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5:01 PM
Why do we want a 3D version?
(Was that in response to Secret or to me?)
 
you, but not very clearly.
but I was misunderstanding what dyadic rationals were :P
Having actually looked up the definition, there's no need for anything 3D.
 
@AkivaWeinberger Indeed, we have discussed this uncountable chain solution of yours with steamyroot and alessandro about 2 months ago
 
Oh, so we have
…Wait, did I use the same exact image then?
Whoops
 
yup, you did
 
Now I'm wondering if you could do 3D Ford circles though
Ford spheres
 
5:09 PM
Speaking about set theory, recently due to trying to understand what admissible ordinals are, I end up reading this:
In mathematics, model theory is the study of classes of mathematical structures (e.g. groups, fields, graphs, universes of set theory) from the perspective of mathematical logic. The objects of study are models of theories in a formal language. A set of sentences in a formal language is called a theory; a model of a theory is a structure (e.g. an interpretation) that satisfies the sentences of that theory. Model theory recognises and is intimately concerned with a duality: It examines semantical elements (meaning and truth) by means of syntactical elements (formulas and proofs) of a corresponding...
It's pretty cool, though, and I am suprised that the use of the word "theory" can be made somewhat analogous to the word "theory" in physics
 
Model theory (or whatever tiny bit of it I know) is great
 
The rough analogy is as follows:
Physics: Theory/models predict what happens in nature
Mathematics: A model is a structure that satisfy a theory, so in a sense, theory in mathamatics played the role of nature in physics, and structures/models in mathematics played the role of physical models in physics
 
I took a five day class on it at MathCamp
Maybe I just like it because the instructor was amazing
(Shoutout to the amazing Noah Schweber, who uses MSE by the way)
@Secret I gotta say, though, the phrase "the theory of dense linear orders" feels strange
(Fun fact, all countable models of the theory of dense linear orders without endpoints, aka DLO I think, are isomorphic)
(I think I've mentioned that before but not with that terminology)
 
countably infinite?
 
You can't have a finite dense linear order, so it doesn't matter
You can't have a finite linear order that has no endpoints either
An example of a dense linear order without endpoints is $\Bbb Q$
 
5:18 PM
ah right, because the necessary condition $\forall x,y, x < y \exists z : x < z <y$ will guarentee infinite number of elements anyway
 
Right, that's one statement of the theory
I forget whether "theory" is like the ordered pair of (alphabet, axioms) or if it's just the set of axioms
or if it's the set of all statements provable from the axioms
 
I like questions which I can answer with 6-word hints, heh.
 
What question?
 
alphabets in a formal language can include operators and relations such as =, <
 
"Just do the frickin' problem, dumbo"
@Semiclassical
 
5:21 PM
It's a linear algebra problem, with the hint being "Take the determinant of both sides"
I could probably even just have done "Consider the determinant."
 
@Semiclassical "…and shove it up your —!"
 
(They were given a matrix and asked whether it could be written as $ABA^{-1}B^{-1}$. The matrix doesn't have determinant 1 or 0, so...)
 
Oh cool
 
Meanwhile, I still cannot remember the sufficient condition for a dense set. In general, I cannot recall anything I don't fully understood unless it sounds "interesting" enough (the converse is not true either due to memory fade)
 
Does the converse hold?
@Semiclassical It can't have determinant 0
 
5:22 PM
...well, no, no it couldn't. derp
 
because $A^{-1}$ and $B^{-1}$ exist
 
yeah.
This is why short hints are better: They prevent me from saying too much :P
 
"Do this, do det"
 
"Do det to dis"
Though now I do wonder: Can every matrix of determinant 1 be factorized that way?
Just to be clear, what are the two directions?
Certainly $\det (ABA^{-1}B^{-1})=1$.
 
The converse is what you just said, sorry
 
5:26 PM
mmkay
 
If every matrix of determinant 1 can be written in that form
Assume everything's diagonalizable maybe?
 
"det=1 is a necessary condition, but is it sufficient?"
I feel like I've seen this question before.
 
It is if you are working with finite dimensional vector spaces
 
Does determinant even make sense otherwise
 
hi
is this correct?
 
