« first day (59 days earlier)      last day (3183 days later) » 

1:35 AM
Aww... I kinda missed everything...
Reading the chat log...
Good evening/morning, @snailboat!
Yes,. Same question But, Not only has no one selected the proper answer, but also, I cannot yet get my answer among the answers which has been provided. — nima 2 days ago
Interesting.
 
Anonymous
Hello!
 
Hello!
 
Anonymous
Joel Derfner's answer looks insightful.
 
Oh! "From then on" is spoken about things that are no longer going on.
That hadn't occurred to me!
 
Anonymous
nima's question looks unnecessary to me.
 
1:49 AM
I doubt if any dictionaries ever discussed this nuance.
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. Or at least, it can be.
 
nods -- Wait
> from now (or then etc.) on:
Now (or then etc.) and in the future: they were friends from that day on
Hmm... they group from then on and from now on together.
 
Anonymous
That is to say, since has a specific relationship to reference time (typically speech time), while from X on does not, so it can be used when the span does not extend to reference time
 
Oh, yes! It's better and makes more sense to me to think that way.
 
Anonymous
Don't hold me to that analysis―it's rather seat-of-my-pants :-)
 
1:52 AM
I think you're right.
I mean, from then on might not exclude now, but since then should include now.
If I understand Joel Derfner's answer correctly, it seems to suggest something a little different. It seems to suggest that from then on must exclude now.
 
Anonymous
Yes, though I think that claim is inaccurate.
 
Anonymous
I think the distinction comes from the semantics of since, which are specified more tightly.
 
nods
 
Anonymous
I just used semantics in the plural again. I'm not sure why sometimes it sounds better to me with singular agreement, sometimes with plural.
 
Anonymous
Probably just a quirk of my own idiolect I need to conquer :-)
 
1:57 AM
Because like meanings, each word can have several, perhaps. :D
BTW, this is from my personal note (its body is still blank :-) a couple days ago:
> The compatiblities of English tenses and time expressions
I just wrote that title, and couldn't write anything more. :P
 
Anonymous
Compatiblities is fun to say.
 
Anonymous
Sounds vaguely Greek.
 
> Thus: disagreeing at all with the standard dogma of B will get you branded by such people as The Enemy, and you will get generally treated with hostility and suspicion and, at worst, forcibly ejected from the B-supporter group.
Wow, just wow.
 
Anonymous
Well, clearly it's a term that surfaces in highly charged discussions online.
 
Like on reddit?
 
Anonymous
2:03 AM
Um. Perhaps!
 
Anonymous
That's somewhere I don't dare go.
 
Sometimes I fancy scraping Reddit for language analysis. :-)
 
Anonymous
Occasionally people link me to Reddit.
 
I'm pretty sure someone must've already done that.
 
Anonymous
It seems like a very low quality community, overall.
 
Anonymous
2:04 AM
But there are some knowledgeable folks there.
 
Aww... I've heard that there are some language discussion threads over there too. (Is thread the right word?)
 
Anonymous
Sure. Probably.
 
2:17 AM
Note to self: Why does 'adverbial phrase' mean a phrase that acts like an adverb but 'prepositional phrase' refers to a phrase that is headed by a preposition?
 
Anonymous
Abandon those terms.
 
Anonymous
A verb phrase is headed by a verb.
A noun phrase is headed by a noun.
An adverb phrase is headed by an adverb.
An adjective phrase is headed by an adjective.
A preposition phrase is headed by a preposition.
 
Eh? What should I use instead then!? :-)
A-ha!
 
Anonymous
VP, NP, AdvP, AdjP, PP
 
Anonymous
And so on.
 
2:19 AM
Thanks!
 
Anonymous
I've been thinking about different ways to analyze Japanese verbs.
 
Anonymous
I think one way would be to say that most have two forms.
 
Anonymous
No . . .
 
Anonymous
Well, the problem is that they have one basic stem which most stuff attaches to.
 
What are the two forms, the present and the past, perhaps?
 
