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4:00 AM
Sorry I am supposed to have the point $x$ being in $Y$
 
I have a doubt about something.
In proving the converse, should I assume $O$ exists and prove its open, or should I prove both that it exists and that it is open?
 
Hold on:
Write down exactly the converse
@PeterTamaroff write it here
 
The converse is that if $O'\subset Y$ is open then there exists an open subset of $X$ such that $O\cap X=O'$.
 
Ok
@PeterTamaroff you should learn to use $U$, $V$ and $W$
 
4:06 AM
that is what people usually use for open sets
 
$O$pen makes sense to me.
=)
 
Ok suppose $U$ is open in $Y$
 
HAHAHHA OK
 
we want to show that there is some $V$ open in $X$ such that $Y \cap V = U$
 
4:07 AM
Because $U$ is open in $Y$
@PeterTamaroff what are you doing?
 
Trying to think a solution
 
Ok.
Recall again that the open balls form a basis
that is the key
 
But I thought you were going to write something after "Because U is open in Y"
 
Since $U$ is open in $Y$
For all $x \in U$, there exists $\epsilon > 0$ such that $B_\epsilon(x) \subseteq U$
So actually I can write $U = \bigcup_{x \in U} B_{\epsilon_x}(x)$
But because $U \subset Y$
$U \cap Y = U$
SO that $U = U \cap Y = \bigcup_{x \in U} B_{\epsilon_x}(x) \cap Y$
 
I don't even...
 
4:14 AM
Ok forget it let's start again.
The key thing is the balls
 
I understand that
But in the end $U$ plays the role of the $O$ we were seeking?
 
Because $U$ is open in $Y$, for all $x \in U$, there exists $\epsilon_x$ such that $B_{\epsilon_x}(x) \subseteq U$
@PeterTamaroff I have to go
I'm going out
sorry to leave abrupt;y
but my parents are getting pissed
 
OK. Good for you.
 
When I come back I'll be here.
To help you out
 
OK. I guess I'll go to sleep in a while.
So we'll talk tomorrow.
 
4:15 AM
@PeterTamaroff what is it you are trying to prove?
 
@DavidWheeler please take over :D :D
 
@DavidWheeler Let $Y$ be a subspace of the metric space $X$. Then $O'$ is an open subset of $Y$ if and only if there exists an open ubset $O$ in $X$ such that $O'=O\cap Y$.
 
and what is your definition of "open"?
just want to be clear, because there are different possible definitions.
i am guesssing you are using a metric d to define "epsilon balls"
 
Sorry.
A set is open if it is a neighborhood of all of its points.
@DavidWheeler Yes.
And in fact I have as a theorem a set is open $\iff$ it is a union of open balls.
 
and your definition of "neighborhood"?
 
4:20 AM
@DavidWheeler A neighborhood $N$ of $x$ is a set contaning an open ball about $x$
 
ok, so "open ball" is your "primitive notion" in this case
and i am guessing that an "open ball" is $B_\epsilon(x)$
 
@DavidWheeler I prefer $B(x;\epsilon)$, and if you have to detail the metric $B_d(x;\epsilon)$.
 
of all points y where d(x,y) < $\epsilon$
 
@DavidWheeler Yes
 
now Y is a subset of X, correct?
 
4:23 AM
@DavidWheeler Yes.
 
given an epsilon ball in Y, consider the same epsilon ball in X.
 
@DavidWheeler It is an open subset of $X$.
Yes, that is what Ben just made me see. I was impressed it was that trivial.
 
right..but since an epsilon ball in Y only includes points IN Y, the epsilon ball in Y may be a smaller set
 
@DavidWheeler Smaller than what?
 
the epsilon ball in X
 
4:26 AM
Oh, yes, yes.
 
in other words, the epsilon ball in X is the set we're going to take the intersection of Y with.
you see, Y may be compact "in X"
 
@DavidWheeler Compact?
 
for example, imagine the euclidean plane, with the usual distance metric
 
OK.
$\Bbb R^2$
 
an open ball is a circular disk with no boundary
 
4:28 AM
Yes.
 
but the subspace Y may be the closed unit square.
 
