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user228700
10:00 AM
Yes, but now no need because..?
 
Mew
I will outline how you got your reuslt, please be patient
1)
 
user228700
Patient=Me. Please go on...
 
Mew
you assume Q = mcT, (2) then you go dQ/dt = mdC(T)/dtT + mC(T)dT/dt
this is the equation you arrived at before
 
user228700
Yup.
 
Mew
the error in the reasoning is because step (1) was wrong
it is false that Q=mcT
 
user228700
10:01 AM
Okay, I understood that.
 
Mew
instead it is true that dQ = mcdT
 
user228700
Okay...
 
Mew
Thus all we need to do is divide both sides by dt
dQ/dt = mcdT/dt
whether c(T) is time dependent or not doesn't change the above equation
temperature dependent*
 
user228700
@JohnRennie: Can we divide like this?
 
yeah, it looks suspiciously like a deriviative...
 
Mew
10:04 AM
of course
no
it would be incorrect to apply the "d" operator to both sides without applying the product rtule, but you can certainly divide both sides by a small quantity, dt
 
@KaumudiHarikumar Mew's terminology is a bit misleading. We are differentiating both sides with respect to time, not dividing by dt.
 
Mew
John we are dividing both sides by a small time element dt
there just happens to be a small change in temperature element on the numerator
and thus the result is a derivative
but the mathematical operations are sound
 
user228700
@JohnRennie Okay, but since it's already $dt$, how exactly do we differentiate that wrt time?
 
Mew
I think differentiate is the wrong word here
because we are not applying the differntial operator in this step
we are merely dividing by a small element of Temperature
i mean time
 
So you mean it is actually something like this?
$$\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta t}=mC(T(t))\frac{\Delta T}{\Delta t}$$
 
Mew
10:06 AM
correct
 
user228700
But dividing isn't the same thing as differentiating...
 
user228700
So we're not differentiating?
 
Mew
Suppose I have a small element of change in velocity dv
and I divide by a small element of time dt
the result is dv/dt which is accelewration
the act of dividing by dt wasn't differentiating
but it resulted in the final answer being a derivative
 
user116211
@Mew Acceleration is the limiting value of that fraction.
 
Mew
yes
and d implies the limit
If i use delta instead of d that's fine
but then i would have to write the limit signs
 
user116211
10:08 AM
@Mew there is difference between $\rm d$ and $d\;.$
 
Mew
but if I use d the limit sign is implied
 
user228700
@JohnRennie: What is the truth?!?!
 
user116211
@KaumudiHarikumar what truth? New question today? Or still thermo?
 
I'm afraid I've completely lost track of the thread ...
 
user228700
No, this only :P Everyone's disagreeing so needed his expert advice.
 
Mew
10:10 AM
John, we are up to dQ = mC(t)dT
and I say we can divide both sides by dt
which gives dQ/dt = mC(t)dT/dt
 
Mew
Yes
 
user228700
:'-(
 
user116211
@Mew What about the case when you work with the grad operator? How can you do stuffs like this then?
 
What we can say is $$\frac{dQ}{dT} = C$$ I'm leaving out the $m$ for convenience
 
Mew
10:11 AM
Yes, but we want the time variation
 
@Mew For the rate of heat change equation, if we use what @Johnrennie said to "differentiate wrt t, then we will still end up with product rule because $$\frac{d(\Delta Q)}{dt}=m\frac{d}{dt}(C(T(t)\Delta{T}))$$, only if we divide by $\Delta (t)$ instead we recover the correct form of the equation?
 