Anonymous
2:27 AM
kaw- 'buy'
-----------------------------------------------------------
買わない  kaw-anai
買われる  kaw-areru
買います  ka-imasu  ← /w/ drops out before /i/
買う    ka-u     ← /w/ drops out before /u/
買え    ka-e    ← /w/ drops out before /e/
買おう   ka-oo   ← /w/ drops out before /o/
買って   kat-te   ← /w/ geminates to /t/ before /t/
買った   kat-ta   ← /w/ geminates to /t/ before /t/
買ったら  kat-tara  ← /w/ geminates to /t/ before /t/
買ったり  kat-tari   ← /w/ geminates to /t/ before /t/
 
Anonymous
Look at this range of forms (and of course there are more)
 
Anonymous
It can be said that the basic stem is kaw-
 
Anonymous
But /w/ drops out before every vowel except /a/ in Modern Japanese
 
Anonymous
Oops, somehow I typed a 胃 in there :-)
 
Anonymous
So we can treat it as kaw-imasu and kaw-u and kaw-e and kaw-oo
 
Anonymous
2:29 AM
Though the /w/ isn't actually there, physically speaking. It's dropped from the pronunciation.
 
Anonymous
But that's a really predictable pattern in Japanese.
 
Anonymous
Like, you can slur the vowels /ai/ to /ee/ in colloquial Eastern Japanese. And you could take an adjective like kowai 'scary' and pronounce it as koee. The /w/ drops out!
 
Oh!
 
Anonymous
Happens with /y/, too: tsuyoi 'strong' becomes tsuee
 
Anonymous
/y/ is limited to /ya yu yo/ and not */yi ye/
 
Anonymous
2:31 AM
So let's pretend for a moment that we can say kaw-anai and kaw-imasu are both using the stem kaw-.
 
Anonymous
And that the /w/ disappearing is just a predictable phonological phenomenon.
 
Anonymous
Now we have to explain kat-.
 
Anonymous
That's pretty easy, right? Japanese doesn't have a */wt/ consonant cluster.
 
Are all of them for the past?
 
Anonymous
So *kaw-ta becomes kat-ta. But...
 
Anonymous
2:33 AM
@DamkerngT. -ta is past or perfective.
 
Anonymous
-te, -ta, -tara, -tari, -tatte all have different meanings.
 
Anonymous
Historically, besides -te itself, all of the rest derive from contractions involving -te and aru.
 
Anonymous
And they all attached to the infinitive form of the verb:
 
Anonymous
買ひて kapi-te > 買って kat-te
 
Anonymous
kaw- used to be kap-, and you could break it down into kap-i-te
 
2:37 AM
But 買ひて is not in use anymore?
 
Anonymous
In fact, it was very regular.
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. Right.
 
Anonymous
No matter what consonant a consonant-stem verb ended with, you'd add -i to form the infinitive, and then attach -te
 
nods -- Did that just happen on its own or was there any reformation in the history of Japanese (the language)?
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. Well, you can't cause that sort of language change by edict. They just happen naturally.
 
2:38 AM
nods
 
Anonymous
You can dictate how things are written more than anything else.
 
Anonymous
For a long time, the way Japanese was written was based on how the language used to be pronounced.
 
Anonymous
Kind of like English, where we write knight but no longer pronounce the 'k' or 'gh'
 
Anonymous
And that was reformed by the government in the last hundred years, so Japanese is now written much more like the way it's pronounced :-)
 
nods -- There are a few words over here that once their original pronunciations were ruled out to be incorrect for a while. A decade later, they changed their mind and now we accept all variations.
 
Anonymous
2:41 AM
There are definitely prescriptive rules about pronunciation in Japanese.
 
Anonymous
But those can't really stop widespread language change.
 
nods -- The main problem they had to change their mind and accept all variations was because people resisted to use what's supposed to be the "correct" one. :D
 
Anonymous
With enough outcry and systematic education, you can stomp out a thing here or there, like ain't.
 
