« first day (2398 days earlier)      last day (2616 days later) » 

1:00 PM
Y suena como algo que yo haría a los francehablantes
:P
 
I'll be back
 
@AkivaWeinberger :/
@Astyx bis bald
 
@DHMO I mean, were they reporting your comments?
 
@AkivaWeinberger I don't know whose comment was reported
 
@DHMO I wouldn't actually do it, that was just a joke
 
1:01 PM
@AkivaWeinberger yo lo se
 
Ah, I see (clicked on the link)
 
@AkivaWeinberger a-vlá-mo-sa-sí-pa-ra-ke-la-gén-te-no-pwé-dau-sar-Google Translate :p
 
user84215
I read somewhere that singularities in geometric theories may give rise to examples of non-factoriality. Can you explain it ?
 
user84215
any suggestion ?
 
user84215
1:18 PM
I wonder that nobody is interested to my questions.
 
@aminliverpool nobody here knows the field involved in your question
if you asked about ordinals (like in here) then more people here can answer you
 
Projective geometry: Does anyone know a reference for the following: Given a reference triangle with Steiner point $S$ and a point $E$ at infinity, then $E$'s isogonal conjugate and $E$'s isotomic conjugate are collinear with $S$. This fell out from this thread, and a reference might be a useful addition.
 
@DHMO The tense rule for "sembler" is really complicated
 
@Astyx it isn't a tense; it's a mood
 
Right
 
1:25 PM
tense (English) < tens (Old French) > temps (French)
 
Oui je sais
 
let's continue
36 mins ago, by DHMO
Can you give me a sequence $(b_n)_0^\omega$ of open intervals whose lengths sum to a value strictly less than 1
36 mins ago, by DHMO
but which fully covers $A$?
 
user84215
lets do research altogether
 
Not right now @DHMO
 
@DHMO what is difference between +E and -E effect?(in short) E for electromeric effect
 
1:34 PM
@Anonymous context?
 
@DHMO chemistry
 
no idea
 
@DHMO now??
 
> Electromeric effect can be classified into +E and -E effects based on the direction of transfer of the electron pair.

When the electron pair moves towards the attacking reagent, it is termed as the +E effect. The addition of acids to alkenes is an example of the +E effect. After the transfer takes place, the reagent gets attached to the atom where the electrons have been transferred to.

The -E effect can be found in reactions such as addition of cyanide ion to carbonyl compounds. In these reactions, the electron pair moves away from the attacking reagent.
Electromeric effect refers to a molecular polarizability effect occurring by an intramolecular electron displacement (sometimes called the ‘conjugative mechanism’ and, previously, the ‘tautomeric mechanism’) characterized by the substitution of one electron pair for another within the same atomic octet of electrons. However, this term is now considered and this effect is considered along with the inductive effect. This effect is shown by those compounds containing multiple bonds. When a double bond or triple bond is exposed to an attack by a reagent, a pair of bonding electrons involved in the...
 
Hey @DHMO Long time no see
 
1:39 PM
annyeong @kayak
 
I need to upload picture :/ I can't
 
Guys quick question: is $\frac{\sin(x)+\cos(x)}{exp(x)}$ always less than 1 ?
 
exp (x) means?
 
@Anonymous $e^x$
 
1:41 PM
@Baymax I doubt so
As $x\to-\infty$
 
I need to change my name I guess..I get pinged everytime the other Anon is pinged :P
Suggest me a new name someone :'D
 
not_anonymous
 
lol :P
 
@anonymous anaam
 
@DHMO means ? :D
 
1:42 PM
@anonymous I thought you speak Hindi
 
@DHMO Oh, that word seems weird when typed in English
In Hindi the pronunciation is quite different :)
 
sure
[ənaːm]
 
I will think of some more and change it tonight :)
Haha :D
 
ohne Name
(without Name)
 
user84215
lets do research altogether
 
1:46 PM
anonymous how about your name to be bnonymous !! he he
 
changed it to 2anonymous :P
it begins with a digit
 
@2anonymous hi
 
@DHMO yeah it blows up aswell as down..
@Astyx yeah it blows to infinity for this case
 
1:48 PM
@DHMO so isn't in ex: of -E attacking reagent is getting attached?
 