And the chain rule tells us that $$\frac{dQ}{dT} \frac{dT}{dt} = \frac{dQ}{dt}$$
And we know $$\frac{dQ}{dT} = C$ so we get $$C \frac{dT}{dt} = \frac{dQ}{dt}$$
 
Mew
which proves my result
 
There's your answer with no suspect dividing by infinitesimals
 
Wait, so $$C(T(t)) \frac{dT}{dt} = \frac{dQ}{dt}$$ is a definition?
 
user116211
10:13 AM
0
Q: Position eigen functions

Omar Confusion about Dirac notation.When represent basis kets of position state by dirac delta function,when by matrices.These are supposed to be eigen function right ?

 
user116211
Why do they use vague pics like that ;((
 
Mew
i could have proven my method works from first principles (in the same way one can prove the chain rule is correct), but it's not necessary
 
user228700
Wait, but this $C$ is different from the specific heat!
 
user228700
This $C$ is just a constant...
 
C is just the heat capacaity = mc
 
Mew
10:14 AM
no
C can be temperature dependent
 
user228700
Oh no! The symbol that @JohnRennie used...
 
user228700
Never mind, I'm an idiot. Understood.
 
I still don't get how we can ignore the implicit time dependence in C(T) unless we accept that $$C(T(t)) \frac{dT}{dt} = \frac{dQ}{dt}$$ is a definition, and not derived from $dQ=CdT$
 
user228700
@Secret Yeah, neither do I actually.
 
Mew
Secret, the definition is $dQ = CdT$
or
 
user228700
10:17 AM
But you know what? Never mind! I'm just gonna stick to the FIRST explanation that @JohnRennie gave, saying $C$ may be considered a constant for exceedingly small temperature changes.
 
Mew
$\frac{dQ}{dT} = C(T)$
Now using the chain rule
 
user228700
That's probably exactly how my textbook reasoned it.
 
user228700
Thanks a TON!
 
Mew
\frac{dQ}{dt}\times \frac{dt}{dT} = C(T)$
$\frac{dQ}{dt}\times \frac{dt}{dT} = C(T)$
Multiple by sides by the reciprocal of the derivative $\frac{dt}{dT}$ to give
$\frac{dQ}{dt} = C(T)\frac{dT}{dt}$
I prefer dividing by dt which is mathematically fine, but the above works for those who prefer more rigerous mathematics
 
What is Q written in full arguments in the dQ/dT=C(T) equation? is it Q(T) or Q(t) or (because of chain rule) Q(T(t))?
Otherwise I can see how it holds now
 
Mew
10:23 AM
It would be Q(t)
hard to say
since Q is only meaningful when considering the change dQ
It should be noted that the usual convention is a lower case 'c' to refer to "specific heat capacity" and an upper case "C" for heat capacity
 
Back in my physical chemistry course and thermodynamics course, we never encountered many cases where the equation dQ/dt=CdT/dt is used (we mainly used dQ=CdT), which is why it naturally cause me to have a lot of questions. I am glad that you guys are here as otherwise I might have said the wrong thing for this question
 
Mew
The difference is C = mc, that is capital "C" or just "heat capcity" already includes the mass of the sample
 
yup
by the way:
@mew You can tell Joan to beef up her model to QFT level as there's a comment about the approach
Jan 30 at 15:20, by ACuriousMind
@Secret Well...I have a feeling that trying to model the T-violation in some particle experiment with non-relativistic quantum mechanics instead of QFT or at least relativistic quantum mechanics is not really a sensible approach.
that might help fill in some potential holes in her model that others might have pointed out
 
Mew
Yeah
I was potentially going to do a research topic on QFT applied to this paper
But the more I learned of QFT the harder it seemed to apply to the approach in this paper
That said I never got around to learning QFT that well
Do you know QFT?
 
None, because I am still trying to beef up my quantum and classical mech more. I am not ready yet but I am eager to learn it
because QFT promise even stranger ways to think about things
Recall that in classical mech, we have well defined trajectories and nearly all dynamics can be formulated in terms of hamitonians and lagrangians, then we entered quantum where things can superimpose and interfere, trajectories no longer well defined, we can only talk about probabilities and then states can be correlated when they interact (entanglement).
Going further into QFT, you cannot even say when and where fields interact and how it interact with itself, only that "it interacts somewhere"
I like the weirdness and non intuitive viewpoints presented by these models, because it makes one to think outside the box more
For example, telling anyone next to you that time may be discontinuous will surely make them go O_O
 
10:41 AM
Newbie Question: I remember there was a formula that calculates relative speed of objects that move near the speed of light. How can I find that formula?
 
