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18:15
Hey @DanielFischer!!! Are you there? :)
A little. Still not completely fit.
Have you been ill for such a long time? :o
A week ain't a long time.
Yes, you are right...
Could we coninue now with the proof or better an other time?
Might as well try to get it done. Where were we?
18:32
I hadn't understood how we concluded that there is an $a_k \in \mathbb{Z}/p^{k+1}\mathbb{Z}$ such that $x^{(i)}_k = a_k$ for all $i \geqslant N_k$..
We chose $N_k$ such that $\lvert x^{(i)} - x^{(j)}\rvert_p < p^{-k}$ for all $i,j \geqslant N_k$.
Next, $\lvert u-v\rvert_p < p^{-k}$ means $u_k = v_k$ (and $u_m = v_m$ for all $m \leqslant k$).
And so we have $x^{(i)}_k = x^{(j)}_k$ for all $i,j \geqslant N_k$.
And we call that value $a_k$.
A ok.. I will think about it... And how do we use this?
That gives us a candidate for the limit of $(x^{(i)})$. Then we show first that $(a_0,a_1,\dotsc)$ is an element of $\mathbb{Z}_p$, and second, that it is indeed the limit of $(x^{(i)})$.
Then we will have proved that $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is complete.
Do we look at the limit of $(x^{(i)})$ as for $i$ ?
Yes, of course, $i$ is the sequence index.
18:43
So, do we conclude that $a_k$ is a candidate for the limit of $(x^{(i)})$, because $a_k=x^{(i)}_k, \forall i \geq N_k$?
@evinda $a_k$ is not the right type of thing to be the limit of $(x^{(i)})$. Remember, $x^{(i)} \in \mathbb{Z}_p$, and $a_k \in \mathbb{Z}/p^{k+1}\mathbb{Z}$.
The collection of all the $a_k$ gives us an element of $\mathbb{Z}_p$.
So, does this: $a_k=x^{(i)}_k$ mean that $a_0=x^{(i)}_0, a_1=x^{(i)}_1, a_2=x^{(i)}_2$ and so on?
@DanielFischer Also, how could we show that $(a_0,a_1,\dotsc)$ is an element of $\mathbb{Z}_p$, and that it is indeed the limit of $(x^{(i)})$?
@evinda Not for all $i$, only for $i \geqslant N_k$, so $a_0 = x^{(i)}_0$ for $i \geqslant N_0$, $a_1 = x^{(i)}_1$ for $i \geqslant N_1$, $a_2 = x^{(i)}_2$ for $i \geqslant N_2$ etc.
@evinda To show that $(a_0,a_1,a_2,\dotsc)\in \mathbb{Z}_p$, we must check the compatibility relations, namely $$a_{k+1} \equiv a_k \pmod{p^{k+1}}$$ for all $k$.
19:00
@DanielFischer And can we use this:
$a_0 = x^{(i)}_0$ for $i \geqslant N_0$, $a_1 = x^{(i)}_1$ for $i \geqslant N_1$, $a_2 = x^{(i)}_2$ for $i \geqslant N_2$
to show this?
But that follows immediately if we look at an $i \geqslant N_{k+1}$, for then $a_{k+1} = x^{(i)}_{k+1}$ and $a_k = x^{(i)}_k$, and we have the compatibility since $x^{(i)}\in \mathbb{Z}_p$.
@DanielFischer Why do we take an $i \geqslant N_{k+1}$?
Because that tells us something about $a_k$ and $a_{k+1}$. An $i < N_{k+1}$ wouldn't tell us anything about $a_{k+1}$.
@DanielFischer So, does this mean that we have $a_k=x_k^{(i)}, \forall i \geq N_k$ and $a_{k+1}=x_{k+1}^{(i)}, \forall i \geq N_{k+1}$ and because of the fact that we want that both of the above relations stand, we take the greatest $i$, which is $N_{k+1}$ ?
Not "the greatest $i$". We have arbitrarily large $i$. But we must take a "large enough" $i$, and that means we take the greater of the two lower bounds.
19:12
@DanielFischer I see.. And how could we prove that $a_k$ is indeed the limit of $(x^{(i)})$ ?
@evinda Have you understood that $a\in\mathbb{Z}_p$, where $a = (a_0,a_1,a_2,\dotsc)$?
@DanielFischer Is it because of the following or have I understood it wrong?