@Anonymous I don't know
 
@anonymous sorry I took your name,once I will get banned you will be alone with your name
 
@Anonymous It is just like nucleophilic addition rkn
I changed my name, why isn't it appearing !
In chat
Maybe cache is not cleared
 
@anonymous you need a moderator to refresh
 
I don't know how it is nucleophilic addition reaction @anonymous
 
1:52 PM
@Anonymous CN- acts as a nucleophile here....
It is negatively charged
It seeks positive centres..
Any Mods...please refresh my chat profile ! :)
 
@anonymous @DHMO I got it! , CN is attaching to left side but electrons are moving to right side!
 
hi chat
 
Hi
 
@Anonymous Exactly. When the negative charge shifts to the right then a positive center is created...
 
user84215
I read somewhere that singularities in geometric theories may give rise to examples of non-factoriality. Can you explain it ?
 
1:59 PM
@anonymous math.stackexchange.com/questions/2120668/… in this question is it differentiation of LHS = RHS?
 
Oh that was @DHMO's question
Secret had solved it if iirc
 
Wait,I will try first,tell me is it differentiation of LHS = RHS?
 
If forgot the solution
@Anonymous What? It is a differential equation...
$y'=dy/dx$
 
Problem needs integration concept?
 
@Anonymous You need to solve for y...
Do you know how to solve DE's ?
 
2:02 PM
No
 
Then I'm afraid you won't be able to solve it unless you know the basics
 
I don't know integration… i can do differentiation
 
For solving DE you need to know both...
Why not learn integration and the basics of DE and then come back to the problem?
 
OK,that's not my business then
 
Hmm
 
2:16 PM
Guys i am unable to find resources about the order of convergence of fixed point method , any help ?
 
2:35 PM
The alternating sequence +1,-1,+1,-1,+1,-1,... shares essentially the same recurrence over the divisors as the characteristic function of twin primes, but with different starting values.
 
for the topic of y=fx anyone know how to find the image of (3,1) under the transformation 3f(3x)
 
let g(x)=3f(3x)
we know that f(3)=1
so g(1) = 3f(3) = 3
so the image is (1,3)
 
I don't actually know how to write down the Freedman's E8 manifold
But I understand that's not what you are asking.
 
2:50 PM
What do you mean by write down?
 
How's it constructed?
 
derp, I accidentally deleted instead of edited
Repost: @MikeMiller Do you know/is there a not-terribly-hard-to-understand (simply connected) topological 4-manifold that realizes the $E_8$ Cartan matrix as its intersection form?
@BalarkaSen I think that's what I'm asking too
I know how to do all of them except $E_8$... I suppose it's hard.
 
Well then you'd probably want simply connected
 
Yeah, of course
 
Simply connected ones are uniquely determined by intersection form, not in general.
OK, got it
 
2:53 PM
Yeah
 
I'd like to hear an answer to that too
 
I have no idea about the non-simply connected ones (not that I have any idea besides quoting Freedman about simply connected ones; best I can do is mostly understanding Whitehead-Milnor modulo a lot of important details)
 
Say I have f(a, b, n) = |a - b|^n where a and b are complex numbers, and n is an integer greater than 0 - Is it possible to expand f(a, b, n) as a series/summation somehow?
 
I wish I knew anything about manifolds :(
 
Shaddap :P
You shouldn't be complaining---with all that you already know now, you have so much extra time compared to the rest of us!
 
3:02 PM
we'll die anyway
there's no time. so let's spend whatever's there procrastinating
 
3:23 PM
No, there's no easy example.
 
@MikeMiller :'(
 
4:05 PM
hi and bye
 
4:53 PM
@DanielFischer When you have time, could you please explain why the asymptotic expansion of the Bessel function of the first kind does not provide enough information to determine if (and when) the integrals on the vertical sides of the contour vanish in the limit? Doesn't the expansion tell us that $J_{1}(az) = J_{1}(a(x+iy))$ remains bounded as $x \to \pm \infty$ for fixed values of $y$? Is this apparent fact not useful? I've been thinking about this question nonstop for hours.
 
@Danu would that be the same as an E_8 singularity?
I don't have an answer regardless but I wanted to check if I had the terminology right
 
5:28 PM
Guys .. $(1-x)^-1 = 1 + x + x^{2} + x^{3} + ......$
 
Yes. (If $|x|<1$.)
 