Mew
i'll find it for you
 
@yasar See here
 
Thanks a lot :)
 
Mew
no worries mate
 
11:34 AM
it would be great if someone could tell the fault in this derivation
 
user116211
11:48 AM
@OsheenSachdev Could have used spherical coordinates.
 
user116211
$$\mathbf v= \dot {\mathbf r} = \dot r\mathbf{e_r} + r~\dot \theta\mathbf{e_{\theta}}\;.$$
 
user116211
$$\therefore ~~\mathbf a = \dot{ \mathbf v} = \left[\ddot r - r\dot \theta ^2\right]\mathbf{e_r} + \left[r\ddot \theta + 2~\dot r\dot \theta\right]\mathbf{e_\theta}\;.$$
 
user116211
@OsheenSachdev Now, find any fault by comparing the above general result with your case.
 
Mew
The error is dr/dt does not equal v in your notation
 
@MAFIA36790 I don't know how to work with spherical coordinates so this won't help
 
Mew
12:00 PM
@OsheenSachdev in your notation, v is tangential velocity, but dr/dt represents the change in the radius over time. In most simple circumstnaces the radius is fixed thus dr/dt is 0.
 
@Mew dr/dt is change in position vector per unit time so it should be v
 
user116211
@OsheenSachdev Are you working for circular motion? If so, then $\dot{\mathbf r}= 0\;.$
 
Mew
@OsheenSachdev if r is the position vector then w X dr/dt is equivelent to w multiplied by dr'/dt where r' is the radius
and dr'/dt is 0 as before
 
@Mew how is w X dr/dt is equivelent to w multiplied by dr'/dt ?
 
user116211
@OsheenSachdev Remember velocity is $\dot{\mathbf r}$ and not $\dot r\;.$ They are different things.
 
12:06 PM
@MAFIA36790 so the r I am using is position vector only...
 
user116211
@MAFIA36790 ._. How could I write that? Absent-minded; typo: $\dot r= 0\;.$
 
Uhhh...I still haven't got it
 
Mew
@OsheenSachdev, how do you know your answer is wrong?
 
@Mew because the formula is supposed to be linear acc=alpaXr and not the rest
 
Mew
ok
@OsheenSachdev, your formula is correct
slide 27
Total acceleration is the sum of a tangential component and a radial component
 
12:18 PM
@Mew Oh right! Thanks a lot!
 
Mew
np
 
12:30 PM
@ACuriousMind do you know anything about necessary conditions for a quotient by a group action to yield a manifold?
Usually one hears about free + proper, but I'm not sure if that's as weak as it gets
 
@Danu I don't think I've ever seen a non-free or non-proper action yield a manifold. Doesn't a non-free action generically yield a conifold?
That is, no matter what happens globally, around a locus of fixed points you'll always get something non-manifoldy
 
@ACuriousMind About free, I'm also pretty sure
But proper??
 
So I don't know a proof, but I think free is necessary. I'm not sure about proper
 
Lol
Great minds :P
 
I don't have a really good feeling for what a non-proper action looks like anyway
 
12:37 PM
They are a bit ugly
There is this standard example
where you take $\Bbb R^2$ and identify $(e^\lambda a,e^{-\lambda}b)$ for all $\lambda$
The quotient is not Hausdorff because of the axes, IIRC
I might be bonking up the details here :P
The idea is that the orbit space consists mostly of hyperbolae but the axes get shitty
 
Hm, I think the action of the Lorentz group on Minkowski space isn't proper
All transformations preserve the origin, so the set $\{g\in G\mid gK\cap K\neq \emptyset\}$ is the whole group for $K$ containing the origin.
And the full Lorentz group is not compact
But it's not free either, so that doesn't help us -.-
 
-1
Q: Time travel paradoxes in a definite universe?

user1062760This question is a bit hard to explain and a mind bender. We are all made up of same particles as the rest of the universe and we follow the same law of physics as the rest of the universe. In other words there is nothing human or magical about us from the universe's point of view, we are just...