Anonymous
Not that ain't is gone, mind you. But it certainly hasn't been accepted as part of the standard dialects.
 
Anonymous
In Japanese, 雰囲気 is properly read ふんいき fun'iki. But native speakers commonly pronounce it ふいんき fuinki.
 
2:43 AM
Because it rolls out of tongue easier, I guess.
 
Anonymous
Sure. That's one of the main reasons for metathesis.
 
Anonymous
It rolls off the tongue more easily.
 
Hehe! Thanks!
 
Anonymous
Like in English, we say thirteen these days instead of threeteen.
 
Anonymous
The /r/ moved!
 
2:45 AM
It shifted its place!
 
Anonymous
Happens all the time.
 
Anonymous
We don't even know whether ask or aks came first. They've been swapping back and forth for centuries :-)
 
Anonymous
These days, only ask is standard, and if I "axe" you a question, I'm using a non-standard form.
 
Anonymous
But it just as easily could have been the other way around!
 
Anonymous
In Japanese, arata na 'new' comes from the same etymon as atara-shii 'new'
 
Anonymous
2:46 AM
Why did the /t/ switch place with /r/ in one word and not the other? Dunno! :-)
 
Anonymous
Sometimes it's hard to say why changes occur.
 
Funny how language works. :D
 
Anonymous
In Japanese, the situation with -te went from extremely regular (add -te to the infinitive form of the verb) to quite complicated.
 
Anonymous
And since those other morphemes (-ta, -tara, -tari, -tatte) are derived from contractions with -te, they ended up with the same requirements.
 
It's curious that they didn't use -ti, -tu, or even -to for these purposes.
 
Anonymous
2:49 AM
@DamkerngT. What purposes would those be?
 
I mean instead of -ta, -tara, -tari, -tatte, they could've chosen to use -ti, -tu, -to.
 
Anonymous
The reason they all have -ta is because they all come from contractions of -te aR-, and Japanese isn't fond of vowel sequences. They were basically not allowed in Old Japanese.
 
Anonymous
So -te aR- contracted to -t'aR-
 
Ahh
 
Anonymous
The capital R indicates an irregular type of conjugation which is no longer around in Modern Japanese, by the way.
 
Anonymous
2:51 AM
Basically, back then, some verbs ended in -i instead of -u.
 
Anonymous
So あり was a sentence-ending form.
 
Anonymous
That verb is still around, but it became regular. These days, it's just ar-, so it's ある in clause-final form.
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. -tu is an Old Japanese genitive marker. -to is an Old Japanese comitative marker.
 
Oh, that's interesting!
 
Anonymous
yomo-tu-kuni 'land of Hades'
 
2:55 AM
How did tu turn into no? I wonder. :D
 
Anonymous
It did not.
 
Anonymous
Japanese had multiple genitives, including ga and no.
 
Anonymous
Tu was lost.
 
Anonymous
Main clause subjects were not originally marked with ga; that was a later development.
 
Huh? Wait. It looks like tu works like of, not 's!
 
Anonymous
2:56 AM
Kuni is 'country'
 
Oh!
I guessed yomo was "land" :P
(Because yama is mountain.)
 
Anonymous
You know the store, Kinokuniya?
 
Yes, of course!
Ahh... that's the kuni.
 
Anonymous
The -ya is a suffix meaning 'shop'. Kinokuni from Kii no Kuni 'Kii Province'
 
Anonymous
Japan used to be divided into kuni, which is literally 'countries', but in English we call those historical regions 'provinces'. I don't know why.
 
Anonymous
3:00 AM
I don't know why we call them 'prefectures' today, either :-)
 
Anonymous
The Japanese name for those is different, too.
 
Anonymous
Kii Province (紀伊国, Kii no Kuni), or Kishū (紀州), was a province of Japan in the part of Honshū that is today Wakayama Prefecture, as well as the southern part of Mie Prefecture. Kii bordered Ise, Izumi, Kawachi, Shima, and Yamato Provinces. The Kii Peninsula takes its name from this province. During the Edo Period, the Kii branch of the Tokugawa clan had its castle at Wakayama. Its former ichinomiya shrine was Hinokuma Shrine. The Japanese bookshop chain Kinokuniya derives its name from the province. == Historical districts == Wakayama Prefecture Ama District (海部郡) - merged with Nagusa District...
 