But how to do this $(1+x)^{-\frac{1}{2}}$
Intuitively
 
Binomial theorem.
 
yes @Semiclassical
But i think about the first one as a Geometric series sum ... like this how can i write this one in easier way instead of calculating the coefficients by Binomial theorem
 
Who says you can?
 
5:31 PM
?
 
The geometric series one is an especially nice case of the binomial theorem.
Why should $(1+x)^{-1/2}$ have so simple an explanation?
 
@Danu Actually I guess this probably doesn't involve the full force of Friedman's work. You start by taking the solutions to $x^2 + y^3 + z^5 = 0$ inside $\Bbb C^5$. Intersecting this with a small sphere around zero you get the Poincare homology sphere $\Sigma(2,3,5)$. The variety is singular at zero, but you can resolve the singularity by taking what's called the "Milnor fiber".
 
oh hey, milnor fibration
I sorta (read: mostly don't) know what those are.
 
Doing so gets you a compact 4-manifold with boundary $\Sigma(2,3,5)$ and intersection form $-E_8$.
Now all we need is to get a contractible manifold whose boundary is $\Sigma(2,3,5)$ and we're done.
 
yes , but i thought it me might be there and i don't know that one but it's ok
 
5:34 PM
I think a counting interpretation of the series for $1/\sqrt{1+x}$ can be found, but it requires some work and isn't obvious.
 
ok..
nice
 
By contrast, a counting interpretation for $1/(1-x)$ is obvious.
 
it is a theorem of Freedman that for every homology sphere $Y$ there is a proper smooth embedding of $Y \setminus \{pt\}$ into some exotic $\Bbb R^4$. Taking one point compactifications you get an embedding of $Y$ into some space homotopy equivalent to $S^4$. It is a theorem of Kirby that this embedding is automatically locally flat.
And it is Freedman's theorem that this space homotopy equivalent to $S^4$ is indeed $S^4$.
 
Yes @Semiclassical
 
I guess you do need Freedman's big machine to do this. Oh well.
Anyway, the complement of your locally flat embedding of $Y$ in $S^4$ is a homology ball but I'm pretty sure it's also just contractible.
So you can glue that thing onto your original thing and be done with it.
@BalarkaSen See above.
 
5:39 PM
About the only possibility I see off the top of my head is the following. Writing $y(x)=1/\sqrt{1-x}$, we have $$y(-2x)=1/\sqrt{1+2x}=1+x+\frac32 x^2+\frac52 x^3+\cdots = 1+x+3\frac{x^2}{2!}+15\frac{x^3}{3!}+\cdots$$
(making use of Mathematica to facilitate the computation)
If I plug the coefficients 1,1,3,15... in at OEIS.org, it indicates that these are the double factorials of odd numbers.
So evidently $\displaystyle y(x)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty (2k+1)!!\frac{(-2x)^k}{k!}$
 
@Semiclassical No, I think :P
 
As to why that should be the case...oh look, a convenient distraction! exit stage left
 
Well, maybe it is cf. Mike's stuff
Thanks for your extended reply @Mike
Way over my head though
 
5:57 PM
Guys. Who studies modular subset product problems?
I feel like this path should already be well beaten, where da asymptotics at yo?
 
@MikeMiller Fun, I didn't know one could make that singular variety into a nullcobordism.
 
In mathematics, Milnor maps are named in honor of John Milnor, who introduced them to topology and algebraic geometry in his book Singular Points of Complex Hypersurfaces (Princeton University Press, 1968) and earlier lectures. The most studied Milnor maps are actually fibrations, and the phrase Milnor fibration is more commonly encountered in the mathematical literature. The general definition is as follows. Let f ( z 0 , … , z n ...
 
6:13 PM
Hmm, I am not sure if I get the picture. Eg, for $zw = 0$ in $\Bbb C^2$ the link is a Hopf link in $S^3$. What's the fibering of the complement there?
 
It's the decomposition of $S^3 \setminus L$ into pieces corresponding to $\text{arg}(zw)$.
 
Ah, ok. So I guess the fibers are Siefert surfaces of the Hopf link?
 
Yes, that's what we mean for any fibered knot.
 
Ok, understood. So it indeed makes sense that the closure of the fibers are the links. So one just remove a small nbhd of the singularity and caps off with that.
Nice.
 