Either that means our universe is self consistent and thus you cannot change the past, or that a bigger model is needed to account for spacetime topological changes. Either way , not a physics questions unless we have evidence of backward time travel
 
@ACuriousMind Hahaha
The easiest non-proper example, $\Bbb R^*\curvearrowright \Bbb R$, does seem to suggest you'd like to have properness.
Because the quotient has problems exactly where properness fails
But the theorems I've seen are never phrased as iff
So I'm thinking there is a slightly weaker thing
@ACuriousMind Also I don't think this is equivalent to non-proper (that condition being fulfilled for only finitely many is called discontinuity)
Just kidding, that's only for discrete groups
My topology 1 notes go very far to make this stuff precise, but mostly for discrete groups :\
@ACuriousMind Oh blurgh, freeness turns out to not be necessary.
 
12:54 PM
@Danu Example?
 
Take a complex torus
Acting by $\Bbb Z_2$ (just $z\mapsto -z$) on $\Bbb C$ induces an action on the torus (viewed as $\Bbb C/\Gamma$)
 
@ACuriousMind Suppose our universe have reached heat death, is it possible for it to suddenly collapse again, or is it impossible because the expansion depends on the balance between dark energy and all matter and the dark energy have already dominated the matter by a large proportion at heat death? Suppose it does managed to collapse again, how to qualitatively determine how the entropy will be changed?
 
The action has four fixed points in the torus, but the quotient is biholomorphic to $\Bbb P^1$
Yikes
It is proven using that shitty $\wp$ function
 
That's terrible
 
12:58 PM
I see that it has four fixed points, but I'll just believe you that it's $\mathbb{P}^1$
 
I think $\wp$ should be outlawwed
@ACuriousMind My feelings exactly
(the proof is an exercise, haha)
 
@Secret I have no idea what you're saying. "Heat death" is by definition a "final equilibrium state" in which maximum entropy is achieved. If something "suddenly happens", then it wasn't true equilibrium.
@Danu Luckily I saw that thing like...once, I think, in a CFT course of all things.
 
@ACuriousMind Sadly, it's actually important in the theory of Riemann surfaces.
There were like 4-5 exercises involving it in my course.
In one, it actually helped determine the cohomology groups of a Riemann surface, damnit
 
Is the expansion and contraction of the universe also determined by the matter and energy content in it, thus it should cease when the system (universe) reached equlibrium. I am kinda confused because of how the expansion of universe are often potrayed as "exceptions" to laws such as e.g. the expansion of the universe can be faster than the speed of light since GR does not put any restriction to the evolution of spacetime itself, which is why I am wondering whether expansion of the universe
also does not necessary to be fully determined by its energy and matter content?
Or in short, do the universe expansion and contraction itself also governed by thermodynamic laws?
(I'll see if I can phrase this better cause right now it still sound not clear cut...)
 
@Danu I guessed so, given that you appearently have its TeX command memorized ;)
 
1:10 PM
Ok let me put it this way: Recall that in relativity it is stated that no information can travel faster than the speed of light. However the expansion of spacetime itself is not restricted by this as there is no notion you can say how fast spacetime itself is expanding wrt. Now
 
@ACuriousMind Yup, I admit I had to look it up the first time. Then again, it's easy (\wp stands for Weiestrass P)
 
@ACuriousMind we also knew that if a state is at equlibrium, then (barring some localised fluctuations), the state will not change. Now using the thinking of the above analogy, does "expansion and contraction of spacetime" also restricted by the notion of equlibrium here, that is, if the universe is finally at equlibrium, the universe cannot change by possibly slow down or speed up its expansion?
 