It still is 'province' over here.
 
Anonymous
In Japanese, the prefectures are called 都道府県.
 
Anonymous
都道府県 = 都+道+府+県
 
Anonymous
3:01 AM
と+どう+ふ+けん
 
Anonymous
Four types of regions, each with its own name.
 
Wow, that's quite mouthful.
 
Anonymous
The collective name for them is simply the four types of regions shoved together into one compound word. :-)
 
Anonymous
But they're different.
 
Anonymous
北海道 Hokkai-dō, for example, is a 道 . In fact, the only one.
 
Anonymous
3:02 AM
You can see that in its name :-)
 
A-ha!
 
Anonymous
This distinction is entirely ignored in English.
 
Um.. that's weird.
Thailand is a unitary state in Southeast Asia. The administrative services of the executive branch of the government are regulated by the National Government Organisation Act, BE 2534 (1991) (พระราชบัญญัติระเบียบบริหารราชการแผ่นดิน พ.ศ. 2534). Under this Act, the services are divided into three levels: central, provincial and local. == Central government == The central government (ราชการส่วนกลาง) consists of ministries, bureaus, and departments (กระทรวงทบวงกรม krasuang tha-buang krom). Each of the ministries (กระทรวง krasuang) and bureaus (ทบวง tha-buang) is led by a minister (รัฐมนตรี r...
 
Anonymous
But Tōkyō, Kyōto, Ōsaka, and Hokkaidō are different from the 43 regular prefectures.
 
Anonymous
Typing all those macrons was really hard. :-)
 
3:05 AM
There is more information in the English version than in the Thai version!
 
Anonymous
Hah!
 
Anonymous
English Wikipedia is often the most informative Wikipedia.
 
Anonymous
Even if some of the information tends to be wrong.
 
Anonymous
Occasionally you can find more information about things in Japan on English Wikipedia, too! Although it tends to be the other way around.
 
I was trying to locate the English words used for various "(historical) subdivisions".
 
Anonymous
3:07 AM
Names for stuff like that are always confusing for me.
 
Anonymous
Canada used to be a Dominion.
 
Anonymous
These days, it's just a Canada.
 
Oh, you mean there was the word Dominion in the name of Canada?
 
Anonymous
Yep.
 
Anonymous
The Dominion of Canada.
 
3:08 AM
Hah! That's completely new to me!
 
Anonymous
A Dominion of the British Empire. But no longer.
 
Anonymous
(By the way, I'm being goofy by capitalizing Dominion over and over.)
 
Anonymous
So I was thinking about how to handle the -te thingy, 'cause you need a separate rule for each subclass of consonant-stem verb.
 
Anonymous
Like, for example, 泳ぐ oyog- 'swim'.
 
Anonymous
It regularly forms oyog-anai, oyog-imasu, oyog-u, oyog-eru, oyog-oo, and so on.
 
3:13 AM
oyog-utte, perhaps?
 
Anonymous
But when you attach any of those -te thingies, both the stem and -te itself change:
 
Anonymous
oyoi-de, oyoi-da, oyoi-dara, oyoi-dari, oyoi-datte
 
Hah!
 
Anonymous
The /g/ vanishes, and /t/ turns into /d/!
 
Anonymous
And we need that rule for every single /g/-stem verb.
 
Anonymous
3:15 AM
kag-u 'sniff' becomes kai-da 'sniffed', and so on.
 
Anonymous
Happens more or less the same way with /k/-stem verbs, except the /t/ doesn't get voiced:
 
Anonymous
kak-u 'write' becomes kai-ta 'wrote'
 
Anonymous
Now, you might say I should put another dash in there:
 
Anonymous
kag-i-ta > ka-i-da
 
Anonymous
kak-i-ta > ka-i-ta
 
Anonymous
3:17 AM
The velar /k/ or /g/ vanishes, and in the latter case the /t/ is voiced to /d/ to represent the voicedness of the missing /g/
 
Do they have to teach these as rules for native children?
Or does it just happen intuitively?
 