5:28 PM
Hai
 
p(nx) = n . p(x)
 
:))
 
In mathematics, the Fredholm determinant is a complex-valued function which generalizes the determinant of a matrix. It is defined for bounded operators on a Hilbert space which differ from the identity operator by a trace-class operator. The function is named after the mathematician Erik Ivar Fredholm. Fredholm determinants have had many applications in mathematical physics, the most celebrated example being Gábor Szegő's limit formula, proved in response to a question raised by Lars Onsager and C. N. Yang on the spontaneous magnetization of the Ising model. == Definition == Let H be a Hilbert...
 
laptop battery is running low; once it dies, I'm going to get lunch.
 
5:28 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Not generally, no (thought it might for bounded operators, I am not an operator theorist)
 
What's $p$? @parvin
 
@Secret hissss
 
Ahh, and that link seems to confirm my guess
 
Fredholm determinants are something I should probably understand but I really don't
 
@AkivaWeinberger probability
 
5:29 PM
Ohh
 
Mostly because I know a lot about Szego's limit formula and its extensions
 
NB, I don't really understood what I found except at the superficial level. To understand that I often need to do some heavy reading
 
I don't remember much probability. Is $x$ a random variable? @parvin
I know the expected value is linear, so E(nx)=nE(x) if n is a constant and x is a random variable
 
@parvin If $p$ denotes a probability then that equality will hardly ever be true
 
2
Q: How to determine the trace and determinat of a differential operator?

SRSHow to determine the trace and determinant of the operator like $\Box$ or $\nabla^2$ etc. But first of all how to find the same for the simpler operator $\frac{d}{dx}$? I proceeded as follows. What basis functions should I choose- $\{e^{ikx}\}$ or $\{\delta(x-x^\prime)\}$? Since, the first basis ...

 
5:31 PM
what if it is the pr of independent events?
 
@parvin That does not make sense on its own
 
Where I've run into Fredholm determinant stuff is when one wants to consider the spectrum of a structured matrix as the dimensionality of said matrix goes to infinity
But the math gets tough quite fast
 
@AkivaWeinberger yes that's why I wanna know if it's true for p or not, for we have E[nx]=$\sum nx.p(nx) = n * \sum x*p(nx)

then what will happen to p(nx)?
 
@Typhon Say $p$ has rational coefficients, and $p(x)=0$. Find a polynomial $q$ with rational coefficients with $q(x^2)=0$.
(^Unrelated. Different $p$)
 
Meanwhile in chemistry: One of my calculations said my complex don't like benzene. The stable structure end up having the bezene lying 3A away from the Rhodium complex in question
 
5:34 PM
Probabilities are not linear functions of their indices
 
How do you pronounce the second "i" in sacrifice (the noun) ?
(#math.stackexchange)
 
@Semiclassical Do people in chemistry actually shorten it A?
@Secret I mean (wrong ping)
 
what do you mean ? @Semiclassical
 
No, its actually Å
 
@Secret Ahh, good
 
5:36 PM
@Astyx Like in "price"
 
what does it have to do with p(nx)=n(px) ? @Semiclassical
 
(I sometimes type A because I am too lazy to find the letter)
 
@AkivaWeinberger Right, that's what I thought
 
@Secret Just switch to a Nordic keyboard then :)
@parvin Because that is linearity
 
(which, in my accent, is slightly higher in the mouth than the vowel in "prize," but whatever) @Astyx
 
5:36 PM
my point is that that condition is not something which is in general true
 
Anyway, this calculation suggests I can rule out arenes as ligands to these complexes
 
@AkivaWeinberger And in no context can it be said the same way the first one is right ?
 
What, like sacriffiss?
No
 
Indeed, I'm not sure off the top of my head whether any distribution works that way
 
It's the "hat" vowel, "fit" vowel (or maybe a schwa I guess), and the "price" vowel, in that order @Astyx
 
5:38 PM
@AkivaWeinberger Cause one of my english examiner said it so, and it really confused me
 
I've never heard that
I mean, could be a regional thing
 
@AkivaWeinberger Definitely not the same vowel as in "fit"
 
She was possibly wrong, she was obviously french
 
more like the vowel in "grit"
 
I pronounce those the same?
@Astyx Maybe she was confusing it with "edifice"
 
5:40 PM
@AkivaWeinberger now there you have the same vowel as in "fit" both times
 
@AkivaWeinberger That's a possibility
 
@AkivaWeinberger @Astyx Obligatory xkcd xkcd.com/1816
 
@TobiasKildetoft OK, but I don't know how else you'd pronounce "grit"
Where are you from?
 