@Secret Expansion and contraction are governed by the laws of general relativity. I don't think we usually incorporate the GR degrees of freedom into thermodynamical models, and "heat death" is a bit heuristic, anyway. To my knowledge, cosmology doesn't usually model the universe thermodynamically.
 
Hmm, I see...
 
@Secret What? Of course we can say how fast spacetime is expanding, that's called the Hubble parameter.
 
1:15 PM
ok sorry, I mixed up hubble equation stuff with a much earlier memory of "spacetime expands faster than light" in pop sci forum discussions
@ACuriousMind Hmm, if we don't generally model the universe thermodynamically, what does it mean in arrow of time discussions that people say our initial condition of the universe has lo entropy. What are the microstates under consideration?
typo: low
 
^all configurations of the universe
 
1:35 PM
@Secret Honestly, I find neither the heat death nor the "arrow of time" debates interesting, so I can't tell you. However, a "microstate" of the universe would conceivably consist of the positions and momenta of all particles in the universe, or of the density matrix for the "universal wavefunction". Which are both not particularly accessible or useful notions in my view.
 
hmm, ok
 
1:55 PM
@0celo7 If I understood your proofs correctly, basically because the derivatives of H are bounded, we are allowed to differentiate I under the integral sign to get Eqt 19 for an infintesimal variation. 19 can then be integrated by parts to give a functional that basically look like the EL equations. Finally, using the fact the 2nd derivatives of H are also bounded, we can then use the fundemental calculus of variation lemma $\int_{\omega}f(x)h(g)=0 \implies f(x)=0 almost everywhere$
to recover EL equations for multiple variables. Do I miss anything in my summarised understanding?
 
@Secret : space is expanding. Not spacetime.
 
@Secret I think that's the idea.
 
nice
 
Spacetime is sometimes depicted as a stemless champagne flute on its side. We've dropped a dimension. Time goes from left to right. Space is a vertical slice through the champagne flute. It gets bigger over time.
The expansion is increasing. Hence it's a flared champagne flute.
 
So if any of its derivatives are unbounded or not defined, then we will not be able to differentiate under the integral sign, hence no EL equations and thus on extremising the action we will be forced to evalulate this expression directly
$$0=\frac{d}{dt}I(f+t\varphi)\rvert_{t=0}=\frac{d}{dt}\int_{\omega}H(x,f,p)\varphi (x)dx\rvert_{t=0}$$
Looks like we are lucky that most of the functions in phsyics are not very crazy
@JohnDuffield Ok sorry I forgot the hubble paramter is wrt cosmic time, right
 
2:01 PM
@ACuriousMind How do I write commutative diagrams in chat?
 
@0celo7 You've asked me this question at least once before, I'm not answering it again.
 
@ACuriousMind ...I don't remember every conversation I have.
@ACuriousMind I have not asked you.
 
@0celo7 You have. Maybe not explicitly about "chat", but about MathJax in general.
 
chat.stackexchange.com/… Yeah, definitely not on chat as there is no record on it here. For non-chat, however the search bar won't help on locating past questions
 
@ACuriousMind I asked about it for the blog.
This chat is not the blog.
 
2:16 PM
Feb 24 at 15:53, by 0celo7
@ACuriousMind Do you have any PSE posts with a commutative diagram?
 
I saw that. So what?
-2
Q: What does [$\hat{x}, \hat{p_{x}}$] mean?

Surya PrakashIn an article it is given that [$\hat{x}, \hat{p_{x}}$] is equal to $\hat{x}\hat{p_{x}} - \hat{p_{x}}\hat{x}$. What does this mean?

Wow!
 