Anonymous
Oh, of course not. Native speakers learn procedurally.
 
Oh, like by rote and drills?
 
Anonymous
No, they don't need to be taught, they just imitate their parents.
 
Ahh... I misunderstood the procedurally part.
 
Anonymous
3:19 AM
They know 書く becomes 書いた. The confusing part is when they get older and are confronted with historical material.
 
Anonymous
Here's a set of slides designed to show (one analysis of) the processes to native speakers.
 
I love the cogs (sort of?) in slide 2!
 
As a whole, it looks like a cryptex in The Da Vinci Code.
Hah! That's very complicated!
 
Anonymous
3:23 AM
More cogs for you to enjoy :-)
 
LOLROTF -- (just saw the last page!)
 
Anonymous
See, linguists use romanization for morphology in Japanese, too.
 
Anonymous
English speakers often seem to think that romanization is something "made up for learners" that has no application.
 
Anonymous
Well, it's true that most people would be better off getting used to Japanese writing as soon as possible!
 
Anonymous
I think of romanization as something that's more useful for advanced students :-)
 
3:26 AM
Oh, the example on the last page makes me think of this phrase: tabemono hakobimasu
 
Anonymous
I think that would very often be tabemono=o hakobimasu
 
Anonymous
食べ物を運びます
 
Anonymous
The difference in pronunciation being the vowel /o/ being held twice as long
 
I can remember only vaguely. But on second thought, I think /o/ was long indeed.
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. Imaizumi has made his book available online: kyorin-u.ac.jp/univ/user/foreign/nikodebu/2000prtpdf/…
 
Anonymous
3:36 AM
The charts have explanations! :-)
 
Anonymous
They're 3D visualizations of Japanese morphosyntactic structure.
 
Oh!
 
Anonymous
But it's all in Japanese.
 
Who is the target audience?
 
Anonymous
Well, linguists? :-)
 
3:37 AM
Oh, hehe!
Bookmarked for later, then. :D
 
Anonymous
Anyone who wants to learn about Japanese morphosyntax, I suppose.
 
Hello, @Man_From_India!
 
Good morning @DamkerngT.
 
Anonymous
Hello!
 
I think we've arrived at two good conclusion about from then on.
10 hours ago, by Catija
Well, there is one big difference... "Since then" doesn't include "then". "from then on" does.
2 hours ago, by Damkerng T.
I mean, from then on might not exclude now, but since then should include now.
 
3:42 AM
Ahhh that's what one of the answers in ELU said.
 
Hmm... mathematically, from then on is [-1,0) or [-1,0], whereas since then is (-1,0].
 
Anonymous
Half-closed intervals are the best intervals.
 
G2g... My cab arrived! See u soon :-)
 
See you!
 
Anonymous
@Man_From_India See you!
 
3:50 AM
Certainly you can... it just depends on how you're using it. If you say, "All of my relatives came to my wedding." That would, by definition, include your parents and siblings. — Catija 45 mins ago
@Catija That's a good enough answer for me!
 
Anonymous
So if we start with the idea that verbs just have one stem each,
 
Anonymous
Then we still have to account for the /t/-morphemes' attachment causing various changes
 
Anonymous
Including the irregular verbs kow- and tow-
 
Anonymous
For aru, which is defective (*ar-anai cannot be formed)
 
Anonymous
For kureru, which has an irregular imperative
 
Anonymous
4:00 AM
For nasaru, kudasaru, ossharu, irassharu, which lack imperatives and have irregular polite forms (/r/ disappears before -imasu)
 
Anonymous
For suru and kuru
 
Anonymous
For the disappearing /w/ in /w/-stem verbs
 
Anonymous
Ignoring suru and kuru, we end up with at most four forms: the regular stem, the pre-/t/-stem, a special stem before -imasu, and the /w/-less stem
 
Eh, what about the /g/ or /k/-less form?
 