@AkivaWeinberger Denmark
 
My math oral exam this morning : let $f:\Bbb R^2\to \Bbb R^2$ be $1$-lipschitz for the euclidean norm. Prove that for all $x$, ${f^{\circ n}\over n}$ converges to a limit $l$ that does not depend on $x$.
You have 35 minutes
 
5:45 PM
I don't think I would even be able to make the same vowel sound as in "fit" with the consonant sounds on "grit". It would come out as "griit"
 
There are oral exams in maths??
 
"Epitome"'s "i" is pronounced the same way as "fit" right ?
 
hello
 
@Secret Many
Hi
 
5:48 PM
what does it mean for primes to have arithmetic sequences if arbitrary size? more specifically does this mean countably infinite sized arithmetic sequences?
 
The answer to the second question is no
 
@shaihorowitz I don't think anyone claims that the primes have arithmetic sequences. Do you mean primes in arithmetic sequences?
 
yeah probably what i mean
"there exist arbitrarily long sequences of primes in arithmetic progression"
 
Say a big number
 
4
 
5:50 PM
There exists an arithmetic sequence of primes of that length
 
Wooow :o
 
@Astyx why doesnt this imply a countably infinite progression
 
@shaihorowitz Consider this sequence
1,(skip),3,4,(skip),6,7,8,(skip),10,11,12,13,(skip),etc.
(fixed)
So, like, 1,3,4,6,7,8,10,11,12,13,…
That contains consecutive sequences of arbitrary length but no infinitely long consecutive sequence
I realize again I messed up because that doesn't guarantee against arithmetic sequences of common difference other than 1
 
Hello guys
 
How about this: 1, 10, 11, 100, 101, 102, 1000, 1001, 1002, 1003, 10000, 10001, 10002, 10003, 10004, etc.
 
6:00 PM
I have got a quick question
 
That should have arbitrary long arithmetic sequences but no infinitely long one ^
@shaihorowitz
 
what would be the formula to calculate % of number 40 if 0 is 30 and 100 is 70
 
So if the input is 0, the output is 30; if the input is 100, the output is 70; and you want to know what input has an output of 40? @Revenant
(I think that's what you mean; this isn't percents)
 
could you rephrase? @Revenant
 
hmm I'm thinking of what would be best way to ask
between 30 - 70 what would 40 be in %
 
6:05 PM
I don't know what you mean by % here
Did my rephrasing of the question above make sense? ^
 
hmm no, not really
I mean if min number would be 0 and max number would be 100 than given input:40 would be 40%
what if the min number would be 30 and max number would be 70, what would given input: 40 be in %?
 
So, like, 50 (which is exactly halfway between 30 and 70) would be 50% of the way?
 
yes
 
So how far is it from 30 to 70
70-30=40 units, right?
 
right
 
6:09 PM
Now, the number 40 (from the question) is 10 units away from 30
So that's 10 units out of a possible 40 units
 
math.stackexchange.com/questions/2353840/why-is-enx-nex/… lol, the answer that doesnt address the OP's question got +4 and my answer got +0 :P
 
What percent is the fraction 10/40?
 
Such is life
 
ah that makes sense @AkivaWeinberger thank you
 
@Revenant So the answer is…?
 
6:11 PM
25 @AkivaWeinberger :)
 
Yep.
And I think the right way to phrase it would be,
 
thank you very much :)
 
40 is 25% of the way from 30 to 70
 
@shaihorowitz I guess your question was answered (sorry, I was away)
 
I think "of the way between" works as well
This is vaguely relevant to the notion of a convex combination, I guess
(Only vaguely)
 
6:14 PM
@Astyx no i'm still not sure i understand why it isnt implied to have a progression of countably infinite size
 
What about my example? @shaihorowitz
1, 10, 11, 100, 101, 102, 1000, 1001, 1002, 1003, 10000, 10001, 10002, 10003, 10004, etc.
You can see it has arithmetic progressions of arbitrary size
but no infinite progression
 
@shaihorowitz Let's take a different thing: a sequence with arbitrarily long sequences of 1's but no infinite sequence of 1's.
 
Whatever the common difference is in your arithmetic progression, it'll eventually get swallowed by the huge ever-increasing jumps in the sequence
 
i'm not sure how to imagine such a sequence
 
10110111011110111110…
 
6:16 PM
@shaihorowitz just take 1011011101111011111...
 