6:17 PM
If $f$ is a decreasing function defined on $(a,b)$ and we divide $(a,b)$ in $n$ subintervals, then $x_i = \inf \left(\dfrac{i-1}{n}, \dfrac{i}{n}\right)$ is the right hand end-point of the interval $ \left(\dfrac{i-1}{n}, \dfrac{i}{n}\right)$, i.e: $x_n = \dfrac{i}{n}$, right?
 
@BalarkaSen Did you see my ping?
 
Is there a non-technical reason why that nullcobordism of $\Sigma(2, 3, 5)$ has intersection form $-E_8$? I'm prepared to believe what you said at the end.
No, I didn't. I just looked and I have it now.
 
nah.
 
@DanielFischer Given $H$ a Hilbert space and $C$ a closed convex subset of $H$, I want to find the Frechet derivative of $x\mapsto (d(x,C))^2$. I found that $$d(x+h,C)^2=d(x,C)^2+2\langle x-p_C(x),h\rangle + 2\langle x-p_C(x),p_C(x)-p_C(x+h)\rangle + \|p_C(x)-p_C(x+h)+h\|^2$$ I'm thinking the derivative is $h\mapsto 2\langle x-p_C(x),h\rangle$ but I can't prove that $2\langle x-p_C(x),p_C(x)-p_C(x+h)\rangle + \|p_C(x)-p_C(x+h)+h\|^2$ is $o(\|h\|)$. What do you think ?
 
Also an exotic R^4 is homeomorphic to R^4; taking one point compactification should give something homeomorphic to one point compactification of R^4, aka S^4, not? Not sure why you say it's just homotopy equivalent to S^4.
 
6:30 PM
Lets say I found a paper claiming exactly a result I'm looking for, but it's 17 pages of solid Pi Sigma Integrate Sigma Pi Integrate Integrate Sigma Pi Pi Sigma Pi... Am I a terrible person if I don't rigorously verify their argument, but just build on it instead? (The result is intuitively obvious, imo)
 
@RandomVariable I haven't yet considered the integrals, I've so far only thought about the series. For fixed $y$, the integral over the vertical sides tends to $0$ as $\lvert x\rvert \to \infty$, provided we stay away from the poles of $\cot$. Then the $\cot$ factor remains bounded, the Bessel factor remains bounded (it even tends to $0$), and the $1/z$ makes it vanish in the limit.
 
@BalarkaSen Freedman actually proved that it was proper homotopy equivalent to $\Bbb R^4$. He didn't know it was homeomorphic before the big paper.
 
Ahhh. Got it.
 
@DanielFischer Actually $$2\langle x-p_C(x),p_C(x)-p_C(x+h)\rangle + \|p_C(x)-p_C(x+h)+h\|^2 = 2\langle p_C(x)-p_C(x+h),h+x-p_C(x)\rangle + \|p_C(x)-p_C(x+h)\|^2+\|h\|^2 $$ but I can't prove that $\langle p_C(x)-p_C(x+h),h+x-p_C(x)\rangle$ is $o(\|h\|)$ (that seems wrong anyway)
 
@LeGrandDODOM Once you know that $p_C$ is Lipschitz, you have $\langle p_C(x) - p_C(x+h), x-p_C(x)\rangle + O(\lVert h\rVert^2)$. Then you need that $p_C(x) - p_C(x+h)$ is "approximately orthogonal" to $x - p_C(x)$ for small $h$. I'm not sure how to show that off the top of my head.
 
6:44 PM
@DanielFischer That was exactly the argument I was using to justify that the integrals vanish on the vertical sides of the contour as $N \to \infty$. Where then in the evaluation does the value of $a$ come into play?
 
@DanielFischer I concur. I don't know how to prove that either though
 
Hello there !
 
@RandomVariable No idea yet. But if the numerical evaluations of the series are to be trusted, it plays a role. And looking at the differentiated series supports the point where things happen being $2\pi$.
 
Can I please have some intuition behind this ? I know it didn't spawn randomly out of nowhere, so it must have some geometric intuition : $$\cos(a)+\cos(b)=2\cos(\frac{a+b}{2})\cos(\frac{a-b}{2})$$
 
@LeGrandDODOM The "approximately orthogonal" part, the Lipschitz part, or both?
 
6:58 PM
Hi.
Is there a way to compute $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to \infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n} \dfrac{2}{n}\dfrac{1}{\left (-3+\dfrac{2i}{n}\right)^2}$?
 