Anonymous
kaw- has the surface stems kaw-, ka-, kat-, while kow- has the surface stems kow-, koo-, and kudasaru has the surface stems kudasar-, kudasa-, kudasat-
 
Anonymous
4:05 AM
All of that can be accounted for without actually listing any of those as separate stem forms :-)
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. That would be the pre-/t/ stem.
 
Anonymous
But there's a problem there.
 
Anonymous
If there is such a thing as a pre-/t/ stem, then you have 嗅ぐ kag- and 書く kak- with the stems kai- and kai-.
 
Anonymous
But one gets -de and one gets -te.
 
Anonymous
So that explanation doesn't appear to work very well.
 
4:06 AM
Based on the voiced vs. voiceless quality, I think.
 
Anonymous
Right.
 
Anonymous
If you think of it as kak-i-teka-i-te and kag-i-teka-i-de
 
Anonymous
In Japanese, this form that appears before -te is called the 音便形 onbin-kei 'euphonic form'
 
Anonymous
Where 音便 onbin is the Japanese term used to describe sound changes
 
Anonymous
More traditionally, it's called the 連用形 renyō-kei 'ad-verbal form', because it's a sound changed version of the original 連用形
 
Anonymous
4:09 AM
In the traditional grammar, 嗅ぐ kagu has the 連用形「嗅ぎ」 kagi
 
Anonymous
And it has another 連用形「嗅い」, due to sound change
 
Anonymous
Unfortunately, the traditional system puts multiple forms in a given category.
 
Anonymous
If you look up する, you find that it has the 未然形「せ」「さ」「し」, three different "irrealis forms" se- sa- shi-
 
Oh, so they have at least three different types of irrealis?
 
Anonymous
Which do you use? Well, the negative -n(u) attaches to se-; the negative -(a)nai attaches to shi-; the passive -(r)are- attaches to sa-.
 
Anonymous
4:12 AM
@DamkerngT. It's thought by many linguists that the "irrealis form" is an artifact of analyzing Japanese on kana boundaries.
 
Anonymous
A number of forms that have nothing to do with irrealis mood attach to this stem. Traditionally, it would look like:
 
Anonymous
iku 'go' has the mizen-kei ika, to which -nai attaches.
 
Anonymous
「行く」の否定形 → 未然形「行か」+否定の助動詞「ない」
 
Anonymous
But you can just say:
 
Anonymous
-(a)nai attaches to ik-
 
Anonymous
4:14 AM
ik-anai
 
Anonymous
And then you don't need a separate -a stem.
 
Anonymous
There are two main reasons to suspect it's an artifact of the kana-based analysis.
 
Anonymous
First, the set of forms that attach to the -a stem don't have a whole lot in common semantically.
 
Anonymous
There doesn't seem to be any particular meaning that the -a form adds, even though it does have a name.
 
Anonymous
It was used for irrealis conditionals (it's not anymore in Modern Japanese); it's used for negation; it's used for passives; it's used for causatives
 
Anonymous
4:15 AM
Second, the -a stem never appeared as an independent form.
 
Anonymous
Although there are certainly linguists today who still accept this system.
 
Anonymous
When we go back to the "pre-/t/ stem" idea, we get the same sort of confusion.
 
Anonymous
We have two different stems and no principled way to distinguish them.
 
Anonymous
"Well, just remember that -de follows the stem if it used to end in /g/!"
 
Anonymous
That idea needs some work... :-)
 
4:20 AM
I think it must be at least partly because of psychoacoustics of some sort. The part that some sounds seem to work better for native speakers of a given language.
 
Anonymous
Hmm?
 
Anonymous
Well, /kaite/ and /kaide/ both seem to sound fine to Japanese speakers. :-)
 
nods -- I think "kagitte" or "kagidde" or its variants wouldn't sound as good for native speakers.
 
