d\!x$ can't be Riemann integrated if $a\ne b$
 
@Ted I already have that.
that was easy.
 
OK, do it again (applying to the first derivative).
 
@TedShifrin I don't know how!
 
thank you Akiva that's an interesting example, I hope the class does things like that
 
12:16 AM
Call $g(t) = d\phi/dt$.
Write it out for $g(t)$.
 
we did do something interesting last class
we proved Fubini's theorem and then used it to evaluate a Riemann integral
 
@GFauxPas To prove it, look at the upper and lower Riemann sums
 
I should go google the proof that the integrals agree if both defined, he said he's not going to do that proof "even though he probably should" (???)
 
To be honest, I don't know that proof
All I know is that it's true
 
or so you're told ;)
 
12:18 AM
What's an easiest example of a function that is not riemannian nor lebesgue integrable and is bounded?
 
the first derivative is $g(t)=\frac{d\phi}{dt}=\frac{d\phi}{d\tau}\frac{d\tau}{dt}=\frac{1}{T}\frac{d\ph‌​i}{d \tau}$.
 
Indicator function of a nonmeasurable set @Secret
 
You want to allow non-measurable sets, @Secret?
Oops, DogAteMy beat me.
 
Dumb question: If a function $f$ is lebesgue integrable, then its absolute value is lebesgue integrable. Proof: $||f|| = |f|$
 
Now put in $g$ instead of $\phi$, @ALannister.
 
12:19 AM
5 mins ago, by Ted Shifrin
Yes, DogAteMy. $\displaystyle{\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin x}x\,dx}$ exists Riemann, not Lebesgue.
But that's lebesgue non measurable?
 
No, the function is measurable.
 
5 mins ago, by Ted Shifrin
DogAteMy: For Lebesgue, $f$ is integrable iff $|f|$ is integrable.
@user193319
 
You need to go back to the definition of Lebesgue integrals to see that.
 
("DogAteMy" is me, to be clear)
 
But what is $\frac{dg}{d\tau}$?
 
12:20 AM
ok
 
Zee
@TedShifrin in terms of abstract algebra, do I need anything beside commtive ring theory to study AG ?
 
Modules, localization, tensor product, for starters.
 
@AkivaWeinberger Haha okay. And that theorem is true because $||f|| = |f|$; i.e., the absolute value of the absolute value is the absolute value?
 
@ALannister: It's $d^2\phi/d\tau^2$.
 
Zee
12:22 AM
@TedShifrin is there a book that covers that stuff and only that stuff ?
 
Where does the extra $\frac{1}{T}$ come from though?
 
what is AG?
 
You get a $1/T$ when you compare $dg/dt$ and $dg/d\tau$.
 
@user193319 I guess? Or use the fact that he said "iff" and not just "if"
 
I'm not a good source for questions like that, Zee.
Ugh, I need to be packing stuff for my move tomorrow ...
 
Zee
12:24 AM
@TedShifrin alright , thx anyway , I shouldn’t have avoided algebra for this long
 
I'm afraid I don't understand what you mean. I'd expect it to pop out from the chain rule or something.
 
Well, it does.
Did you read what I just said?
 
Yeah. I dont understand what you mean by compare.
 
@Semiclassical Is there any way to prove it repeats
 
Write down the chain rule again, with $g$.
 
12:27 AM
$\frac{dg}{dt}=\frac{dg}{d\tau}\cdot \frac{d\tau}{dt}$
 
Which gives?
 
Zee
@TedShifrin are the modules taken over commutive rings in AG ?
 
Certainly for the AG I know, but I'm not an algebraist.
 
$\frac{d \tau}{dt}=\frac{1}{T}$, but I don't know what $\frac{dg}{d\tau}$ is. It's supposed to give me $\frac{1}{T}\frac{d^{2}\phi}{d\tau^{2}}$ but I don't understand how it does that.
 
No, you're wrong.
I already told you $dg/d\tau = d^2\phi/d\tau^2$.
And you know that.
This crap all confuses you because we use the same letter for two different functions when we write the chain rule this sloppy way.
 
12:31 AM
Book says $\ddot{\phi}=\frac{1}{T^{2}}\frac{d^{2}\phi}{d\tau^{2}}$
 
So you have $\frac{dg}{dt} = \frac 1T \frac{dg}{d\tau}$.
Now plug in your first equation.
 
What first equation?
 
Where you started with $d\phi/dt$.
 
Hey Ted!
 
Hi Demonark
 
12:34 AM
Plug it in for what?
 
You really should be able to do this on your own.
 
I'm sorry.
 
