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12:34 AM
anyone happens to have access to this article?
 
@Slereah seems to be a European thing
@Slereah I do
 
1:38 AM
@ACuriousMind wtf the exercises in Milnor are so hard
and they use multiple results from throughout the text
 
 
1 hour later…
2:57 AM
Hi @dmckee
 
3:37 AM
@ACuriousMind
"The introduction of numbers as coordinates...is an act of violence..." - H. Weyl
 
4:02 AM
spoken as a true number theorist
 
5:01 AM
@0celo7 :)
 
 
3 hours later…
8:26 AM
My work always tried to unite the
Truth with the Beautiful, but when I
had to choose one or the other, I usually chose the Beautiful.

Hermann Weyl
 
So apparently there is a wavefunction for bipolar coordinates
It is either in the form of an infinite series or an integral
 
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ Weyl came up with a truly elegant version of general relativity, but failed to spot that if you moved an object through a closed loop the object's size could change. Beautiful, but ... erm ... not true! :-)
But then he did invent gauge theory so we can forgive him :-)
 
:-)
here is the source of the above quote @JohnRennie
@yuggib o/
How's the sushi?
 
user116211
8:43 AM
Hallo people!
 
user116211
Came from shopping after buying snacks for enjoying Euro Cup ;P
 
@JohnRennie Is that like conformal GR or something
 
have you even checked if it was true
walk in a little circle
check if you get taller
 
8:51 AM
Hi @ally
Come to discuss relativity?
 
user128101
Hi John, thanks for your kind invitation, would it be more appropriate to open a specific chatroom?
 
nah no need
 
No, just chat here. Someone else might be interested.
 
Things are pretty slow on sunday
 
user116211
@Slereah ??
 
8:53 AM
Sunday? Have you been messing with those CTCs again?
@ally shall I start, or do you want to kick off the discussion by asking a specific question?
 
Oh right
When you got no job every day is sunday :p
 
Spain better not win again @MAFIA36790
 
user116211
@Slereah ah!
 
user116211
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ I'm going with Germany.
 
user128101
8:55 AM
@JohnRennie, as you wish. If I got it right, your argument was: gold has increased mass because every observer agrees on its value, whereas different observers have different opinions on the mass of the particle at LHC. Is that correct?
 
@ally No. All observers will agree on the invariant mass of protons at the LHC.
 
user116211
@Slereah start a blog... like Lumo; you'd be busy.
 
Different observers will disagree about the proton momentum, but when you take that moemmtnum and calculate the amss from it all observers will get the same value of $m$.
 
user128101
@JohnRennie, I am referring to the mass increase due to KE
 
The mass doesn't increase with velocity.
 
user128101
8:57 AM
@JohnRennie, yes you said that many times, I don't get it since you did not refute my arguments about objective clues that mass has increased, shal I repeat them?
 
Go on then ...
 
user128101
the speed of the p is certified by clock, mass is certified by Lorentz formula, mass increase is certified by increased radius
 
If we do measurements at the LHC we can measure the particle momentum and we can measure the velocity. Yes?
@ally: Hello?
 
user128101
At LHC they measure the time to make a rvolution, measure and controll the magnitude of B so we know for certain that speed is .999999991 c B is 8.22T, KE = 7 TeV,right? Now considering the invariant mass the radius shoul be 7460 time smaller, and that is confirmed by Lorentz formula. So we
 
user128101
know for certain that the effective mass is 7460 times greater, right?
 
9:06 AM
No, because the Lorentz equation for the force on the particle is a non-relativistic approximation and doesn't apply to relativistic particles.
 
user128101
The fact the some observers may not agree is irrelevant, but I have also shown that even a moving observer will check that
 
See for example:
and a quick Google will find you many simiar articles.
 
user128101
I thought that indeed Lorentz was particularly made for relativistic particle and speeds
 
user128101
I was referring to the 1/sqrt(1-v^2/c^2) are you referring to the same equation
 
The Lorentz equation describes the force on a charged particle:
In physics, particularly in electromagnetism, the Lorentz force is the combination of electric and magnetic force on a point charge due to electromagnetic fields. If a particle of charge q moves with velocity v in the presence of an electric field E and a magnetic field B, then it will experience a force F = q E + q v × B {\displaystyle \mathbf {F} =q\mathbf {E} +q\mathbf {v} \times \mathbf {B} } (in SI units)...
So in this case you're (mis) applying it to calculate how particles curve in the magnetic fields at the LHC.
 
user128101
9:09 AM
I was referring to the mass formula, that tells us that at that speed mass becomes 7460 greater
 
OK, that's the equation m' = m/sqrt(1 - v^2/c^2) Yes?
Are you starting by assuming that that equation is true?
 
user128101
yes, I was also referring to the measurement of the radius by a moving observer, can we stick to these to data?
 
user128101
Lorentz tells us that mass is greater, and in the lab frame we confirm the radius is as many times greater, right?
 