Since $(x^{(i)}) \in \mathbb{Z}_p$, we have that $x^{(i)}_{k+1} \equiv x^{(i)}_{k} \pmod{p^{k+1}}, i \geq N_k \Rightarrow a_1 \equiv a_0 \pmod{p}, a_2 \equiv a_1 \pmod{p^2}, a_3 \equiv a_2 \pmod{p^3}$
Yes, that's right.
Great!!! :) And how could we prove that $a_k$ is the limit of $(x^{(i)})$ ?
So, to see that $a = \lim\limits_{i\to\infty} x^{(i)}$, can you give a bound on $$\lvert x^{(i)} - a \rvert_p$$ when $i \geqslant N_k$?
19:23
@DanielFischer What do you mean? :/ How can we find a bound on $$\lvert x^{(i)} - a \rvert_p$$ ?
When $i \geqslant N_k$, what do you know about $x^{(i)}$ and $a$?
@DanielFischer
It holds that $a_k=x_k^{(i)}, \forall i \geq N_k$.
But how can we find a bound on $|x^{(i)}-a|_p$, now that we don't have a single point?
We know $x^{(i)}_k = a_k$ for $i\geqslant N_k$.
Now, that tells us something about $\lvert x^{(i)} - a \rvert_p$.
What was it that that tells us?
19:39
@DanielFischer That it is $\lvert x^{(i)} - a \rvert_p<p^{-k}$ ? Or am I wrong?
@evinda And how does $\lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < p^{-k}$ follow?
@DanielFischer We have that $\lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < p^{-k}$, since $x^{(i)}$ is a Cauchy sequence, right?
No, scroll up and check again what we had about $\lvert\,\cdot\,\rvert_p$ and what $\lvert u\rvert_p < p^{-k}$ means.
@DanielFischer Do you mean this?

$\lvert u\rvert_p < p^{-k}$ means means that $w_p(u)>k$ ?
@evinda Not quite that. There was also something it says about the components of $u$.
Anyway, $\lvert u\rvert_p < p^{-k} \iff u_k = 0$, and here, $\lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < p^{-k} \iff x^{(i)}_k = a_k$.
So $i \geqslant N_k \implies \lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < p^{-k}$, which shows that $$a = \lim_{i\to\infty} x^{(i)}.$$
20:04
@DanielFischer Why do we conclude from this: $x^{(i)}_k = a_k$ that
$$a = \lim_{i\to\infty} x^{(i)}$$
?
Because $i\geqslant N_k \implies \lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < p^{-k}$.
Now recall what the definition of the limit of a sequence was.
@DanielFischer The definition of $\lim_{n \to +\infty} a_n=a \text{ in } \mathbb{Q}_p$ means that $\forall \epsilon>0 \exists n_0 \text{ such that} \forall n \geq n_0:$
$$|a_n-a|_p< \epsilon$$

