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1:00 PM
@0celouvsky Wait, what exactly needs the accent to work? Is the 'R' pronounced differently?
 
@0celouvsky Slightly less than half Welsh and slightly less than half Northern Irish - the remainder being contributed by miscegenation with the English. However my accent is pure BBC English.
 
@ACuriousMind yes
 
british r is way nicer
 
I didn't know there were different Rs, though the Scots are inclined to roll theirs.
 
Whoever is of pure noble heart please have a look at my horrible QM post...Should be chicken feed for most of you.
 
1:04 PM
I was quite surprised the first time that someone told me the Scottish roll their arse.
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform too bad the Bernice policy is a thing
 
@0celouvsky What's that?
 
the be-nice policy I guess
 
1:38 PM
An awkward silence is an uncomfortable pause in a conversation or presentation. The unpleasant nature of such silences is associated with feelings of anxiety as the participants feel pressure to speak but are unsure of what to say next. In conversation, average pause length varies by language, culture and context. An awkward silence may occur if a pause has exceeded, for instance, a length generally accepted for demarcating a subject change or the end of a turn. It may be preceded by an ill-considered remark or an imbalance in which one of the participants makes minimal responses. Alternatively...
 
1:51 PM
@ACuriousMind my wife
Despite your sucking the energy out of me I think I did fine
I over studied the measure theory, it was more Lp heavy. Thankfully I like PDE so it was no problem
 
that boy needs therapy
 
Which boy?
 
psychosomatic
crazy in the coconut
 
Who?
@ACuriousMind can we say people need therapy or is that a medical diagnosis
 
What is the basic protocol for finding the probability density of this type of sequential measurement. I only know the case where we want the probability of some measurement eigenvalue $a$ corresponding to operator $\hat{A}$, we project onto the eigenstate to get $\langle \psi|a\rangle \langle a | \psi \rangle$, the probability amplitude. In this case we start with $| + \rangle$ and end with $| - \rangle$. Also does it follow from the postulates of QM as in the simple case I outlined above?
 
1:58 PM
@yuggib so if I get the first three Hormanders, I will use all of them?
@AccidentalFourierTransform is American english simplified vs. British english?
@JohnRennie need your expertise
 
2:12 PM
What is that kind of determinant called?
I have never seen it before
 
lol
where did you see that?
 
I have seen the formula for area of a convex polygon in another form. It composed of a sum of 2x2 determinants.
I don't even know how to interpret it in that form.
 
I've never seen it before
 
@ACuriousMind @yuggib Since the notion of entanglement is basis independent, hence suggesting some geometric property exists for that notion, and that any state in $\mathcal{H}_1 \otimes \mathcal{H}_2$ is a ray in said hilbert space (thus loosely speaking vectors of norm 1). What is this geometric property that distinguish between product states and entangled states?
 
but I like that notation :D
 
2:15 PM
@YashasSamaga it looks like you do diagonal sums going down
left -> right gives a +
 
right -> left gives a -
no clue what that is supposed to be
 
@0celouvsky no, American English isn't simplified when compared to UK English.
 
it's not something you'd see in actual math
 
You can write it as a sum of 2x2 determinants taken in order. |[x1 x2][y1 y2]| + |[x2 x3][y2 y3]| + ...
[nums] represent a row
 
2:16 PM
Though Noah Webster attempted (but largely failed) to simplify American spelling. He is the origin of most of the spelling differences between American and UK written English.
 
@Secret The geometric description is by passing to the projective spaces. Then the entangled states are precisely those not in the image of the Segre embedding $P(H_1)\times P(H_2)\to P(H_1\otimes H_2)$.
 
@JohnRennie I think I knew that
 
You can't describe entangled states nicely on the level of the vector spaces since entangled states don't form a subvectorspace.
 
Algebraic geometry is needed for QM?
I'm triple out
 
2:21 PM
Wow, so that means my conception/knowledge that entangled states are vectors with 4 components (since dim (VW)=dim(V)dim(W)=2*2=4) are not entirely accurate
 
There's another geometric description if you are taking the space of all density matrices, i.e. include mixed states:
Then the pure states are extremal points in that space, and the separable states are the (closed) convex hull of the pure separable states, but this doesn't give you a geometric description of the pure separable states as such
 
Interesting.
 
@Secret Exactly - that's the catch - for a 2-qubit system, the entangled states are a complex-two-dimensional subvariety of the complex-3-dimensional space of states (which you can see very straightforwardly by comparing how many parameters you need to describe an entangled state compared to a generic state)
 
Hmm so that means the usual bra ket way we compute unitary operations on entangled states that "rotate" it to a product state is in the strict sense, not really a rotation of vectors or rays.