The trouble is that you're starting by assuming what you're trying to prove.
What I'm saying is that the parameter m' in that equation is not the mass, or more precisely not a mass in any physically meaningful way.
 
user128101
So, lets assume the mass increase is real
 
9:13 AM
@0celo7 Weyl was awesome
 
user128101
No, i do not follow you. I am not trying to prove anything
 
IIRC Einstein said that he had no idea what Weyl's papers were about
 
If you have a particle moving in a circle there must be a force towards the centre to cause the circular motion. Yes?
 
user128101
Please, try to follow my sequence, else I am lost: I am applying the usual formulae, everything says mas is 7460 greater!,
 
user128101
Is that questionable?
 
9:15 AM
@ally yes:
23
Q: Why is there a controversy on whether mass increases with speed?

User 17670Some people say that mass increases with speed, some people say that the mass of an object is independent of its speed. I understand how some (though not many) things in physics are a matter of interpretation based on one's definitions. But I can't get my head around how both can be 'true' is an...

 
user128101
@ACuriousMind, it's already difficult for me to discuss with one
 
What I'm trying to do is lay out the arguments in a simple logical order to pinpoint where we are disagreeing. It will take me about five minutes. At the moment I can't follow your argument because you haven't stated it clearly.
Why not take the five minutes to follow my argument and see where it leads?
 
user128101
NO, because you have already been so kind to answr many of my questions, and chatting with me.I need you to patiently to follow my logic step by sted and say when it breaks down
 
OK. What's your step 1?
 
9:19 AM
Try it, you might like it :-)
 
user128101
Once more, At LCH the measure Ke, speed, B field can you doubt that?
 
OK, so far so good. Yes I can measure momentum, energy, velocity, the strength of the magnetic field and the radius of the circular motion. This far we agree.
 
user128101
At that Ke and speed lorentz formula tells us what is effective mass, 7460 invariant masses, right?
 
user128101
In our frame, the radius of revolution confirms that invariant mass hass hugely increased, right?
 
@ally Aha! No. That's where you're wrong.
 
user128101
9:22 AM
Ok shoot
 
Well this is what I was trying to explain before.
Suppose we have a proton with mass m moving in a circle of radius r at velocity v, then the acceleration towards the centre is a = v^2/r. Yes?
 
user128101
If effective mass were theinvariant mass what would radius be?
 
user128101
forget for a second about SR,
 
user128101
what would radius be
 
@ally that's what I'm about to do. Are you happy with my statement about the acceleration above?
 
9:25 AM
If you ask John to follow your explanation step by step to see where it is wrong it would behoove you to in turn follow his explanation of why it is wrong step by step
 
user128101
I am not considering acceleration for now, let's stick to the radius
 
I'm about to calculate the radius, but you need the acceleration to do it. That's why I'm starting with the acceleration. Are you happy for me to proceed?
 
user128101
what is the radius of a p at .9 c?
 
user128101
OK, proceed
 
OK, just to reprise, the acceleration is related to the radius and particle velocity by:
a = v^2/r
This is just basic mechanics.
Now let's proceed using Newtonian mechanics not SR.
 
user128101
9:28 AM
in a B field it becomes a = vB
 
user128101
right?
 
Newton's second law tells us F = ma, so the force on the proton must be:

F =ma = mv^2/r

Yes?
 
user128101
yes , but v= p/B , right?
 
user128101
Imean r= p/B
 
OK, and as you say the Lorentz force law for a proton ina magnetic field B tells us:

F = evB

where e is the proton charge.
 
user128101
9:32 AM
yes, I calculated that at .9c the radius of a proton should be 1,4 cm, at c a little larger
 
For circular motion the two forces must be equal so we equate them to get:

evB = mv^/r

and we can use this to calculate r. I haven't done the caculation, but if you say the answer is 1.4cm I'm happy to believe you.
So we have a problem because that obviously isn't the radius of the LHC. Yes?
 
user128101
Yes, if we consider that massis actually 7460 times bigger, we get the actual radius, 4 km
 
@ally correct, but that isn't the reason we got the wrong answer.
 
user128101
what is then?
 