We set $g(t) = d\phi/dt$.
 
I really should, and I'm ashamed because I can't.
$\frac{dg}{d\tau}$
 
Index 1 plus index -1, I think is what that is
 
12:38 AM
Is $\frac{d^{2}\phi}{dt d\tau}$?
 
Presumably has applications in physics
 
Yeah, that's the problem with this notation.
We're going to use different letters to get it right.
 
I'm also trying to type with one finger on an iPad and autocorrect keeps wanting to write "dog" every time I write "dg"
Ok...then what?
 
Let $h(\tau) = \phi(\tau T) = \phi(t)$.
Then $h'(\tau) = \frac{dh}{d\tau} = T \phi'(\tau T)$.
Now $h''(\tau) = T\cdot T\phi''(\tau T)$.
This is $h''(\tau) = T^2 \phi''(t)$ in their notation. Sometimes Leibniz notation is too confusing.
 
And your $h^{\prime\prime}(\tau)$ is doing the same job as my $\frac{d^{2}\phi}{d\tau^{2}}$, then?
 
12:45 AM
DogAteMy: With its moving around all the time, it's hard for me to tell, but yes, it looks that way.
Yeah, but using the same letter for a function and its composition with another function is too confusing.
 
THANK YOU!
 
Sure.
 
Yes, it is too confusing. My book uses a lot of bad notation.
 
This is standard notation in the real world.
You've taught calc 1 ... you didn't make your students be pedantic about different letters.
 
I did. But I don't remember it being this complicated.
Perhaps that's why!
 
12:48 AM
You didn't do second derivatives.
But the Leibniz notation is convenient but often leads to misunderstanding.
 
Hm.
 
Isa
If $x=c(\epsilon +n)$ and $t=\epsilon -n,$ then $u_{xx}=\frac{1}{2c}(\frac{1}{c}u_{\epsilon\epsilon}\frac{1}{2c}+\frac{1}{c}u_{\‌​epsilon n}\frac{1}{2c})$ is correct?
 
Physics example of vortex antivortex annhilation
 
You lost a sign for sure, @Isa.
 
12:51 AM
@TedShifrin yo
 
Or maybe not, @Isa. I don't know.
Yo.
 
@TedShifrin Thesis will likely be done tonight. At least a good first draft will.
 
Cool.
 
Good night, everyone!
 
Isa
@TedShifrin the answer should be this $u_{xx}=\frac{1}{2c}(\frac{1}{c}u_{\epsilon\epsilon}\frac{1}{2c}+\frac{1}{c}u_{\‌​‌​epsilon n}\frac{1}{2c})$ or this $u_{xx}=\frac{1}{2c}(u_{\epsilon\epsilon}\frac{1}{2c}+u_{\‌​epsilon n}\frac{1}{2c})$ but I don't which is the correct answer
 
12:55 AM
There should also be a $u_{nn}$ term somewhere.
Oh wait.
This is a bizarre set-up. But, yeah, you should have all three 2nd order partials.
 
Isa
yes I forgot to calculate the other partial, I think the answer is $(1/2c^2)[(1/2)u_{\epsilon\epsilon}+(1/2)u_{nn}+u_{n\epsilon}]$
is it correct? @TedShifrin
 
@TedShifrin You'd like this
Apparently it's from MoMath
I'm in the middle of another book right now so I'm not gonna check it out but it looks interesting
(No quintic equation)
 
Any here speak and read French really well, and feel like translating Laurent Schwartz's book on distributions?
anyone?
Bueller?
 
@XanderHenderson what do you need from it
 
nothing that I can't piece together from a dozen other sources
but I really would like to be able to understand the original
but the combination of French plus a really Bourbakist style makes is quite hard for me to get anything useful out of it
 
1:12 AM
@XanderHenderson there doesn't seem to be a good book on that stuff nowadays
you can piece together a somewhat complete picture from Grubb, Hormander, Yosida, Reed and Simon
But I don't think any of those have the structure theorem
 
Again, I can piece it together from a bunch of other places
Reed and Simon is good
and Joshi and Friedlander is a nice summary
but it would be nice to have an English translation
 
Isa
there is a high rep user who speaks and read french very well but he's not online now since it's 2:oo am there now..
 
if only Schwartz wrote in a language I could understand, such as English
or possibly Russian
stupid French mathematicians, writing in stupid French :(
(I'm looking at you, too, Bouligand!) $\ddot\frown$
 
Zee
1:41 AM
Distributions we invented by the Russians before Schwartz , perhaps you can read the truly original piece on distributions there
 
In mathematics, domain coloring or a color wheel graph is a technique for visualizing complex functions, which assigns a color to each point of the complex plane. == Motivation: four dimensions == A graph of a real function can be drawn in two dimensions, such as x and y. By contrast, a graph of a complex function (more precisely, a complex-valued function of one complex variable g : â„‚ → â„‚) requires the visualization of four dimensions. One way to achieve that is with a Riemann surface, another by domain coloring. == Method == For easy visibility, complex values are represented with colors. This...
 