I guess I have a lot to *relearn* about the nature of entanglement
Before today, I am always mysterified on how two vectors in a 4 dimensional space (since the basis has dimensions 4) give very different algebraic properties (entangled and products/separable). But I guess the above illuminate why I had the confusion
 
@Secret The points of the projective space are the rays, so yes, the operations do act on rays/vectors. I'm not sure how you got that from what I said.
It's just that the separable states don't form a subvectorspace - so if you thought of them as such a thing, then that's the source of your confusion
(That they aren't a subvectorspace is a very trivial observation that almost never gets spelled out: The tensor product is spanned by the pure states by definition, so if the separable states were a vector space, then there would be no non-separable states)
 
2:35 PM
What's the difference between a separable and pure state?
 
Yeah, I think the notion of sub vector space (unless you mean subspace in linear algebra) never came to mind to me before. This is because in undergrad QM, we pick a basis to calculate 2 qubit systems, and since under this basis the coordinate vector is just a 4 tuple, this gives a naive picture of basically 2 different vectors in a 4 dimensional space, and then I don't see anything that makes them geometrically different that carries the notion of separable and non separable
 
@0celouvsky I tend to confuse the words too, but they're very different concepts: A pure separable state is a state of a combined system of the form $\lvert \psi_1\rangle\otimes\lvert \psi_2\rangle$. A pure state is a density matrix that can be written as $\rho = \lvert \psi\rangle\langle \psi \lvert$. A separable/non-entangled density matrix of a combined system is one that is a convex linear combination of matrices of the form $\rho_1\otimes \rho_2$.
 
Yes, the algebraic definition is straightforward. What I previously have spent a long time on is to translate and understand those into geometric terms
and it does not help at those time I only have that naive picture of two 4 tuples sitting in 4 dimensional space, which then suddenly change from separable to non separable by simply rotating it
 
@ACuriousMind I still don't understand the connection between density matrices and state vectors
 
2:57 PM
@ACuriousMind hello?
 
I hate the concept of 1st vs. 2nd quantisation
its just quantisation!
its the frigging same thing
 
@AccidentalFourierTransform no
 
@0celouvsky I'm not sure what you mean by that
 
@ACuriousMind you said a pure separable state is X, and a pure state is Y
X and Y look completely different to me
 
you shut up you hear me
 
3:10 PM
so how is there a risk of confusion?
they don't even appear be remotely the same thing
 
There's no risk of confusion in the concepts
I just said that I also tend to confuse the words
I've called separable what is pure and vice versa several times
 
@ACuriousMind and what is your $\psi$ there anyway
is it in the tensor product space?
 
It's a state vector in your Hilbert space - the concept of purity has nothing to do with combined systems as such, whether the space is composite or not is irrelevant
 
@ACuriousMind and I said I don't understand why density matrices are called states
 
@0celouvsky Because they give you a notion of evaluating observables by $\mathrm{Tr}(\rho A)$. Abstractly a state is nothing but something that allows you to take expectation values
 
3:13 PM
@ACuriousMind Of course, I know all of that
 
And they are the analogue to classical statistical states.
 
@ACuriousMind OP is fighting for your record: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/322211/…
 
@ACuriousMind what's that?
 
@0celouvsky A probability distribution, essentially. A density matrix represents classical probabilities $p_i$ to be in the state $\lvert \psi_i\rangle$.
@EmilioPisanty Heh
 
@ACuriousMind on phase space?
 
3:18 PM
Before re-posting similar questions, please do take the time to read the guidance linked to in the on-hold message. — Emilio Pisanty 1 min ago
that should do it, I think
 
@0celouvsky On whatever your space of states is, but yes, commonly on phase space.
 
@0celouvsky because they are an informationally complete representation of the (informal notion of the) 'state' of the system
and plus, all other such complete representations are an absolute mess
 
@EmilioPisanty what does that mean?
@BernardoMeurer Let $d$ be the Dirichlet function. Let $x\in\Bbb R$. Since both $\Bbb Q$ and $\Bbb I$ are dense in $\Bbb R$, you can find sequences $(q_n)\subset\Bbb Q$ and $(i_n)\subset\Bbb I$ with $\lim q_n=\lim i_n=x$. But $\lim d(q_n)=\lim 0=0$ and $\lim d(i_n)=\lim 1=1$, so $d$ is not continuous at $x$. This works for all $x$, hence it is nowhere continuous.
 