Feb 24 at 16:27, by ACuriousMind
@0celo7 No, tikz-cd is not enabled in MathJax as far as I know, and I can't be bothered to draw them in matrices
 
@ACuriousMind Ah, matrices.
Thanks @Secret
Dunno why ACM couldn't tell me that!
 
Well ...
 
How do I get a matrix w/o the brackets
 
2:18 PM
Uh, isn't just matrix without any brackets?
 
$$\begin{matrix} a & b \end{matrix}$$
Yep
Fudge.
How do I hit enter without sending the message
 
I don't think you can do that on the mobile. For PC, shift+enter will generate a linebreak
 
$$\begin{matrix} F & \stackrel{h}{\to} & E\\ \downarrow q & & \downarrow p \\ N & \stackrel{f}{\to} & M\end{matrix}$$
lol
@ACuriousMind You should not have given me this power.
 
O btw, @acuriousmind and @0celo7 any chance you guys knew of any keywords or reference that discuss about this?
0
Q: Exploring the properties of the limit when Lebniz rule fails

SecretConsider the following simple case of differentiation of an integral, where x' is just a dummy variable and $a,b$ are constants $$\frac{d}{dx}\int_a^b f(x',u(x))dx'$$ Now wrote the differentiation in first principles $$\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\int_a^b f(x',u(x+h))dx'-\int_a^b f(x',u(x))dx'}{h}...

Had I knew any special term that name or describe $L(x)$, I would have already googled it
(NB this has nothing to do with classical mech, as discussed previously a few weeks ago)
 
@ACuriousMind So, $E,F$ are VBs, $\nabla$ a connection on $E$. I need a connection $\nabla '$ on $E$ s.t. for $t\in\Gamma(F),s\in \Gamma(E)$ such that $s\circ f=h\circ t$ implies $h(\nabla'_Xt)=\nabla_{f_\ast X}s$, with $X\in\Gamma(TN)$. Also, this is apparently unique?
I'm thinking this is just like constructing a pullback connection.
 
2:27 PM
I've never needed such a thing
 
@ACuriousMind I don't want to get too high on my horse but you're said yourself you're no geometer.
Ah, $\nabla'$ is on $F$. Slight typo.
 
user218912
@0celo7 shift enter?
 
@Secret I don't understand what you want. You need "domnated convergence" only for infinite regions of integration, for finite intervals $[a,b]$ all continuous functions with continuous derivative w.r.t. $x$ fulfill the Leibniz rule (which you consistently wrote as "Lebniz" in your post!). I see no reason to believe that we can say anything about $L(x)$ in the cases where these hypotheses fail.
 
I am trying to understand what extra term will pop up if we cannot do the interchange between the limit and integral and whether the properties of the integral operator will allow some special tricks or rules to simplify integrals-dderivative of this kind. Basically I am interested in evaluating integral expression of this form without differentiating under integral sign $$\frac{d}{dx}\int f(x,x')dx'$$
in order to better understood integrals in general
 
But... why?
The rule fails e.g. in cases where $f$ is individually continuous in the two variables but not actually continous as a function of the two variables.
You can find explicit counterexamples by Googling, but I don't see any reason why you would want to evaluate integrals without using that rule. It fails only in cases of functions that are somewhat "pathological" to begin with.
 
2:41 PM
The major motivation is because everytime I saw the Lebniz proof, I don't understand what happens in the more general case before the whatever condition that allow the interchange of limits to be applied, hence fullfilling lebniz rule. It seems I am plugging in a condition without having any idea what the general, full picture look like, unlike most proofs in algebra
where in (at least linear) algebra, I know msot of the time what the general case look like before conditions are sub in one by one to compelte the proof
->Hmm, I will see what I can find when checking the above counterexample
 
@IceLord did you solve your problem?
 
More generally, one reason I found analysis more confusing than algebra is because I am unable to keep track what each given condition add or subtract from the proof
especially for limits
 
@Secret I think you will wind up just putting the derivative under the integral sign in the end, no matter what you do.
 