@AkivaWeinberger thank you :)
 
2:09 AM
If people are happy with errors and typos, the thesis is done...
 
@0celo7 Congrats!
Now all you have to do is fix the typos and errors, defend it, and accept that there are no guarantees in life
 
@AkivaWeinberger I don't think there's a defense for honors theses
 
I already gave 7 seminar talks on it...that should be more than enough
 
What's the thesis equivalent of playtesting for puzzle games?
 
2:20 AM
time to do some traditional Riemannian geometry
computing curvature tensors
 
Test audiences? I guess that's the seminars
 
fuck
help
 
computing curvature tensors
 
2:21 AM
$g_1=f^{-(2p/n-1)}(f^2g_2\oplus g_3)$
ugh!
 
Just do it (dot gif)
 
Hmm. It's a conformally changed warped product.
There's formulas for these things
 
What even is the manifold
(Inb4 "plane")
 
$S^p\times B^q$
I think this guy was thinking about surgery and found this metric
 
Sphere times ball?
But not with the usual metric, with a freaky metric
 
2:25 AM
g_2 and g_3 are the usual metrics
B^q is flat, so that's nice
 
Wait, the g I know takes two indices
 
yes?
 
Oh wait I see
So $(g_1)_{ij}$ is the metric of $S^p\times B^q$ you're defining, whereas $(g_2)_{ij}$ and $(g_3)_{ij}$ are the usual metrics of $S^p$ and $B^q$ respectively
and $g_1$ is defined by that equation from earlier
 
yes
did you not learn product metrics in do carmo
 
I did, but, like, recently
and it wasn't defined with an $f$ in there
 
2:28 AM
well I'm taking the product of f^2g_2 and g_3
and then multiplying the whole thing by that other f
of course there's some abuse of notation going on
 
And finding $R$ does not look fun.
 
there's formulas for the Riemann tensor
and even the Ricci tensor
 
Obviously
But not fun ones
 
but not for the scalar curvature, which is what I need
>:(
and I don't want to have to think about how exactly one is supposed to contract things here
 
Isn't it the trace of a thingy?
 
2:32 AM
yes, but there's multiple metrics floating around
NICE
 
So is this still for your thesis or just homework
 
thesis
 
I mean I dunno what happens in grad school
 
I just want a reference for this computation
I'm not in grad school
 
Oh
Sorry, I don't really know the structure of higher education
What even is an honors thesis
 
2:34 AM
undergrad thesis
 
3:17 AM
This is less colorful, but it at least free up a degree of freedom (blue) to plot 6 dimensional functions on a piece of paper
Ideas on how coloring should be assigned:
1. Hue = Argument (Red -> Green)
 
lol, my notes
 
2. Brightness = Modulus (0-> infinity, Black -> white)
3. Saturation = contour lines
 
$F'(0)$ is injective surjective bijective
how did I conclude such a thing...hmmm
 
magic
and hope
and duct tape
 
frustrates me that there are no single word for "neither injective nor surjective functions"
In general, all mathematical objects of the form "neither A nor B" received so little love to be named
 
3:23 AM
(cont.) Then pole order and multiplicity of roots will show themselves by regions where clors cycles around
 
@Secret There is a word describing functions that do not satisfy any nice properties.
Typical function.
=D
 
so by that logic, we will call "neither open nor closed sets" typical sets ? :P
 
For geometry, it is general configuration, like in "points in general position".
@Secret Nope. "do not satisfy any nice properties".
A typical set in a typical topological space is neither open nor closed.
Typically, a typical object in a typical structure does not satisfy any typical mathematical property that typical mathematicians care about.
"typical" is an atypical property. Just to be clear.
 
well that's odd cause I often found them interesting, especially the pathological ones
 
(cont.) and thus, we still have one leftover degrees of freedom (blueness) to plot something of higher dimension. making a grand total of 6 dimensions that can be cramped onto a piece of paper
Perhaps someday I should code a quaternion explorer
 
3:29 AM
@Secret But the pathological ones are not typical either.
 
well true...
 