Ah
Interesting
 
@EmilioPisanty How did you derive $p$ in your answer?
 
3:29 PM
But @0celouvsky How does this not contradict the Lebesgue theorem we proved?
 
@BernardoMeurer On the other hand, this doesn't mean anything for the Lebesgue integral.
 
Ah
Nevermind
Got it
 
It doesn't, we know that it's not integrable because of this.
 
Yeah, exactly
 
For the Lebesgue integral you get $\int_a^b d(x)\,dx=b-a$.
 
3:31 PM
But since $\Bbb Q$ has measure 0 the integral will be over the measure of $\Bbb R\setminus\Bbb Q$
For Lebesgue
 
Exactly, and on that set it's just $1$.
 
Yep
Cool!
 
But you need a lot more machinery to show that, even though it seems fairly intuitive.
 
Thomae's function is so fucking weird
 
Yeah I have no clue what that one is about.
@BernardoMeurer Do you know Lebesgue's singular function?
It is perhaps the strangest of functions.
 
3:35 PM
Nope, show me
 
@BernardoMeurer $\psi:[0,1]\to[0,1]$ with $\psi(0)=0$, $\psi(1)=1$. $\psi$ is continuous, strictly increasing, and has $\psi'(x)\ne 0$ only on a set of measure zero.
That is, $\psi'(x)=0$ almost everywhere.
It violates the (naive) fundamental theorem of calculus even when written with Lebesgue integrals.
 
What the fuck
What's the naïve FTC?
 
It's what led the old masters to define a stronger form of continuity for use in measure theory/functional analysis.
@BernardoMeurer $f(x)=\int_0^x f'(t)\, dt+f(0)$.
 
Ah
That is truly a weird function
 
@BernardoMeurer Turns out the fundamental theorem of calculus is only true if $f$ is "absolutely continuous."
All $C^1$ functions are locally $\mathrm{AC}$, so it's fine most of the time.
 
3:41 PM
@0celouvsky Hm, that seems reasonable. How do you define absolutely continuous? Continuous everywhere?
 
@BernardoMeurer $f\in \mathrm{AC}[a,b]$ means: $(\forall\epsilon>0)(\exists\delta>0)$ such that for $[a_1,b_1],\dotsc,[a_N,b_N]\subset [a,b]$, $\sum_{i=1}^N|b_i-a_i|<\delta\implies \sum_{i=1}^N|f(b_i)-f(a_i)|<\epsilon$.
 
Hm, nice
 
@BernardoMeurer basically... the function is continuous and doesn't oscillate too much
that's in the realm of "not even wrong" because I don't have a better explanation
 
That's a pretty restrictive requirement :/
 
It's not oscillations, sorry. That's $\mathrm{BV}[a,b]$.
"bounded variation"
BV also has a nice measure theoretic definition in terms of distributional derivatives
 
3:46 PM
I dunno measure theory
 
@BernardoMeurer Aha
 
and, surprise, it's not on my course :P
 
A function is absolutely continuous if and only if it is continuous and maps sets of measure zero to sets of measure zero.
That's a better definition.
@BernardoMeurer lame-o
 
@JohnDoe I don't
that's what the question asks for
 
savage
 
3:48 PM
if you want a sharper answer, ask a sharper question
 
@0celouvsky That is a nice definition, yeah
 
@BernardoMeurer of course, that $m(f(A))\ne 0$ for $m(A)=0$ is even possible is perhaps surprising
 
It is weird, to say the least
 
measure zero is strange
in a sense, sets of measure zero can be very large :D
 
Measure 0 is a really weird property
 
3:50 PM
@0celouvsky not true
 
it's counter intuitive that an infinite set can have zero measure
 
@EmilioPisanty what?
 
@0celouvsky by any reasonable definition of "large", measure-zero objects cannot be large
anyways, here's one for y'all
 
I'm not going to get into an argument here because it was just a comment.
 
@EmilioPisanty Large element count
 
3:52 PM
But there are topological notions of size, such as Baire category.
 
@0celouvsky you trigger way too easy
 
There are sets which are large in the sense of Baire but have measure zero.
@EmilioPisanty No
 
Yes.
 
be quiet
 
3:54 PM
> Suitsat-1 in orbit after being deployed from ISS.
 