Danielsank: But you cannot if the f has properties that prevent the interchange of the limits and integral (though I must admit in almost all physical cases I found, the functions are nice enough that lebniz rule aplies almost always...)
(whcih is why this is actually more of a maths question out of trying to fundementally understand something...)
 
So basically, you want to understand the cases where the rule fails.
 
2:48 PM
exactly, and I suspect $L(x)$ will track what is going on
like how it fails, why it fails, how to use it when it fails etc.
 
@Secret The point is that there doesn't happen anything nice if you can't use the Leibniz rule. In the general case you just have to compute the limit by some other means, but you can't say much about the general case. We almost never can say what happens "generally" in the cases where such limit exchange theorems fail because the failure cases don't have any nice description or properties.
 
hmm, I see, ok then
[rambling] In the past, second law always bugs me, therefore I tried to understand why it bugs me. This is the begining of the story of 1.5 years of thermodynamics intensive learning, and today I suceed. Now similarly, I am always bugged by integrals, therefore I want to understand what and how it bugs me (this is the motivation)
 
You can look at individual counterexamples to understand which step in the proof might fail, but expecting a more general formula is unreasonable in general.
 
ok
 
@ACuriousMind how do I typeset that black dot that you use for e.g. the cohomology ring?
 
2:56 PM
@Danu \bullet
I.e. $H^\bullet(X)$ is H^\bullet(X).
 
Thanks
 
That one is a hard one to get from detexify :D
 
Yeah, I didn't even try ;)
 
[Separately continuous not implies continuous] (For those who don't know what I called the windmill surface (seriously why it has no name...;_;) its the following classic example in multivariable calculus
NB Nope the windmill surface is continous, only its derivatives don't, I use that [] just to ensure I can lookup this message (and the related concept) easier in the future
 
@ACuriousMind If the Christoffel symbols aren't tensors, why do some (highly respected mathematicians) call them tensors?
Is there a way of viewing them as tensors?
 
3:10 PM
Not individually, if there is any way to view the symbols as tensors
because they obviously don't obey tensor transformation rules indiviudally
 
@0celo7 Not that I know, since the transformation behaviour is, as you know, wrong. I don't know why some would choose to call them tensors.
 
They are not even tensor densities like the levi citiva symbol
 
@ACuriousMind wrt. a local trivialization $U$, Besse says that we have the Christoffel tensor, a section of $\Omega^1(U)\otimes E\otimes E^*$.
 
What is $E$?
 
The vector bundle
He defines it as follows:
Take the coordinate neighborhood $U$ and construct the trivial connection it. Pull this back to the bundle. Then take the difference of this connection and the given connection.
 
3:17 PM
Aha! That's not the Christoffel symbol, that's the difference between two Christoffel symbols. Indeed, the components of the difference between two connections does transform like a tensor
 
@ACuriousMind I know that the difference is a tensor, but I don't think that's what's happening here.
Because he later says one can compute the curvature tensor in terms of the Christoffel tensors defined earlier.
 
@0celo7 It is. Due to him taking the trivial connection, in the trivialization chosen this Christoffel tensor is numerically equal to the Christoffel symbols.
 
Ah, ok. So in the coordinate system on $M$ defined by the trivialization, this tensor is just the Christoffel symbols? But if we transform coordinates, the symbols change and the tensor is the same?
 
@0celo7 Yes. (If by "same" you mean, "transforms like a proper tensor")
 
Yes.
 
3:50 PM
@ACuriousMind Is it well-known that a finite product of metric spaces is metrizable?
 
@0celo7 Sure, the metric is obvious.
 
@ACuriousMind Yes, I'm currently debating whether to write the proof in my topology homework or just assume it.
 
It's one line to write down the metric on the product, why would you not write it down if you're even the least bit unsure?
 