More accurately, the pathological ones that people define are not typical.
Such as the nowhere differentiable continuous function.
 
gah, what a garbage proof
 
by that logic, open sets are atypical unless $\text{pathological} \subset \text{atypical}$ :P
(or whatever type theoric analogue of $\subset$ is)
 
@Secret Open sets are indeed atypical, in some informal sense. The thing is that of all the possible topologies on a set, typical ones have far 'more' sets that are neither open nor closed, and so a typical set in that topology is neither open nor closed.
Closure under union and finite intersection is nowhere near enough to make open sets typical.
 
3:35 AM
hmm interesting
 
We can't know the properties of the "rogue elements", because they don't, in fact, exist. The point is that the first four axioms don't exclude the possibility of something unexpected being in $\mathbb{N}$. Maybe $i$ is in there, or $\omega_\omega$, or a woolly mammoth. There's no way to talk about the "properties" of completely unspecified things! But we don't want woolly mammoths in $\mathbb{N}$ so we add an axiom to the effect that we only allow the right things in there. — Kundor Dec 23 '14 at 4:51
lololololol
 
@Secret That remark is wrong.
 
Well, I don't see how we can say anything about these elements, other than they don't begin at zero cause by Axiom 2.2, we have if n is a natural number, then Succ(n) is also a natural number, so n can in principle be anything
 
3:51 AM
See the remark I made on KSmarts' answer, which is wrong for the reason I stated. You can see for yourself that 19 clueless upvoters do not realise it. Hurkyl's is also wrong, because he conflates properties on N (namely sentences with one parameter from N) with subsets of N. He does know better, but his answer as written is simply wrong. hardmath and Ross Millikan gave answers that are technically correct but fail to successfully address the asker's misconceptions.
Dan's answer is not only wrong but is a self-advertisement.
 
ok come on latex
 
Zee: why? I am not gonna write $\sum$ everywhere
 
@EricSilva case in point ^
 
Zee
It’s just such a dirty thing to do , what? You gonna save 5 cents worth of ink
 
that's such an ignorant comment
 
Zee
3:53 AM
Just write things properly
 
imagine the insane number of $\sum$ you need to write in every line if Einstein never invented his summation convention
 
Zee
Beats having to decipher what you intended to say
 
I don't think Zee is a real person
 
Zee
This is math not mystical physics , you have to be explicit
 
lol looks like you're not smart enough for diff geo. sucks
 
3:55 AM
I don't think that we should be advocating capital punishment for the use of a particular notation
you might want to consider moderating your tone, @Zee
 
Zee
Using that notation is akin to mathematical terrorisim
So am sticking to it
 
Yeah, I'm forced to conclude that you don't know what you are talking about... equating notation to terrorism? Get a grip, guy.
 
I concluded that long ago, @XanderHenderson. He only knows buzzwords and inflammatory statements.
 
tbh, in my rough works, I sometimes use einstein summation notion so as to save me all that truoble of writing out the $\sums$. Only when it is an infinite sum I cannot do that because you cannot always interchange summation signs
 
@Secret if you're Wald, you can do infinite sums with Einstein notation.
 
3:59 AM
but how, you will need some symbol to denote you are summing to infinity without making unjustified swapping of sumation signs?
(No I have not read Wald yet)
 
mathematical notation has one purpose: to communicate mathematical ideas clearly to your audience. If Einstein notation is sufficient for that purpose, then it's fine. If it's not, then it's not.
 
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}a_k \sum_{m=0}^{\infty} b_mc_ke_m$$
which omitting the sums, it has to be summed this way: $a_k(b_mc_ke_m)$ and you cannot pull anything out the bracket otherwise you get a wrong answer
 
of course, I'm the sorta guy who appreciates diagrammatic notation....
 
uh wait a sec... I think I wrote the wrong thing...
$$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\sum_{m=0}^{\infty}a_kc_kb_me_m \text{ vs } \sum_{m=0}^{\infty}\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}a_kc_kb_me_m$$
is what I am trying to talk about
 
@0celo7 that seems the exception rather than the rule, though.
 
4:06 AM
what does Wald summation look like?
 
for the most part, einstein summation is confined to finite sums.
 
4:19 AM
does a "mathematician to be" need to know (for example) the proof of splitting lemma from heart?
 
To be dealt with later: Check why we cannot have a nonstandard PA model where e.g. there's a natural 0<c<1 and thus the successor of c forms another increasing well order that intercalate with $\omega$
 
 
1 hour later…
5:35 AM
I have trouble understand this
why there is a $x$?
when I concatenate w1w2
 
5:49 AM
comments welcome
@Adeek
 
6:08 AM
This answer saved me!
To append $w1, w2$, since $w2$ can be formed by $\lambda x_1 x_2 x_3 \dots$, and from the basis step $w\lambda=w$: $w1\cdot(\lambda x_1 x_2 x_3 \dots)\\
(\dots(w1\cdot\lambda)x_1)x_2)x_3 \dots)$.
 