@skillpatrol yes
 
@EmilioPisanty In the simple case where we want to find the probability of say measuring some eigenvalue $a$ corresponding to some operator
$\hat{A}$, we then project onto the eigenstate to get
$\langle \psi|
a
\rangle
\langle a|
\psi \rangle$ which is the probability amplitude of the measurement yielding $a$, so this follows from one of the postulates of QM. In this case I guess we want to find the probability of the measurmement $\hat{S}$ yielding $\frac{\hbar}{2}$ after a sequence of measurements. Hence I assume that we must adapt the simple case that I gave. Am I right?
 
@JohnDoe thus far, yes
 
@BernardoMeurer By taking a union of cantor sets + $\Bbb Q$, you can get an unbounded, uncountable, dense subset of $\Bbb R$ with measure zero
 
Wat
What the fuck
How can an uncountable unbounded set have measure zero??
And it's dense too wtf
Wat
 
3:56 PM
@BernardoMeurer magic lol
 
@0celouvsky that's pretty cute
 
Cantor set is the ultimate fuckery
 
@BernardoMeurer easy, the union of the Cantor set and the rationals
oh, wait
@0celouvsky what exactly do you mean by Cantor sets?
 
I want to translate Cantor sets around to all intervals $[k,k+1],k\in\Bbb Z$
then it has the property that any intersection with intervals is uncountable
 
@0celouvsky Why not just $C\cup \mathbb Q$?
 
3:58 PM
so it's "nowhere countable" in a sense
@EmilioPisanty Call my set $K$. Then $K\cap [a,b]$ is uncountable for any $a,b$.
 
@0celouvsky if $k\in\mathbb Z$, then no
 
It's so uncountable that no reasonable subset is countable.
@EmilioPisanty Cantor set is uncountable.
 
@0celouvsky $C$ has a big gaping hole in the middle
i.e. its intersection with $(1/2-\delta,1/2+\delta)$ is empty
 
.
 
where $\delta$ is 1/12 or something
 
4:00 PM
@EmilioPisanty Ah. Take more Cantor sets then.
 
@0celouvsky then yes
 
Union cantor sets so that there are no holes.
That's my idea.
 
so you mean $C+\mathbb Q$ or something
 
Exactly.
That has measure zero too.
 
Let me rethink that question.
 
4:02 PM
@JohnDoe frankly, you need to push a bit more on this one
you're kinda asking to be spoon-fed a solution, when it just boils down to straightforward applications of principles you already know
 
That should contain $\Bbb Q$
 
@EmilioPisanty Okay I will try to push a bit more.
 
@BernardoMeurer Yep, $C+\Bbb Q$ is dense, uncountable, and every $(C+\Bbb Q)\cap(a,b)$ is uncountable. But, it has measure zero.
 
@0celouvsky Here's a challenge for you
> A set $A$ for which there exists no function having $A$ as its set of points of discontinuity
 
What does $+$ mean when talking about sets?
 
4:05 PM
@BernardoMeurer $A+B=\{a+b:a\in A,b\in B\}$
ooooh, here's another nice one
 
Intuitive, cool
 
> Two disjoint nonempty nowhere dense sets of real numbers such that every point of each set is a limit point of the other
 
Irrational numbers @EmilioPisanty
 
@0celouvsky that the first one or the second one?
 
First
 
4:08 PM
in Mathematics, 41 mins ago, by Semiclassical
But then again, anything which has to address the Cantor set is going to be weird :)
 
@0celouvsky ok, yeah, fair enough
I'm assuming you know
> A continuous monotonic function with a vanishing derivative almost everywhere.
 
Yeah, although I admit I haven't gone through the proof in the discontinuous case.
@EmilioPisanty oh Christ
I don't like analysis trivia enough for that one :D
 
oooooh, nice
> A function defined on $\mathbb R$, equal to zero almost everywhere and whose range on every nonempty open interval is $\mathbb R$.
man, that book is a jewel
@0celouvsky what about strictly monotonic, though?
 
@EmilioPisanty we did it in class for continuous ones, he put the general case in the notes but I didn't check
 
@0celouvsky wait, why do you think that discontinuous is harder than continuous?
"A continuous monotonic function with a vanishing derivative almost everywhere" is just the devil's staircase
 
4:14 PM
@EmilioPisanty I told Bernardo about that an hour ago
 
@0celouvsky so now make it strictly monotonic
 
@EmilioPisanty one of the intermediate steps strongly requires continuity
There might be an easier proof that doesn't use it
 
@0celouvsky what?
what is it you're proving?
 