@Mahmoud Did you mistype? Shouldn't it be $\cos a + \cos b$ on the left?
 
And it's more complicated friends of strange structure, please.
@DanielFischer Yes, thank you.
I don't want to memorize it $:($
 
@Topologicalife It's a Riemann sum. For what integral?
 
Consider the vector space $(\mathbb R,\mathbb R^{\mathbb N},+)$ of all sequences in $\mathbb R$. Consider the following subset:
$$
\{(x_n)_n\in\mathbb R^{\mathbb N}|\text{ only finitely many components $x_i\neq 0$}\}.
$$
I can verify that this is a subspace of $\mathbb R^{\mathbb N}$. However, my book says that this subspace is isomorphic with a "well known vector space". Which one would that be?
I can imagine that the dimensions of this vectorspace is countably infinite. I know the following vectorspaces: $\mathbb R^n,\mathbb R^{n\times m},\mathbb R[X]_{\leq n},C[X]$, and so on. But I don't know which one they're referring to.
 
@Daniel yes.
For the integral $\displaystyle \int_{-3}^{-1} \dfrac{1}{x^2} dx $
 
7:03 PM
Actually, never mind. I'll post it on the forum (unless someone really wants to explain it here!)
 
@Topologicalife More directly, for $$\int_0^1 \frac{1}{(-3+x)^2}\,dx.$$ But that's the same in green of course. So you evaluate that integral.
 
@Mahmoud Ah, the product-to-sum identity. Yeah, that's a weird one.
 
@Semiclassical Any ideas ?
 
@DanielFischer The formulas themselves don't make sense for large values of $a$. So we don't actually have to rely on numerical approximations to know that a restriction of some sort is necessary. We have a true mystery on our hands.
 
@Daniel I will have a similar difficult evaluating the sum
 
7:08 PM
@DanielFischer The "approximately orthogonal" part
 
@Topologicalife Evaluating the sum is hard. Evaluating the integral is easy.
 
Sure.
Start by considering what happens if you replace $a\to a+2\pi$ on the right-hand side of the identity.
 
I need to evaluate the sum @Daniel :P
Nvm, I got an idea.
 
@LeGrandDODOM I'd make a sketch and see whether that helps finding an argument.
@Topologicalife You asked for the limit of the sums, that's the integral.
 
Yeah, sorry @Daniel, I was looking to evaluate the sum.
for*
i.e, I'm asking to evaluate the integral finding the riemann sum
 
7:16 PM
@Semiclassical It becomes mysteriously, $2\cos(\frac{a+b}{2})\cos(\frac{a-b}{2})$ $?!!$
 
It should become $2\cos(\pi+\frac{a+b}{2})\cos(\pi+\frac{a-b}{2})$.
Yep. It returns to itself.
So the right-hand side is $2\pi$-periodic in $a$.
 
But what's the essence ?
 
And since that function is symmetric in $a,b$ you also have that it's $2\pi$-periodic in $b$.
 
$a,b$ ?
 
Sure. If you swap $a$ and $b$ then the function stays the same since $\cos(\frac{a-b}{2})=\cos(\frac{b-a}{2})$.
So the right-hand side is symmetric and $2\pi$-periodic in both variables.
 
7:20 PM
That's very nice.
 
That suggests, though it doesn't prove, that the right-hand side can be written as $f(a)+f(b)$ where $f(\cdot)$ is $2\pi$-periodic.
If you plug in $a=b$, that becomes $2f(a)=2\cos(0)\cos(a)=2\cos a\implies f(a)=\cos a$.
Well, I mean that one way to get a function that's symmetric in a,b and $2\pi$-periodic in both is to guess that it's just additive.
If you assume that's the case, then the next line shows that it'd have to be $\cos a+\cos b$.
The only question then is to prove that that's actually true.
For an actual derivation I'd use the angle addition formula.
Another argument I like relies on differential equations, but if you're not versed in those then it won't help. @Mahmoud
 
@Semiclassical Sadly.
 
Mmkay.
There's probably a way to infer the sum-to-product identity from the main image here, if you relabel the angles: cut-the-knot.org/triangle/SinCosFormula.shtml
But honestly I don't remember the sum-to-product or product-to-sum identities so well as the angle addition formulas.
 