So, we conclude that $\lim_{i \to +\infty} x^{(i)}=a$, from this $\lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < p^{-k}$, right?
Since, whatever $\epsilon > 0$ is, we have $p^{-k} \leqslant \epsilon$ for all large enough $k$.
@DanielFischer And what do we conclude from this?
That $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is complete?
20:18
@DanielFischer Could you explain me further why we conclude from that that $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is complete?
What does "$\mathbb{Z}_p$ is complete" mean?
@DanielFischer I don't really know... Could you explain it to me?
If you don't really know what it means that a metric space is complete, you should recapitulate that part of your analysis lectures. It is an important concept, you ought to know the definitions and understand the ideas well. By definition, a metric space is complete if and only if every Cauchy sequence in that space is convergent.
So, to prove that a metric space is complete, you pick an arbitrary Cauchy sequence in that space, and show it converges.
That's what we did.
We picked an arbitrary Cauchy sequence in $\mathbb{Z}_p$, the sequence $(x^{(i)})$, and then showed that it has a limit.
And thus, we have shown that $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is complete.
@DanielFischer A ok!!!! And do we have to check also where the limit of the sequence belongs to?
20:34
If the limit exists, that means it belongs to the space.
Here, we needed to check that $a\in\mathbb{Z}_p$ in order to have a candidate for the limit.
@DanielFischer A ok... So, now we have shown that $\mathbb{Z}_p$ is complete, right?
How do we continue? Do we have to show now that $\mathbb{Q}_p$ is complete? Or something else? :/
@evinda Do you remember the beginning? We found that to show the completeness of $\mathbb{Q}_p$, it is sufficient to show the completeness of $\mathbb{Z}_p$. Do you remember the argument for that?
@DanielFischer At the beginning, we showed that for every Cauchy sequence $(x_i)$ in $\mathbb{Q}_p$, there is a $c\in \mathbb{Q}_p\setminus \{0\}$ such that $(c\cdot x_i)$ is a sequence in $\mathbb{Z}_p$ and that $(x_i)$ is Cauchy if and only if $(c\cdot x_i)$ is Cauchy, right? :)
@DanielFischer And we use this to conclude that $\mathbb{Q}_p$ is also complete?
20:44
And now, all that's missing is to note that for $c\neq 0$, we have $x^{(i)} \to a \iff c\cdot x^{(i)} \to c\cdot a$.
@DanielFischer Do we have to prove this or can we just say that it is like that?
Well, nothing can be just "said to be like that". Everything must be proved.
But, $$\lvert c\cdot x^{(i)} - c\cdot a\rvert_p = \lvert c\rvert_p\cdot \lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p.$$
@DanielFischer At the beginning we said that $(x_i)$ in $\mathbb{Q}_p$ and $(c\cdot x_i)$ is a sequence in $\mathbb{Z}_p$...

Now, we have that $(x^{(i)}) \in \mathbb{Z}_p$ and $cx^{(i)} \in \mathbb{Q}_p$, right?
If it confuses you, call the sequence in $\mathbb{Q}_p$ $(y^{(i)})$, then let $x^{(i)} = c\cdot y^{(i)}$, and then use $$\lvert y^{(i)} - c^{-1}\cdot a\rvert_p = \lvert c^{-1}\cdot x^{(i)} - c^{-1}\cdot a\rvert_p = \lvert c^{-1}\rvert_p\cdot \lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p.$$
@DanielFischer We showed that for every Cauchy sequence $(x_i)$ in $\mathbb{Q}_p$, there is a $c\in \mathbb{Q}_p\setminus \{0\}$ such that $(c\cdot x_i)$ is a sequence in $\mathbb{Z}_p$ .. Do we know also know that for every Cauchy sequence $(x_i)$ in $\mathbb{Z}_p$, there is a $c\in \mathbb{Q}_p\setminus \{0\}$ such that $(c\cdot x_i)$ is a sequence in $\mathbb{Q}_p$ ?
21:02
@evinda That part is trivial. Since $\mathbb{Z}_p \subset \mathbb{Q}_p$, and $\mathbb{Q}_p$ is a field, for every $c\in \mathbb{Q}_p$ and every sequence $(x^{(i)})$ in $\mathbb{Z}_p$, the sequence $(c\cdot x^{(i)})$ is a sequence in $\mathbb{Q}_p$. If $c\neq 0$, then by the multiplicativity of the $p$-norm, the sequence $(c\cdot x^{(i)})$ is a Cauchy sequence if and only if $(x^{(i)})$ is a Cauchy seqeunce.
@DanielFischer Why do we take $c^{-1}$ at $\lvert y^{(i)} - c^{-1}\cdot a\rvert_p $ ?