@DavidWheeler OK.
 
in which case the set of all points in Y less than some distance from the point (a,b)
might not be a "full" circular disk
 
But a section.
I see
 
right...the parts "outside of Y" get "chopped off"
 
4:30 AM
@DavidWheeler Heheh, yes =)
OK. So let me try and sketch it in paper
 
i mean the definition of an epsilon ball in Y should start with $\{y \in Y:...$
and that's the important part
 
Yes, yes.
 
so we have two conditions: $d(y,y_0) < \epsilon$ AND $y \in Y$
 
I can write as follows:
Suppose $O'\subset Y$ is open in $Y$. Then it is the union of open balls in $Y$, that is $O'=\bigcup_{x \in O'} B(x;\epsilon_{x})$
 
if you "get rid" of the second part, you have a set in X...and the "and" condition is expressed by "intersection with Y"
correct so far
 
4:35 AM
Consider the same open balls in $X$, that is $O=\bigcup_{x\in O'}B(x;\epsilon_x)$. Then $O$ is an open subset of $X$ for it is the union of open balls in $X$.
 
now form the same union in X (the balls "in X" will now be "full balls")
 
Then we have that $Y\cap O=O'$, and we've proven the biconditional one way.
 
yes, and there's the desired open set.
 
Yay!
OK. Now I have to prove the converse.
 
and all you have to show, really, is that the intersection of an epsilon ball in X, with Y, is an epsilon ball in Y
you may as well consider epsilon balls that actually intersect Y, because the null set is trivially open.
 
4:38 AM
Yes. We discussed that with Ben earlier.
OK.
 
it's really quite straight-forward....the topology you're considering is called the subspace or relative topology, and it's the only one that makes any "sense"
 
So: "Assume $O\subset X$ is open in $X$. Then we may write $O=\bigcup_{x\in O}B(x;\epsilon_x)$.
Consider now $O\cap Y$. This si the same set with the restriction $x\in Y$, so this means each $B$ is "converted" into an open ball in $Y$. Then $O'=O\cap Y$ is the union of open balls in $Y$, so it is open"
 
now restrict that union to the x that lie in Y
yes
 
The same result but for closed sets follow by De Morgan law's right?
Or am I being too utopic?
Because I have to prove that too. =P
 
well, there is a wrinkle
because you can only consider finite intersections
but, what you do is consider the complements, which are open
and its essentially the same argument as before
 
4:43 AM
I see.
As a third bulletpoint I have to prove that $N'\in Y$ is a nbhd of $a\in Y$ iff there is a nbhd $N$ of $a$ in $X$ such that $N\cap Y=N'$. It shouldn't be too different, right?
Because I have defined neighorhoods in terms of open balls.
 
there's a kind of "duality": suppose Y = [0,1). while [1/2,1) is closed in Y, it's not closed in $\Bbb{R}$
yes, really all you're doing is "restricting to Y"
 
But that's not the point, since $[1/2,1)=[0,1)\cap[1/2,3]$
And the rightmost interval is closed in $\Bbb R$, right?
 
yes, but as you can see the "openness" or "closedness" of a set isn't inherent...it's totally dependent on the ambient topology
 
@DavidWheeler OK. However, I'm still in Metric Spaces. I'm studying from Mendelson's Introduction to Topology, and I'm almost done with Metric Spaces.
 
right...but a metric is a special KIND of topology
where we use the idea of metric to define "near"
("in the neighborhood of")
 
4:50 AM
This section which I just finished and now I'm solving the exercises is SUBSPACES AND METRICALLY EQUIVALENT SPACES. (It also includes Topologically equivalence)
@DavidWheeler Right.
I have that the open balls form the basis for the nbhd systems in metric spaces.
 
the thing about metrics, is...they let us turn questions about open/closed
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff In some other books, metric spaces is just one brief chapter and then topological spaces follows where you learn all the results that apply generally.
 
into facts about real numbers (inequalities)
that's kind of "special"
 
user19161
@DavidWheeler What a brilliant observation!
 
user19161
4:52 AM
Seriously I am now beginning to hate this Mendelson book approach which seems to go on and on about metric spaces forever.
 
metric spaces are what we're "used to"...the first time you pick up a ruler, you're essentially using the concept
 
user19161
@DavidWheeler Yes, but there is an excess of it in this case IMHO. Later one needs to reprove all the theorems.
 
well, metric spaces are really good for analysis, right? because you can estimate if you're "converging"
 
@JasperLoy I think @RagibZaman said Mendelson's book is good. I'm liking it.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Sure, I'm just saying I prefer other books, since I have read over 9000 books on general topology!
 