@Semiclassical And you don't feel like you have to ?
 
Yeah. Knowing them is definitely useful in some applications, but if I need them I can just derive them from the angle addition formulas.
Or using Euler's formula.
 
7:31 PM
Hmm
 
Derive them every time using Euler's formula haha
2
 
Let me try,
 
Euler's formula is probably the best way once you've got it under your belt, yeah.
 
There's a very small range of time (penultimate year of high school through middle of 2nd year of uni) when knowing them by heart is useful
 
That's ironically my case, lol.
 
7:33 PM
@Semiclassical Me neither!
 
But I'm still not going to surrender to ''Learn Math by heart people'', even if that's going to hurt my grades.
 
Hi all! I am studying numerical methods and have a basic question on some steps I am not understanding. Consider an q-stage IRK method with associated collocation scheme $\phi \in [\mathbb{P}_q] ^m$. We have the following identity:

$$ (\phi_i (t_{n+1}))^2 = (\phi(t_n))^2 + 2 \int_{t_n}^{t_{n+1}} \phi_i(t) \phi_i'(t) dt $$
 
So $\cos x=\frac{e^{ix}+e^{-ix}}{2}$
But heh, I got stuck pretty fast, $\frac 12 (e^{ix}+e^{iy}+e^{-ix}+e^{-iy})$
 
Sorry, hit enter by mistake. Here is the rest.

and we want to prove that $\mid u_n \mid = 1 ~\forall n \in \mathbb{N}$.

It follows like this

$\sum u_{{k+1}_i}^2 = \sum u_{k_i}^2 + \sum~2 \int_{t_n}^{t_{n+1}} u_{k_i} u_{k_i}' dt =\\
= 2 \int_{t_n}^{t_{n+1}} \sum u_{k_i} u_{k_i}' dt =\\
= 2 \int_{t_n}^{t_{n+1}} u_k^T u_k'i dt =\\
= 2 \int_{t_n}^{t_{n+1}} u_k^T B u_k dt$

In the last two steps, I do not understand how we got rid of the sum and the transpose comes up, and then B.
 
Now what ?
 
7:40 PM
@Mahmoud Now we party. (Sorry lol couldn't resist. I just made good progress towards the result I want! :D)
 
lol
But how can I simplify the rest ? I'm stuck.
 
@DanielFischer I solved it (if you are interested).
 
It's okay :D
 
@Topologicalife How?
 
@Mahmoud Start from the product side.
It's not immediately obvious what to do with the sum side, but the product side is transparent.
 
8:10 PM
@DanielFischer I did some drawings but I can't come up with any intuition towards a bound in $o(\|h\|)$
 
8:50 PM
Let $X(\geq 0)$ have probability generating function $G$ and write $t(n)=P(X>n)$ for the "tail" probabilities of $X$. Find the generating function of the sequence $\{t(n):n\geq 0\}$ is $T(s)=(1-G(s))/(1-s)$
 
@LeGrandDODOM Step 0: If $x\in C$, the derivative at $x$ is clearly $0$ since $d(y,C)^2 \leqslant \lVert y-x\rVert^2$. Step 1: For $x\notin C$, consider the hyperplane $H$ perpendicular to $x - p_C(x)$ through $p_C(x)$. $C$ lies in the closed half-space determined by $H$ opposite to $x$. Now consider an $h$ such that $\lVert h\rVert \ll \lVert x - p_C(x)\rVert$, and draw a circle with centre $x+h$ and radius $\lVert (x+h) - p_C(x)\rVert$. $p_C(x+h)$ must lie in the corresponding ball.
The angle at which the circle (the sphere) intersects $H$ can't be large if $\lVert h\rVert$ is small.
 
9:14 PM
$X$ is a discrete variable? @Simple
To show it, start by writing out $T(s)$ and consider what $(1-s)T(s)$ would be.
 
yes
 
(start by writing out the first few terms, I mean)
 
what is "tail" probability? I don't understand what does that mean
 
It's just a definition. It's the probability that $X$ is bigger than some specified threshold $n$.
If you draw out the probability distribution (as a bar graph, say) it amounts to asking how much of the distribution is to the right of some specific. The distribution to the right of the cutoff is the tail.
 