We got the wrong answer because Newton's second law, F=ma, and the Lorentz force law, F=evB, are non-relativistic approximations and gve the wrong answers if we apply them to relativistic objects.
 
user128101
9:35 AM
it cannnot be a coincidence the figeres are too exact
 
As it happens, the error turns out to be a factor of sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)
 
user128101
I am not considering newton at all, why do you bring it in? F=evB is a valid formula
 
user128101
thats why I said, consider v =.1 c or any other non relativistic speed
 
F=evB doesn't apply to relativistic objects.
 
user128101
does it apply for v = .14 c?
 
9:39 AM
(Aside: I'm not sure what you calculated, but I get 34.27 cm for the proton. )
 
It is exact only in the limit of v = 0
It is a pretty good approximation up to a few percent of $c$
There is no exact cutoff when it ceases to apply, the error just gets gradually larger.
 
(Aside: @ACuriousMind the Brits spell "behoove" with one less o :p )
 
But look: the point is that we can absorb that factor of sqrt(1-v^2/c^2) if we say the mass changes by that factor
 
@skillpatrol You might have noticed by now that my spelling is neither fully American nor fully British :P
 
And that's why the concept of relativistic mass was devised.
It was to absorb that annoying factor.
 
9:41 AM
Indeed @ACuriousMind :D
 
But it's a physically meaningless procedure. It's just saying "hey my equation only works if I change the mass"
Instead of "hey I'm not using the correct equation"
 
user128101
but if we apply the evB formula, results are in accordance with the lorentz mass formula
 
user128101
Ok, but this is completely new to me, I thought your main argument was that the mass increase had to be rejected because not all observers agree
 
user128101
That is a weak argument, isn't it?
 
I can explain what I meant by that, but that's another few minutes. Shall I go ahead?
 
9:44 AM
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ununoctium

If there's a way to perturb the energy states in all spontaneous decay routes of these superheavy elements externally so as to inhibit their radioactivity, it would be great, as right now they are simply way too unstable to study for more than mere moments

should read up what controls the energetic barrier of particle decays...
 
user128101
You are welcome, your advice is precious
 
Even in regular mechanics some things are observer dependent. So for example you and I will disagree about the kinetic energy of an object if you are moving relative to me or vice versa. Yes?
But some things we will agree on. For example we will agree on the mass of the moving particle (Newtonian mechanics remember). Yes?
 
user128101
No, John, that is a fallacy. Observers are partially blind, you cannot trust them
 
user128101
You can't trust anyone, actually. So differents conclusions mean nothing
 
I'm assuming we have ideal observers who don't make mistakes. If you reject that notion it's going to be hard to make any progress.
 
user128101
9:48 AM
I am honoured to talk to you, give me the benefit of dout and follow me step by step
 
OK, go ahead.
 
user128101
you are flying in a plane, at 3000 km/h all windows shut, no intruments. What is your speed you feel you are still? you open a window, you change your mind, you have intruments, you get a more perecise indo, do you follow me?
 
Yes, I think so.
And what that shows is that speed is a somewhat ill defined parameter.
 
user128101
you have no instruments, but you have an accelerometer you used during lift off , everything is blind, do you know your speed? the fact that you change your mind does if affect your actual speed?
 
You'll have to define what you mean by actual speed
 
user128101
9:54 AM
yeah, your speed relative to earth is well defined, same is the fuel you burned, the friction you met, the Ke you possess, the speed. The fact that you realize or not does not matter, right?
 
Your speed relative to the ground is well defined, yes.
 
user128101
But if windows are blind, you think you are not moving, if you have instruments you slowly change the accuracy of your measurements, but that does not matter
 
When you're sat in the plane with all the windows shut all you know is your speed relative to the plane, which is zero. So it isn't the same as the speed relative to the ground.
 
user128101
Yes, your judgement is wrong, you think you have no Ke, but you are wrong. The same applies to any relative observer. The ignorance of actual data does not affect it, so any conlusion by different observers is justified and mean nothin
 
No, that statement is wrong, because there is no correct value for your KE.
Your KE relative to the ground has some value while your KE relative to the plane is zero.
 
user128101
10:00 AM
You agreed above that speed relative to ground is well defined
 
user128101
Now you might go to next step and argue that that speed is not absolute,right?
 