4:57 AM
And in fact this is basically preparing me for topological sapces, justc as Ben said what I'm being asked to prove is used as a definition in topologica spaces, so it is good to know the motivation and meaning of definitions....
Else what you study is an empty concept.
 
@JasperLoy one thing that often confuses people when they first start learning topology is: where did all this stuff come from? what's the motivation?
 
user19161
@DavidWheeler Exactly. Hence what I meant is one short chapter on metric spaces will do as a motivation, not a lengthy exposition like that.
 
sure you can start group theory, for example, straight from the axioms, but if you do...you might wonder: why are we doing this? how can i use it?
well, a lot of stuff you learn in calculus...makes more sense when you know about metric spaces.
 
@DavidWheeler That's true.
 
i think when i took complex analysis...we spent more than a month essentially describing the topology.
all of which could have been summed up as: "the modulus is a metric".
 
5:01 AM
@DavidWheeler HAHAH right
Well, it would also been good to know $\Bbb C$ and $\Bbb R^2$ are topologically the same, right?
 
so, sure, there's a LOT more to topology, and some very interesting things you can say in much greater generality
 
I don't understand why this questinons are so popular.
 
because, for many people, especially lay people, mathematics is "interesting things about numbers"
 
@DavidWheeler When I tell people I pursue a career in maths, they usually ask "DO you like numbers that much?
 
user19161
@DavidWheeler One starts off with numbers, strays away from numbers at a higher level, and then returns to numbers at even higher levels.
 
5:05 AM
I should just say : "NO! I hate numbers, but I like math!"
@JasperLoy Explain yourself.
 
well, one can return to numbers...but not all mathematicians do.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff For example, if you do analysis, the computations can involve using many explicit quantities. Sure they are all written as letters, but they represent numerical quantities.
 
@DavidWheeler For the result about closed sets, I can start with "Suppose $F'\subset Y$ is a closed subset of $Y$. Then $C_Y(F')$ is open..."
 
...and...
 
"...then a miracle happens"
 
5:10 AM
well the complement is just Y\F'
Y-F', if you prefer
 
Yes sorry I have old notations. $Y\setminus F'$
I have $C_Y(F')$ from Mendelson, $Y-F'$ from Halmos, and $Y\setminus F'$ from those people here that think the other two are old or lame @anon
[mean face]
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes, I need a number of miracles in my life...
 
now you have an open set U in X, such that $U \cap Y = Y\setminus F'$
what can you say about X\U?
 
I can take complementssssssssssssss
And it is closed.
 
5:16 AM
what do you suppose $(X \setminus U) \cap Y$ might be?
 
Hi @DavidWheeler
 
Hi @RajeshD
 
@DavidWheeler Let me see
 
well it's a subset of Y, right?
 
The building sentence is $x\in X:x\notin U \wedge x\in Y$
 
5:18 AM
ask yourself 2 questions: does it contain every point of F'? does it contain ANY point of Y\F'?
 
user19161
@RajeshD Hi Rajesh. You didn't say hi to me...
 
@JasperLoy Hi Jasper, sorry I missed you
 
user19161
@RajeshD It's OK. This is what sitting in a comfy chair does!
 
Hmm...but I should mention that I am lying on a bed
 
@DavidWheeler I'm stuck.
$X\setminus U\cap Y$ seems to be equal to $Y\setminus U$
 
5:24 AM
suppose y is in F'. then y is NOT in Y\F'. now $U \cap Y = Y\setminus F'$, right?
 
ami
Hi
 
so for y to be in U, it has to be both in Y (which it is) and Y\F' (which it isn't).
 
ami
I am trying to find the coefficient of [x^ny^m] in \frac{1}{(1-xy)^2(1-x)}\log(1/(1-xy))
 
so we conclude y isn't in U
 
5:26 AM
$ [x^ny^m]$ in $\frac{1}{(1-xy)^2(1-x)}\log(1/(1-xy))$
 
thus y IS in X\U
since y is in Y, we know that y is in $(X \setminus U) \cap Y$.
this shows that set contains all of F'.
on the other hand, if y is NOT in F', then y IS in Y\F'.
and thus y IS in U (since Y\F' is a subset of U).
 