If I just apply the definition of generating function, I will have $\sum_{n\geq 0}s^nP(X>n)=\sum_{n\geq 0}s^n(1-P(X\leq n)=\frac{1}{1-s}-\sum_{n\geq 0}s^nP(X\leq n)$
 
9:28 PM
Last should be $X\leq n$, but otherwise that's true.
But I don't think it's especially helpful. Try doing $(1-s)T(s)$ directly (i.e. write out the first few terms of $T(s)$ and multiply it out).
 
I see, it just like proving the sum of geometric series
 
It's similar, yes.
For a geometric series, though, you'd have $$(1-x)(1-x)^{-1}=(1-x)(1+x+x^2+\cdots)=1+(1-1)x+(1-1)x^2+\cdots =1.$$
Here the difference between terms isn't quite so simple.
 
I get this
 
@DHMO hello, please i don't understand the lst step
 
Hey @BalarkaSen are you around?
 
9:41 PM
I am
 
Do you know of a way to imagine S^3 as a smash product of a circle and a sphere?
I am trying to visualise it as S^1 x S^2
then I have a copy of S^2 sitting in that
 
Do you know how to see S^2 as smash product of S^1 and S^1?
 
wedged with a copy of S^1
Yes
 
How is smashing Math ?
 
Then you just generalize that, @Ali
 
9:42 PM
smash product is a math operation.
 
Oh, my bad.
 
I am trying but I am not really sure how to shrink the s^1 to a point
Its easy for S^1 and S^1 because we are shrinking lines
 
As a point of reference, a Cartesian product of sets A,B is all possible ordered pairs (a,b) with a from A and b from B
 
The point is if you give S^n and S^m the usual cell structures with one vertex and an n (or m resp) cells then S^n x S^m has got a point, an n-cell, an m-cell and a n+m cell in the product CW complex.
 
@AliCaglayan visualize $S^3$ as $\Bbb R^3\cup\{\infty\}$, then consider all spheres in $\Bbb R^3$ tangent to the $xy$-plane at the origin (including the plane itself as a "generalized" sphere and the origin itself).
 
9:43 PM
Then pinching S^n v S^m gives you D^(n+m) with boundary pinched to a point
That S^(n+m). Done
 
A smash product is a specific way of taking two manifolds and getting a third one as output from them.
 
Not manifolds
CW complexes
 
Ah.
I don't know smash products, so I didn't know better beyond the obvious "two come in, one comes outo"
 
also, yes, pointed CW complexes
 
Can't wait to learn all the fancy terminology, or am I ?
 
9:46 PM
@arctictern your visualisation makes a bit more sense actuallly
 
Anyway I was going to ask what would you do if you had this question at first glance, $$\lim_{x\to -\pi /_4}\frac{1+\tan(x)}{\sin(x)+\cos(x)}$$
 
yes, you can do the same thing with $S^2$ and all the other spheres. stereographic projection.
 
Simplify.
 
this is the pencil of circles thing arctic likes a lot
 
I was shocked that simply replacing $\tan$ with $\sin \over \cos$ solves it.
 
9:49 PM
Yeah, it's easy.
 
Smash is just the tensor product in the category of pointed spaces right
 
@AliCaglayan Also if you want to do it that way, if you shrink S^2 to a point in S^2 x S^1 you get S^3 with two points identified in it
 
so its left adjoint to hom and stuff
 
who cares
 
but thats about all the nice properties you can get out of it I think
if you restrict to CW complexes then it acts nicer
 
9:53 PM
nobody really cares about smash except smashing with circles
 
@DanielFischer I get it, thanks again! Your writing made me think of something geometrically obvious: if $H$ is some hyperplane, $x\in H^+$ and $y\in H^-$ then $\|x-p_H(x)\|\leq \|x-y\|$. Can you give me a hint on how to prove that ?
 
I guess its also useful for constructing higher dimensional projective spaces
but I will have to think about that more
 
I don't see why you'd think that
 
Not a useful construction then
 
Smashing with circles is useful, also known as the reduced suspension.
Also, yes, you're right that it makes a certain category of topological spaces into a tensor category
 
9:57 PM
@LeGrandDODOM What can you say about $\langle x - p_H(x), p_H(x) - y\rangle$? (Its real part if we're looking at a complex Hilbert space.)
 
It seems you want the category of compactly generated spaces
 
Where do reduced suspensions come up
 

« first day (2398 days earlier)      last day (2616 days later) »