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RRL
12:03 AM
DI, DJ, DK, DL
 
 
12 hours later…
If $x_{n+1}= \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n f(x_i)}{n}$ then prove or disprove that $\{x_n\}$ is convergent is – I think – an exact duplicate of this question. It was asked again because (quote)β€œ... some steps in that solution are not clear to me” (without pointing what those steps are). I would suggest to close as a duplicate and then merge the answers into the older Q&A.
 
2:11 PM
There are two solutions here that do nothing but parrot the existing answers. I think we should work on removing them:
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3758989/29335
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3059487/29335
 
 
4 hours later…
6:10 PM
D1, D2, D3.
D4, D5, D6.
D7, D8, D9.
 

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