@PeterTamaroff If I am stuck at something, then I would try to stop typing symbols in latex and move away from computer and spend time thinking about it cooly.
 
@DavidWheeler Don't you mean $Y\setminus U$?
 
since y is in U, y cannot be in X\U.
and thus cannot be in any subset of it, so $(X \setminus U) \cap Y$ contains NO points of Y\F'.
 
ami
5:33 AM
David, mathurl.com/c95e8xh , Please provide any pointers.
I am stuck :/
 
so...it must be the case that $(X \setminus U) \cap Y = F'$, so X\U is the closed set we seek.
 
Let me recap.
 
in other words, we take a closed set, complement, use our result on open sets.
complement again, and intersect.
 
If $y\in F'$ then $y\notin Y\setminus F'$, but since $Y\setminus F'=Y\cap U$ and $y\in Y$, it must be the case $y\notin U$. Then $y\in X\setminus U$.
 
@ami : What are these equations about. What is $H$ could you give more information about the problem.
 
5:37 AM
This proves $F'\subset X\setminus U$
 
ami
@RajeshD H_n => Harmonic number
 
yes, but do you understand that?
 
ami
@RajeshD I am trying to find the coefficient of $[x^ny^m]
 
@ami the expansion of 1/(1-xy)^2 does not involve harmonic numbers
it is simply $\displaystyle\sum_{k\ge1}k(xy)^{k-1}$
 
ami
@anon [x^ny^m]$\frac{1}{(1-xy)^2(1-x)}\log(1/(1-xy)) $
 
5:42 AM
$$\frac{1}{(1-xy)^2}=\sum_{k\ge1}k(xy)^{k-1} \\ \frac{1}{1-x}=\sum_{\ell\ge1}^\infty x^{\ell-1} \\ \log\frac{1}{1-xy}=\sum_{t\ge1}\frac{(xy)^t}{t}.$$
 
@DavidWheeler I got it.
Now I'll try to prove the converse and go to sleep
 
@ami i don't understand what you're doing...but it seems to me you might have the index range for k wrong...
 
It is almost 3 am
 
again...it's the same strategy @PeterTamaroff use complements, and the result already proved on open sets.
 
@DavidWheeler Yes.
 
5:44 AM
oh, you incorporated one of the 1/(1-xy)'s into the log 1/(1-xy) function. you could have at least said so @ami
 
ami
@anon yes.
@anon I should have explained it. But added this step here. mathurl.com/cqpyoy8
 
@DavidWheeler So I assume $F$ is a closed subset of $X$, then $X\setminus F$ is open so there is an open subset $V$ of $Y$ such that $X\setminus F \cap Y=V$
I assume the set I'm looking for is $Y\setminus V$?
 
ami
@anon I used $\sum_{k=1}^n H_k = (n+1)(H_{n+1} - 1)$
at 4th step
 
yes, now prove that $F \cap Y = Y \setminus V$
 
@DavidWheeler Can't I prove it directly by some "algebra" on $Y-((X-F)\cap Y)=Y-V$
 
5:50 AM
again, a null intersection of F and Y is trivial, so you can just focus on non-null intersections.
 
@anon Unleash you inner set theorist.
=D
 
if that is what you want to do, sure.
 
@PeterTamaroff I learned enough about ordinals to understand Asaf's answer to my set theory question recently.
 
link to question, @anon
 
5:53 AM
@DavidWheeler Next time you should say "PICS OR IT DIDN'T HAPPEN" =P
 
eh nvm
 
ami
@anon book's answer looks wrong to me.
I think I did right.
 
@anon why would i care when the question was asked?
 
ami
googling it if I can find somehwere
 
If there's an error in your calculation I don't see it.
 
5:57 AM
@anon How can I prove $Y-((X-F)\cap Y)=F\cap Y$?
Where $Y\subset X$
and $F\subset X$
 
@PeterTamaroff i'm dim-witted, so when i have to prove two sets are the same, i always show each is a subset of the other.
 
ami
please look at page no. 3
right side
 
@DavidWheeler By a Venn diagramm that is clear.
 
ami
$z^nu^m$
 
@ami Dude. $$(m+1)H_m-m=(m+1)(H_{m+1}-1).$$
 
6:02 AM
suppose y is in $F \cap Y$ ( i am tacitly assuming this is non-null).
then y is in F, so y is NOT in X\F.
 