Like that? @TobiasKildetoft
 
sniped
 
its the ... thats the problem why cant i claim that at spot omega there is a string of omega ones
 
There is no spot omega.
There's no "end".
Every single number in that string is a finite distance away from the start.
 
6:22 PM
to make it clear, its the definition of aribitraily long that i'm getting stuck with i think
i take it to mean give me an integer and i can give you a larger integer, and im trying to reconcile omega as an integer that has the property that given any two integers with one is omega then omega is the larger integer
 
I am currently trying to develop an understanding about basic probability theory, in particular about the term of a probability distribution. Would there be someone, who would counter check my understanding?
 
@AkivaWeinberger Overdramatic music
evil laughter
 
@Imago i think you're good to go
 
ok
 
@shaihorowitz arbitrarily long means that for any natural number there is a sequence with at least that length
and omega is not an integer
 
6:29 PM
got to work on my ordinal axioms
 
I saw some teacher said E[X] is equal to "mean" , why is that? shouldn't it be equal to average?
 
@parvin what is a mean
 
Mean means the same thing as average
 
most of the time
 
theres also more than one type of mean
 
6:36 PM
more then one type of average
 
^
 
but "average" refers to things other than "mean"
as well
 
We usually say expectancy in this case
 
or expeCted VaLue
except without hitting the caps lock key randomly
 
ExPeCtEd vAlUe
 
6:37 PM
lol
 
integral from a to b of P(x)/(b-a)
 
Not necessarilly, that's if you have continuous probabilities
 
@shaihorowitz If you're a nonnegative integer, you're an ordinal, but the reverse is false
Most ordinals are not integers. All integers are finite.
(Also, negative numbers are not ordinals, but that's irrelevant)
 
Are there more ordinals that are not integers ?
 
You mean the reverse? @Astyx
"Finite ordinal" is synonymous with "nonnegative integer"
 
6:42 PM
@Astyx More than what? There are so many ordinals that they don't even form a set
 
This answers my question :)
 
Oh, I misunderstood the question
 
It wasn't very well formulated
 
You can get sets of ordinals with cardinality greater than $\aleph_0$
There's a lot of ordinals
In any case, @shaihorowitz, ordinals are unrelated to the problem. Sequences are indexed by the natural numbers, not by the ordinals.
 
:/
@Astyx ow not always! just if you have "even" number (discrete) of events, thus you have avg = mean. but not always.

he said E[x] is avg (same definition) but why mean?
 
6:46 PM
@Astyx Given any set of ordinals, we can find another set of ordinals of higher cardinality.
(That's why they can't form a set, by the way)
 
@AkivaWeinberger That's cool
 
(Well, the usual argument for nonsettiness goes a bit differently but whatever)
 
I'll be back in a while, gotta fly
 
@parvin How do you define the mean? I think you might be confusing it with the median here
 
♫ Fly away, fly so fast… ♫
(Making references to things none of you could possibly know about)
> Lemma $1$. Let $X$ be a continuum [a compact, connected, Hausdorff space]. If $F$ is a non-trivial closed subset of $X$, then for every component $C$ of $F$ we have that $\text{Bd}(F) \cap C$ is non-empty.
Is there a counterexample to the above for compact noncontinuum things?
Oh wait, $X=[0,1]\cup[2,3]$ works
Is there a counterexample for non-Hausdorff but still compact and connected things?
 
7:06 PM
you are right! i'm not so used to these definitions in English. checked it it was median u r right. thanks @TobiasKildetoft
 
@parvin Yeah, there are a bunch of those terms that mean (no pun intended) similar things, and they are easy to get mixed up.
 
7:37 PM
Hey there, guys
Does anyone know how to turn this into an integral?
$\lim_{n \to \infty} \prod_{i=1}^n (1 + \frac{1}{4i-3})(1 - \frac{1}{4i-2})$
 
is anyone aware of cramers V ?
 
I'd avoid using $i$ as the index of summation t here Lucas because those look like complex numbers
 
I posted sent to some friends and they thought the same thing. I'm going to use $j$ next time
I sent*
 
7:53 PM
@AkivaWeinberger q(x) = p(x)x
that was way too easy
your point in this?
 
Maybe you should try your solution for an example.
 
@SteamyRoot hmm?
 
$p(x) = x-2$ has $p(2) = 0$. But $q(x) = xp(x) = x^2 - 2x$ has $q(2^2) = q(4) = 8 \neq 0$.
 

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