@EmilioPisanty I'm confused, what am I supposed to be doing.
 
this is a counterexample
 
4:15 PM
We're having very different conversations I'm afraid.
 
i.e. provide a function with those properties
 
@EmilioPisanty I just want to ensure my basic idea (which is supposed to be an anology to the situation in the post) is correct:
So say I start with state $| \psi \rangle$ and want to find the probability of measuring $a'$ (corresponding to operator $\hat{A}$) after measuring $b'$ (corresponding to some operator $\hat{B}$) then would the probability be $\langle b' | a' \rangle \langle a' | b' \rangle\langle \psi| b' \rangle \langle b' | \psi \rangle$?
 
@JohnDoe yes, but never ever ever ever order it like that
 
@EmilioPisanty What's wrong with it?
 
$$ \langle \psi| b' \rangle \langle b'|a' \rangle \langle a' | b' \rangle \langle b'|\psi\rangle$$
@JohnDoe it is completely opaque, which makes it much harder to analyze, and much easier for you to make a mistake when you're manipulating it
Anyways @0celouvsky, this is the book
free copy here
 
4:25 PM
I have it
 
@0celouvsky figures
 
@EmilioPisanty is there a "counterexamples in quantum mechanics" book out there :D
 
@0celouvsky as in?
 
Hamiltonian with continuous spectra, empty point spectrum, weird perturbation series
That kind of stuff
 
@0celouvsky oh, that's boring
that's not even QM
that's just functional analysis
I mean, interesting enough in a functional-analysis sense
 
4:29 PM
@BernardoMeurer A+B means you translate A by every element of B and union them up
 
but there's nothing specific to QM about any of those
 
@EmilioPisanty speaking of FA, any infinite dimensional Banach space has only uncountable bases.
 
A book that had all the uncomfortable experimental truths why your cousin's fantastic new interpretation of QM is necessarily bullshit, though, now that'd be interesting
2
 
it's pretty strange
and in an infinite dimensional Hilbert space, an orthonormal (Hilbert) basis is never a basis
 
@0celouvsky what do you mean by basis there?
 
4:31 PM
@EmilioPisanty Hamel basis
@EmilioPisanty Do you have such a cousin :P
 
@0celouvsky Hamel bases are (ultimately) boring
 
@EmilioPisanty I'd buy that one.
2
 
@0celouvsky ^ proof
 
ACM is your annoying cousin?
 
@0celouvsky ring me up when you can construct one, though
@0celouvsky blast, we've been discovered
 
4:33 PM
@EmilioPisanty they are useful in certain proofs
 
no, thankfully my family tends not to say stupid shit like that
 
My mom thinks QM is about the power of positive thought
 
@0celouvsky those proofs are likely equivalent to Banach-Tarsky
 
but I don't accept C so you're right
they're worthless
@EmilioPisanty are you a fellow C denier?
 
@0celouvsky I'm on the fence on C
 
4:34 PM
Some people don't believe in C, and that's okay
 
thus far I'm undecided about C
 
I go a step further, I think ZFC is a lie
 
Banach-Tarsky is bizarre
but then again so is "$\exists$ a nonzero vector space whose dual is zero"
 
even with C there are topological vector spaces with trivial strong duals, btw
@EmilioPisanty do you know what the canonical example for that is?
 
@0celouvsky by trivial strong duals, you mean there's no nonzero continuous linear functionals?
that's fine by me
continuity is a strong condition
 
4:37 PM
I think that's one of those things (like Banach Tarsky) that we all "know" but have never cared to check the proof
 
@EmilioPisanty Following from my simple case analogy then I would write: $$\langle \psi|+ \rangle \langle \hat{n}; +| - \rangle \langle-| \hat{n} ;+ \rangle \langle+ | \hat{n};+ \rangle \langle \hat{n}; + \rangle \langle + | \psi \rangle$$ would be the probability of measuring $s_z = \frac{\hbar}{2}$ starting with state $| \psi \rangle$.
 
@EmilioPisanty I know it's fine, I'm just giving you an FYI
 
@0celouvsky there's an MO question about that, let me look for it
@JohnDoe mind your notation there
 
I'm 99% sure every locally convex space has at least one nontrivial continuous functional
every normed vector space does
 
there we go
37
Q: Is the non-triviality of the algebraic dual of an infinite-dimensional vector space equivalent to the axiom of choice?

Konrad SwanepoelIf $V$ is given to be a vector space that is not finite-dimensional, it doesn't seem to be possible to exhibit an explicit non-zero linear functional on $V$ without further information about $V$. The existence of a non-zero linear functional can be shown by taking a basis of $V$ and specifying th...