@PeterTamaroff Clearly both sides are $\subseteq Y$, so apply $Y\setminus$ to both sides (a reversible operation)...
 
@anon What do you mean by reversible? I have that $(X-F)\cap Y=V$. I want to prove $Y\setminus V=F\cap Y$.
 
so y is not in V, which is a subset of X\F. therefore y is in Y\V.
 
@DavidWheeler Yes.
 
so $F \cap Y \subset Y \setminus V$
 
6:05 AM
By reversible I mean $A=B\iff Y\setminus A=Y\setminus B$ when $A,B\subseteq Y$.
(which follows from $Y\setminus(Y\setminus A)=A$)
 
ami
@anon lol
@anon Thanks
 
@PeterTamaroff By far the easiest route imo is setting $X=Y\cup Z$ with $Y\cap Z=\emptyset$.
 
@ami I have to show then that if $X\subset Y$ then $X\setminus F\cap Y=Y\setminus (F\cap Y)$
 
$X\setminus F=(Y\cup Z)\setminus F=(Y\setminus F)\cup (Z\setminus F)$, and $Z\setminus F\cap Y\subseteq Z\cap Y=\emptyset$
Therefore $(X\setminus F)\cap Y= Y\setminus F$, and you can do the rest.
 
But I have to prove $(X\setminus F)\cap Y=Y\setminus (F\cap Y)$
 
6:13 AM
Same thing.
 
You proved something else.
 
You don't see the equivalence of $Y\setminus F$ and $Y\setminus (F\cap Y)$?
 
on the other hand, suppose y is in Y\V. y is not in V. since y IS in Y, the only way y can be in $(X \setminus F) \cap Y$ is if y is in X\F. but $V = X \setminus (Y \cap F)$.
 
Very easy if you think in terms of venn diagrams. But if you want to prove it formally, you can use the very same idea I just pointed out. Set $F=(F\cap Y)\cup A$ with $A$ and $F\cap Y$ disjoint, then $Y\setminus F=Y\setminus ((F\cap Y)\cup A)=Y\setminus(F\cap Y)\cup Y\setminus A=Y\setminus (F\cap Y)$.
moral of the story: decompose things into binary partitions to distribute out unwanted things through setminuses.
actually that should be $\cap Y\setminus A$ rather than $\cup Y\setminus A$. edit interval is gone.
 
so y lies outside of $Y \cap F$, and y certainly isn't in the part of F that lies outside Y.
 
6:19 AM
@anon I don't =(
 
so y is not in F, but IS in X, so IS in X\F.
done.
 
Make a venn diagram with Y on the left, F on the right, and F\cap Y in the middle. The left side not including the middle is both $Y\setminus F$ and $Y\setminus (F\cap Y)$.
 
@DavidWheeler Thanks.
 
the partition i think anon is referring to is:
 
@anon Got it.
But should a Venn Diagram suffice?
 
6:22 AM
actually I should have specified $A$ and $Y$ disjoint, but whatever
it does for me!
 
$A = (A \setminus B) + (A \cap B)$
 
yes
 
where the + in this case indicates we have a disjoint union
(or "symmetric difference operation")
but, Venn diagrams are useful, because you can draw the situation, which guides your logical "worded" explanation.
and yes, if you really, really wanted to, you could make a first-order wff, and then apply de morgan's laws.
 
@DavidWheeler What is first order wff?
 
well-formed formula, propositional stuff
 
6:27 AM
well-formed formula
 
I got stuck in the other direction. I proved $F\cap Y\subset Y\setminus V$.
But I got stuck in proving the other inclusion.
I should know more set theory. Fuck me.
 
think of it this way: F is the "bigger set", right?
 
Bigger than what¿
 
Bigger than Y\V.
F lies in X, where open balls may be "bigger" than open balls in Y.
 
6:31 AM
F splits into 2 parts, clean as a whistle: the part in Y, and the part not in Y.
 
the complement of F (our open set we use our earlier result from), also splits into 2 parts as well, the part in Y, and the part not in Y.
 
the part of X\F in Y is still going to be the complement (in Y) of the part of F in Y, see?
draw a picture....draw Y as say a square on a piece of paper.
 
