@DanielFischer Is it because of the following or have I understood it wrong?
Since $(x^{(i)}) \in \mathbb{Z}_p$, we have that $x^{(i)}_{k+1} \equiv x^{(i)}_{k} \pmod{p^{k+1}}, i \geq N_k \Rightarrow a_1 \equiv a_0 \pmod{p}, a_2 \equiv a_1 \pmod{p^2}, a_3 \equiv a_2 \pmod{p^3}$