Yes, it's a well defined quantity that is different to your speed relative to the plane.
@ally Aha! Yes, that's my point. Speed is not absolute!
Speed is an observer dependent quantity.
 
user128101
No, I foresaw that, try to reflect now, since this is a widespread fallacy
 
...what
 
10:02 AM
You're about to disagree with every physicist, but go ahead ...
 
user128101
That is not physics, it is plain, basic logic
 
Everything is physics ...
 
Explain it then logically.
 
user128101
Now the man on the plane thinks he has no Ke , but he is wrong, since he has same Ke of the plane but he simply ignores it,right?
 
@JohnRennie Some mathematicians work hard to do things we can't possibly use in physics. We get them all eventually ;)
 
10:04 AM
Please :-)
 
user128101
That is not math, it's the basis of any physical coherent world
 
The man on the plane isn't wrong. KE is an observer dependent quantity. Relative to the plane the man does indeed have no KE.
While relative to the ground he has a KE > 0
Both statements are true
 
user128101
Sure, but he does have Ke, sameas plane, the pilot knows it , he doesn't, that is the difference
 
You're always omitting relative to what they "have ke"
 
user128101
That is understood by now, follow me.
 
10:06 AM
The man in the sealed plane knows his KE relative to the plane is zero. He doesn't know his KE relative to the ground because he has no way of measuring it.
 
"having ke" is not an invariant property of a thing, the plane has a different kinetic energy with respect to the earth than with respect to the sun
 
relativity
 
user128101
Sure he is not stupid, he is ignorant, nevertheless we know he is moving at 3000 km wrt earh
 
user128101
right?
 
OK, and that allows us to calculate his KE relative to the earth
 
user128101
10:08 AM
Physics, science is all about knowlwdge
 
user128101
right?
 
Interesting to brought this out (because I always thought this for energy only occur in relativistic conditions). But how is conservation of energy be understood?

for now, let's consider newtonian mechanics
Suppose I and a lump of ball move with the same velocity v wrt the ground, thus the ball is stationary wrt me. Therefore the ball has no KE wrt me

Now in the ground frame, the ball has a KE of $\frac{1}{2}mv^2$

So if I initially started in the ground frame, and then accelerated myself into the moving frame, I will see the ball's KE slowly go to zero wrt me. But then where does the ene
 
@ally I can't say "yes right" or "no wrong" because the statement "science is all about knowlwdge" doesn't mean anything
 
user128101
as you wish, science is abouth anything?
 
10:10 AM
@Secret it would be cool to defer this until we've sorted ally's issue
 
ok
 
Science starts from a set of assumptions and uses equations to make predictions.
 
Knowledge is relative to the knower!
 
So if we have an object with a velocity relative to us of v we know the KE = 1/2 mv^2
 
user128101
So , the man in the plane , if heis a man of science, or at least of logic, should conclude that he has same Ke/speed of the plane , and that,alas he doesn't know what that is
 
10:12 AM
The point is that KE is different for different observers, just like velocity is
 
user128101
Let's conclude this case and then move to two observers
 
The man in the plane knows his KE relative to the plane is zero
@ally OK, if that will simplify the argument
 
user128101
...and if he is wise should only that he doesn't know what is the Ke of the plane and try to find out, not to conclude that Ke/speed is relative
 
But KE is relative
How can it not be? We've agreed speed is relative and KE = 1/2 mv^2
 
user128101
that's is a pre-judice we are trying to refute
 
10:14 AM
So if the v in that equation is relative that means KE must be relative as well
 
@ally You're not refuting anything. For instance, why are you using the speed relative to the earth and not the speed relative to the sun to compute "the Ke"?
 
user128101
that formula only raltes Ke to speed, could we please refer only to one of your choice?
 
@ally I'm not sure what you mean by refer only to one of your choice
 
user128101
one thing at a time, John,Earth we can touch and measure, Sunis far away
 
10:16 AM
You can not refute what you observe relative to yourself
 
user128101
refer only to KE or speed,it's the same, right?
 