@DavidWheeler $Y\setminus F\subset X\setminus F$
 
6:37 AM
draw a closed set (say a closed disk) that intersects Y
 
Yes, I see it.
 
the proof is more complicated than the direct apprehension of it being true.
 
I know
But I can say since $Y\subset X$ that $(X\setminus F)\cap Y=(Y\setminus F)\cap Y$
But $(Y\setminus F )\cap Y=Y\setminus F$
 
i think you need some parentheses, somewhere
 
6:41 AM
ok...but you seem to have omitted V entirely
 
No, wait.
Now I have that $Y\setminus F=V$
So Taking complements rel. to $Y$ gives $Y\cap F=Y\setminus V$
 
remember, we took the complement just to get to open sets.
we're dealing with 4 sets here: F (the closed set in X), X\F (an open set in X), V (an open set in Y derived from X\F), and Y\V, the closed set we finally want to get from F.
 
OK. All this became a set theory problem now.
I'm off to bed. It's almost $4$ am.
I got it.
I'll finish the third bullet tomorrow.
 
wake up in the morning, and drink some coffee, and write it all out. it will be straight-forward, I promise.
 
@DavidWheeler Yes, I think it will.
Still, my sloppy set theory knowledge is something I have to work on if I intend to study topology.
 
6:47 AM
indeed. because when you get to the general definition of continuity, you have this:
f:X-->Y is continuous if whenever U is open in Y, $f^{-1}(U)$ is open in X.
 
Do you have any reccomendation? I am reading Naive Set Theory by halmos by it is scarse in exercises.
 
i'm the wrong person to ask
 
OK.
Have a good one, Wheeler.
 
@BillDubuque: Ack! I meant to hit "discard" and accidentally hit "post". I do like my formatting better than Arturo's :-)
 
7:04 AM
 
user19161
7:14 AM
@anon Is that you?
 
that's >mfw
(it's a relatively widespread gif)
 
user19161
@anon I had to look up UD for MFW, you are really a UD guy!
 
and do you know why I put a > in?
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Like I said, that will suffice unless you intend to do formal logic and set theory, in which case read Mendelson's Mathematical Logic.
 
user19161
@anon No, in fact MFW is so ill-defined that I don't bother to fathom its mysteries.
 
7:18 AM
(>greentext on 4chan!)
 
7:28 AM
Hi. Is it ok to ask math questions in here?
 
...
 
user19161
@ClarkKent Yes, but it is better to post on main if it is nontrivial.
 
I have posted it on main.
 
user19161
OK, then wait for the answer.
 
user19161
@anon Now people will be wondering why CK and JL coexist!
 
7:30 AM
I have an answer but I don't understand the comments to the question.
I don't understand why $G_{\frac12}$ is not a subgroup of $G_{\frac14}$.
Where $G_{\frac12}$ is the subgroup of $\mathbb Q$ generated by $\frac12$.
 
it's not?
 
Well this comment here says that it's not a submodule.
But submodules correspond to (additive) subgroups.
 
that comment says 1/4 is not a submodule of 1/2. however your post says 1/2 is a submodule of 1/4. both are correct.
 
Yes, right.
Oops. I messed it up in my post : (
I didn't realise I got it the wrong way around.
Thanks man.
 
yup, as Jack and Joe say
 
user19161
7:38 AM
@ClarkKent You are welcome and you can't be sure anon is a man.
 
we've been over this already. they can assume that because I drip with manly manliness. flexes muscles
 
anon is a man? he's not one of the asgard? i am disappoint.
 
Right, sorry. Thank you anon.
I think I can work it out on my own now. See you!
 
user19161
@ClarkKent Yeah, by the way I used to be Clark Kent...
 
user19161
@anon Yum yum.
 
7:46 AM
heh heh.
 
8:18 AM
@JasperLoy Probably after you saw me and liked the name because when I signed up I checked and there was no one else with my name.
 
Sup!
 
OMG! Gortaur = Ilya!
 
8:41 AM
@RajeshD No shit.
 
@JonasTeuwen ? What do you mean, Its not okay to discuss such things?
 
@RajeshD More than a year already?
 
@JonasTeuwen I found out just now
 

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