Zee
That looks nice @0celo7
 
7:02 AM
Why the word 'disjoint' is emphasized?
ohhh
I got it, $T_1,T_2$ should not be the same!
 
7:39 AM
@BalarkaSen in Hatcher (P.138 on print, P.147 of pdf), it is claimed that an infinite dimensional CW-complex $X$ is homotopy equivalent to $T := \bigcup_{n \in \Bbb N} X^n \times [n,\infty)$
I don't believe him
in fact, the homotopy that he tried to create, forgot to specify what happens at $t=1$
 
Hi, is someone here knowledgeable on sparse symmetric eigenvalue problems?
I'm trying to find 200-300 lowest-lying eigenvectors of a 3M x 3M square symmetric matrix, and I am not sure if the method provided by python (eigsh, which interfaces with implicitly restarted lanczos method implemented in arpack) is the correct algorithm to use, given that k (number of eigenvectors) is so large.
 
8:07 AM
just solve the characteristic polynomial :P
 
wait, that is not serious right?
 
8:23 AM
Hi. Quick question. Say you have two identical right triangles whose shortest sides coincide and whose hypotenuses are perpendicular. Is there any way to find the angle between the two bases?
 
Can you think of an example for a vector bundle $E \to B$ where you can visualize the $H^*(B)$-module structure on $H^*(E)$ given by the cup product?
Or in some way get an idea of what its doing
 
Was that for me? If it was, I don't really know what that means, so no lol. Sorry
 
8:39 AM
@KrisWalker Was not supposed to be a reply to you :)
 
I figured haha
 
8:57 AM
@LeakyNun It works, see proposition 0.16 in page 15
It's a standard thing
I can't be arsed to explain it right now in more detail though
 
@BalarkaSen so what is the map from $X$ to $T$?
 
I have 0 time to explain anything to you in any more detail right now
If you haven't figured it out by 6th of May, ask me then
 
How many exams do you have to do? @Balarka
 
9:14 AM
Hello!!

Does someone of you have an idea about my question: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2708442/one-sided-significance-test-essay-key-question ?
 
 
1 hour later…
10:40 AM
Howdy... anybody here with 50 reputations?
 
How do I prove this?
 
?
i cant use comments to ask for more information, because i don't have 50 reputations. will anyone do a favor for me by asking a valid question in the comment section?
 
@MudassirMalik on what question?
 
10:58 AM
@TobiasKildetoft I am weak in English.Its difficult for me to imagine the figure by writing. I need a figure of hoop in the accepted answer of math.stackexchange.com/questions/664/…
@TobiasKildetoft ?
 
12:03 PM
Someone please answer, I posted a similar question on the main site, but all I'm getting is downvotes
 
12:31 PM
Answer my goddamn question you GR lunatic!
 
@MaryStar @Rick @MudassirMalik you've entered the room at one of the quietest times of the week. Within a few hours it should pick up in activity. (See the chart at chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/info/36/mathematics)
@Secret (was that intended for this room, or the hbar? I.e. these may not be the GR lunatics you're looking for?)
 
obviously, my frustration is delocalised
and btw, only the CTC guy, 0celo has nothing to do with it
the three people you ping are not GR people, so that naturally rules them out
 
@Secret The triple-ping has nothing to do with you. (Sorry, it was a badly executed Star Wars reference.)
 
noted
 
1:04 PM
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2708676/show-that-mathbb-z-20-mathbb-z-cong-mathbb-z-2-mathbb-z-times-mathbb-z-4-m
anyone here time to look at this question?
 
1:16 PM
(nvm)
 
1:53 PM
@Sha first notice that $7$ has order 4 and its powers are $1,7,9,3$ and $11$ has order 2 and its powers are 1 and 11
Now all the primes under 20 that are coprime with 20 (ie 3, 7 and 11) are in the image of your morphism, thus the image is $\Bbb Z /20\Bbb Z$
The orders of $7$ and $11$ tell you your map is compatible with projection of $\Bbb Z^2$ on $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z\times \Bbb Z / 4\Bbb Z$
The cardinality of $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z\times \Bbb Z / 4\Bbb Z$ is 8, which is also that of $\Bbb Z/20\Bbb Z$, meaning it's an isomorphism
(assuming you know it's a morphism already)
 
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