Anonymous
Oh, /kagi tte/ is a possible sequence in Japanese, but /kagi dde/ is really not
 
Anonymous
鍵って 'kagi' tte "key-QUOT"
 
Anonymous
4:25 AM
The actual sound change from /kagite/ to /kaide/ is very unusual cross-linguistically.
 
Anonymous
Ito & Mester call the loss of the velar /k/ or /g/ 'velar vocalization', and the voicing of /t/ to reflect /k/ or /g/ 'voicing spread'
 
Anonymous
But although the /i/ is there historically, they ignore it (as many modern linguists do), suggesting that the velar /k/ or /g/ vocalizes to /i/ rather than simply disappearing before an /i/ that was already present.
 
Anonymous
They would say /kag + te/ → /kag + de/ (voicing spread) → /kai + de/ (velar vocalization)
 
Anonymous
It's popular to say that -te attaches to the stem of the word directly, as in:
/kaw + te/ → /kat-te/
/kak + te/ → /kai-te/
/kag + te/ → /kai-de/
/kar + te/ → /kat-te/
/kas + te/ → /kasi-te/
 
Anonymous
It's particularly weird in the case of /s/-stem verbs, because that's the one case where the modern form looks like the historical one, but now we're saying that must be some sort of /i/-insertion
 
4:31 AM
@snailboat Actually, it reminds me of Thai ะ ("-a").
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. Oh yeah?
 
Anonymous
The main reason it's unusual is that it's an example of assimilation at a distance.
 
Yes. For example, "Really." would be จริง "jing" in Thai.
To turn it into a question, "Really?", most people would, in their real-life, say จริงง่ะ "jing-nga".
Though nobody would write it, ever, in their proses.
In prose, they would write something like จริงหรือ "jing-reuu" or จริงรึ "jing-reu".
Or another example, when we want to express our disagreement, we could simply say, ไม่ใช่ ("No.", reads "mai-chai").
But in real-life, more often than not, there will be a sort of ะ sound attached to ไม่ใช่. So it would become a sort of ไม่ใช่อ่ะ.
I think nobody really pays attention to the meaning of อ่ะ. Why is it there? What is it for? and so on. :-)
Perhaps this phenomenon is cross-language.
 
Anonymous
I have a lot to think about now :-)
 
By the way, the real pronunciation of ไม่ใช่อ่ะ is interesting.
According to its written form, ไม่ใช่อ่ะ is supposed to read "mai-chai-?a" (with the glottal stop).
So, some people would insert a glottal stop there. However, I believe that most people wouldn't do that!
So, it becomes a curious phoneme. :-)
It's not that there's nothing there. There's surely something there, but it's not a full glottal stop.
I think IPA may have this sound, but definitely, there is no Thai letter for that.
Probably a [ɦ].
 
Anonymous
4:49 AM
Hmm!
 
Anonymous
I don't really know how to make [ɦ].
 
Try to say, "Aaaaaa" for a long time.
Now imagine doing that without a glottal stop at the beginning. :-)
I think it's half [ʔ] half [a].
 
Anonymous
@DamkerngT. I'm saying [ʔaːːːːːːːʔ] and [aːːːːːːːʔ]
 
@snailboat I see. Perhaps you can try to produce [1/2(ʔ)aːːːːːːːʔ]. :D
 
Anonymous
Hmm, well...
 
Anonymous
4:55 AM
The term phonation has slightly different meanings depending on the subfield of phonetics. Among some phoneticians, phonation is the process by which the vocal folds produce certain sounds through quasi-periodic vibration. This is the definition used among those who study laryngeal anatomy and physiology and speech production in general. Phoneticians in other subfields, such as linguistic phonetics, call this process voicing, and use the term phonation to refer to any oscillatory state of any part of the larynx that modifies the airstream, of which voicing is just one example. Voiceless and supra...
 
State of the glottis!
 
Anonymous
It looks like [ɦ] is actually in the other direction from [ʔ]
 

« first day (59 days earlier)      last day (3183 days later) »