Also, do we know that $|c^{-1}|_p=1$ ?
@evinda If $x^{(i)} = c\cdot y^{(i)}$, then $y^{(i)} = c^{-1}\cdot x^{(i)}$. If we used $c$ to move into $\mathbb{Z}_p$, then we use the reciprocal, $c^{-1}$, to move back where we came from.
And generally, we won't have $\lvert c^{-1}\rvert_p = 1$.
But it is some fixed nonzero constant. We don't really care whether it is $p^{-1234567890123456789}$, or $p^{9876543210987654321}$, or something in between, or something larger, or smaller.
21:25
@DanielFischer A ok.. And how can we continue, knowing that $|y^{(i)}-c^{-1}a|_p=|c^{-1}|_p |x^{(i)}-a|_p$ ?
There really isn't anything to continue. Since $\lvert c^{-1}\rvert_p$ is a (non-zero) constant, it is directly clear that $y^{(i)} \to c^{-1}\cdot a \iff x^{(i)}\to a$.
@DanielFischer So can we always find an $\epsilon$ such that $|c^{-1}|_p \cdot |x^{(i)}-a|_p< \epsilon$ ?
@evinda That's backwards.
You must, for every $\epsilon > 0$, find an $N_\epsilon\in\mathbb{N}$, such that for all $i \geqslant N_\epsilon$ ...
@DanielFischer We know that $\forall i \geq N_k , \exists \epsilon>0 \text{ such that } |x^{(i)}-a|_p<$, right?

Can we just multiply by $c$?
@evinda You got it backwards again.
First you pick $\epsilon > 0$.
Then you find an $N$.
$$\bigl(\forall \epsilon > 0\bigr)\bigl(\exists N_\epsilon\bigr)\dotsc$$
21:43
@DanielFischer I am confused now..
We have that $\lvert y^{(i)} - c^{-1}\cdot a\rvert_p = \lvert c^{-1}\cdot x^{(i)} - c^{-1}\cdot a\rvert_p = \lvert c^{-1}\rvert_p\cdot \lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p.$

Why do we write the definition of the limit?
Sorry, what?
@DanielFischer What do we have to do, in order to show that $y^{(i)} \to c^{-1}\cdot a \iff x^{(i)}\to a$? :/
Just note that the $p$-norm is multiplicative. And that $\lvert c^{-1}\rvert_p \neq 0$.
It's the same argument as one uses for $\lim (c\cdot x_n) = c\cdot \lim x_n$ for real sequences in the first semester.
@DanielFischer So, can we say it like that?

We have that $\forall \epsilon>0, \exists n_0=n_0(\epsilon)$ such that $\forall n \geq n_0$:

$$|x^{(i)}-x^{(j)}|_p< \epsilon$$

$$|y^{(i)}-c^{(-1)} \cdot a|_p=|c^{-1}|_p \cdot |x^{(i)}-a|_p< |c^{-1}|_p \cdot \epsilon$$

Can we conclude from that that $\lim_{i \to +\infty} y^{(i)}=c^{-1}a$?
22:00
Yes, we can conclude. Given $\epsilon > 0$, we pick $n_0$ such that $\lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < \lvert c\rvert_p\cdot \epsilon$ for $i\geqslant n_0$. Then we have $$\lvert y^{(i)} - c^{-1}\cdot a\rvert_p = \lvert c^{-1}\rvert_p \lvert x^{(i)} - a\rvert_p < \lvert c^{-1}\rvert_p\cdot \lvert c\rvert_p\epsilon = \epsilon$$ for $i \geqslant n_0$.
22:29
@DanielFischer So, can we say it like that?


We have that $a=\lim_{n \to +\infty} x^{(i)}$.
That means that $\forall \epsilon'>0, \exists n_0$ such that $\forall i \geq n_0$:

$$|x^{(i)}-a|_p< \epsilon'$$

We pick $\espilon'=|c|_p \cdot \epsilon$.

$$|x^{(i)}-a|_p< |c|_p \cdot \epsilon$$
So:
$$|y^{(i)}-c^{-1}a|_p=|c^{-1}|_p |x^{(i)}-a|_p<|c^{-1}|_p \cdot |c|_p \epsilon= \epsilon$$

Therefore, $y^{(i)} \to c^{-1}a$.
@DanielFischer So have we shown now that each Cauchy sequence in $\mathbb{Q}_p$ converges, i.e that $\mathbb{Q}_p$ is complete?
And what does remain to show now?
Nothing.
22:50
@DanielFischer Ok :) I will read tomorrow again all what we said and will tell you if I have more questions... Thank you very much for your help!!!!!!!!! :)

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