 
4:38 PM
aha
I've seen that MO post about 10 times
but I can't read that proof
 
@0celouvsky What's a dual?
 
if you can...I'm very impressed
 
@0celouvsky I can't
 
@BernardoMeurer the dual of a vector space $V$ is the set of all linear maps $V\to\Bbb F$
 
anything technical on AC is beyond me
 
4:39 PM
@EmilioPisanty $$\langle \psi|+ \rangle \langle \hat{n}; +| - \rangle \langle-| \hat{n} ;+ \rangle \langle+ | \hat{n};+ \rangle \langle \hat{n}; +| + \rangle \langle + | \psi \rangle$$
 
if $V$ has a topology we can require these to be continuous, and get a (perhaps) smaller continuous dual
 
In the end, denying choice means that you claim that there are surjections of sets that don't have right inverses, which is a statement one should perhaps dwell on before going to all the paradoxes.
 
@JohnDoe I'm going to refuse to read any such expressions henceforth unless you order them correctly
 
and in many cases you want to topologize the dual, which gives the strong dual, wk* dual, and more
 
really
 
4:40 PM
@ACuriousMind I don't claim to understand infinite sets
and I don't think you should either
 
What was the first SE site after SO?
 
As Dr. Duffield famously said, "there ain't no infinite cardinalities in the night sky"
 
@BernardoMeurer SU?
possibly SF
 
Why not U
Surely people thought of U before SU
 
SF?
Super User
 
4:41 PM
or maybe SL
 
@0celouvsky ain't no Dr. behind Duffield, I should think
@BernardoMeurer serverfault
 
Ah
@EmilioPisanty I believe you are correct
He's an EE IIRC
 
@EmilioPisanty honorary degree from the Ocelot University
 
@EmilioPisanty I'm not ordering incorrectly on purpose. I'm still figuring the subleties like ordering out. As long as the idea is right for now.
 
4:43 PM
@JohnDoe As I said before, if you put them out of order they become much harder to read
 
@0celouvsky What I mean, is, think about how these statements can fail in other contexts: E.g. not all ring epimorphisms have right inverses, but that's because the naive inverse fail to be a homomorphism. That is, the failure of an epimorphism to split should be related to some structure on the objects you're considering. But a set has no structure - what is the obstruction for the inverse to exist?
 
@ACuriousMind can you write this in symbols
 
I can look them over but I'm not going to decode stuff that's been incorrectly put together
 
I know what you're saying but I can't see why it's bad
 
The obstruction in ZF is simply that it doesn't allow you to "construct" that function from the axioms, but that strikes me as an inherently silly obstruction. I'll admit that's a purely subjective argument, but it's really not the notion of "set" that obstructs us here, but the particular axiomatization
 
4:44 PM
-6
Q: Modern Formalism

rtgyv Modern formalism Question on Bloch Vector, Hermiltian matrix

oh, hell, no
 
I know what you're saying, Bajoran
But to me ZF formalizes what I can write on paper
I can't write an infinite set
or a counting function
@EmilioPisanty don't gold badge it
 
how the hell does something like that get an upvote?
@0celouvsky that's... a weird understanding of how goldbadging works
you can't dupehammer stuff that's not a duplicate
 
oh, it's just a dupehammer?
til
 
Turing machines will replace set theory
 
@ACuriousMind you should add turing machines to your starred quote
 
4:47 PM
@0celouvsky dupehammer plus editing the list of duplicates
 
A question that gives insight on the creepy stuff I develop sometimes
10
Q: Filtering a list of citizens

Bernardo MeurerI have a filter method that receives a list composed of dictionaries. You must discard dictionaries that have their handle or their citizen_number elements off the filtered result as well as concatenate any lists inside that dictionary. In addition to that, in case an element on that main list is...

 
@EmilioPisanty What is the ordering that you prefer?
 
@JohnDoe any time $|a\rangle\langle b|$ shows up with $a\neq b$ that's not required, your expression becomes harder to read
 
@EmilioPisanty Oh okay I will tidy up.
 
it should read like an onion from out to in, with each $|a\rangle\langle a|$ indicating a physical operation
 
4:50 PM
Yes I agree
 
@BernardoMeurer is that for an Underhanded C competition or something? =P
 
Hello @JohnRennie
 
@EmilioPisanty Hm? No, that's some Python code I wrote for some data mining once
 
Underhanded C is fantastic, though
 
4:52 PM
They do come up with amazing stuff
 

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