@ACuriousMind What?
 
https://wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/58657a5bc68ba6a7eb094ff93c6d23d62f3c422b

Does this equation means that the rate of change of electric field with respect to volume=R.H.S
 
3:53 PM
It's certainly not a one-line proof to show that what you write down is a metric, and generates the product topology.
And my prof says he stops reading a proof if he encounters "clearly" or any other such words.
 
See, now that is information you had not given :P
 
What?
 
In that case, I'd probably be safe and write the whole thing out
 
fuark
I'm just trying to show that $\Bbb R^2$ with the dictionary order topology is metrizable
I know that it's the same as $\Bbb R_d\times\Bbb R$, which is a product of metric spaces.
So it is a one-line proof if you know those two facts.
 
4:12 PM
@ACuriousMind Would you believe me if I told you $h(t)=(t,\frac{1}{2}t,\frac{1}{3}t,\dotsc)$ is not continuous in the box topology?
My idea is that the inverse image of $\prod (-\frac{1}{n^2},\frac{1}{n^2})$ is $\{0\}$, hence not open.
Yes, that's good.
The $\frac{1}{n^2}$ will eventually outrun $|t|/n$ as $n\to\infty$.
 
4:29 PM
@ItachíUchiha no it means the divergence of the electric field is = RHS
 
user218912
@DanielSank no I'm a failure.
 
@IceLord what's up?
 
user218912
working on my qft problem set.
 
user218912
@0celo7 I did all of question 1 by myself :D
 
user218912
I know how to do the rest of the other questions just stuck on proving how to find $N$.
 
4:43 PM
@IceLord Dude, scattered throughout the chat is by now an almost-full proof that $\langle 0 \vert \exp(z^\ast a)\exp(za^\dagger)\vert 0\rangle = \exp(-\lvert z\rvert^2)$. So $N = \exp(-\lvert z\rvert^2/2)$ At which step do you have a problem?
 
http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/280697/what-does-this-maxwells-equation-mean

Is this question appropriate in this site.I wil delete it if it is against site rules.
 
user218912
@ACuriousMind the reverse BCH step.
 
user218912
I just never used that formula before
 
user218912
Idk how to do it
 
@IceLord You don't even need a "reverse BCH" step.
1. BCH says $\exp(A+B) = \exp(A) \exp(B) \exp(-[A,B]/2)$
 
4:53 PM
@ItachíUchiha Well, it's not exactly against "site rules", but I can't really tell what you're trying to ask.
 
2. Rearrange 1 to read $\exp([A,B]/2) \exp(A+B) = \exp(A) \exp(B)$
 
user218912
I know that much.
 
user218912
idk what to do next
 
user218912
wait
 
3. Write 2 again with $A$ and $B$ switched: $\exp([B,A]/2) \exp(A+B) = \exp(B) \exp(A)$
 
user218912
4:54 PM
okay.
 
$=\exp(-[A,B]/2) \exp(A+B) = \exp(B) \exp(A)$
 
@ItachíUchiha The equation you're asking about is Gauß' law, and it "means" exactly what it says: The divergence of the electric field is determined by the charge density. If you want an "intuitve picture", go to the integral form and look at the "amount of field lines" passing through a surface enclosing a certain charge. But this explanation is so common that I can't believe you haven't already seen it, so I'm puzzled what exactly you want to know.
 
@ACuriousMind Do you know what the "bounded" metric on $\Bbb R^\omega=\prod_{n\in\Bbb N}\Bbb R$ is?
 
@0celo7 Nope
 
@IceLord Are you still stuck?
 
4:57 PM
@ACuriousMind Uniform topology?
 
user218912
i'm writing stuff down
 
user218912
give me 5 mins
 
@ACuriousMind Umm..to be honest.I am asking people to explain me what does that equation(only that equation) says in a very very simple manner.(I am a high school student).If I directly ask them that.I will be down voted heavily and the question will be closed.So I had to add something(unnecessary things might be).
 
Being a high school student is not an excuse for asking bad questions @ItachíUchiha
 
4:59 PM
I undestand.
 

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