KE and speed are linked by KE = 1/2 mv^2, so if you know v you can find KE and the other way round.
So if that's what you mean by the same then I agree
 
user128101
That's why it is uslessly redundant to quote themboth
 
OK, but I still don't see your point
 
user128101
it is going to be a little difficult, but , try
 
user128101
10:19 AM
we concluded that man on the plane can only conclude he has sameKe of the plane, he doesn't know what is it,but that Ke (wrt earth) is not relative to an observer
 
There's a problem with that statement
 
user128101
if you think that any ignorant other observer can question that Ke you should prove that
 
I'm guessing you mean to say the man in the plane doesn't know his KE relative to the Earth. Yes?
 
user128101
ANY observer, John
 
You mean the man in the plane doesn't know his KE relative to any observer except an observer sitting next to him in the plane. Yes?
 
user128101
10:23 AM
the Ke of the plane is a hard, objective scientific fact /datum, nobody can question, It can be greater, if earth is moving, not less, by any means
 
The KE of the plane relative to the earth is something we can all agree on, yes.
 
Do you agree that an observation depends on the observer?
 
user128101
Any observer who draws a different conclusion is simply ignorant
 
@ally well, I'd say wrong rather than ignorant, but yes I think I agree.
 
user128101
ignorant , literally, ignoring some vital info
 
10:26 AM
Why is he ignoring it?
 
But what is special about the KE relative to the Earth?
 
An observer does not ignore vital info
 
user128101
If you agree so far, John, most of the job is done. If you understan this very simple,basic irrefutable logic , you cancarry it as many steps forward as you wish
 
user128101
Ke relative to earth is easily checkable, tht's why we chose it.
 
I agree that all observers will agree about the KE relative to the Earth. But I don't see how that gets us any further forward.
 
user128101
10:30 AM
It's very simple , John, Eart is our universe of discourse, if earth wer the Universe we would have the absolute, since it is not you have to advance your 'knowledge'
 
@ally I don't know what that means. The Earth is an arbitrary reference frame that happens to be convenient.
We tend to measure velocities relative to the Earth because it suits us.
But we can measure velocities and KE relative to anything we choose.
 
user128101
That makes no difference, John, aslongas you canmanage. Now,first, If you use the same frame for two or more observers, you reach same conclusion: what different observer say carries no weight, their evaluation can be distorted in all ways
 
You say If you use the same frame for two or more observers, you reach same conclusion and yes I agree.
And if the two observers use different frames then they will get different results i.e. reach different conclusions. Yes?
 
user128101
GOOD, it was not so bad, after all. WE better star from earth, it is easier, much easier. Now , frames , according to basic logic should be gradually enlarged, not invented. Those are the steps I was suggesting
 
Just to make sure we agree, are you agreeing that:
>if the two observers use different frames then they will get different results i.e. reach different conclusions
 
10:36 AM
^
 
user128101
That is too wague to comment, make a concrete example with the plane
 
user128101
but the point is: who cares if they reach different conclusions as long as it is not speed of light?
 
The man on the plane thinks he is stationary so his KE is zero. The man on the ground thinks the plane is moving at v so he thinks the KE = 1/2 mv^2. So different conclusions. Yes?
 
@ally What does that mean? Why would "basic logic" dictate that frames should be "gradually enlarged"? Why would we "better start from Earth"? It's simply convenient for us to use Earth, but nothing privileges Earth over any other reference object except us living on it.
 
user128101
we agreed the man on the plane is ignorant, why recall it?
 
10:38 AM
Are you agreed that is a good example of how observers get different results if they use different frames?
 
And saying that Earth is special because we're living on it is just the age-old "sun rotates around the Earth" argument all over again.
 
@ACuriousMind chill, I think we may be very nearly there ...
 
user128101
No, John, it is not a matter of frame, is a matter of 'savvy'. The pilot and the man on earth are on different frames but same exact right conclusion, the passenger does not becaus he is ignorant,
 
OK answer me this. What does the man on the plane think his mass is? Ignore relativity for now.
 
user128101
Let's not get too many irons in the fire, let's agree on the basic principle. I hope you, too, can ignore relativity for a while
 
10:43 AM
I'm asking that question because it is of vital importance to the debate. Suppose the man on the plane weighs 70kg. What does the man on the plane think his mass is?
 
Passenger = pilot = observer on the plane
 
user128101
The man on the plane is ignorant, probably doesn't know the difference between mass and weight, can we stick to the example?
 
Assume mass and weight are the same, and answer the question. What does the man on the plane think his mass is? It isn't a trick question.
 
user128101
I do not think it's a tricky question, I do not know what tha man thinks besides that he is not moving
 
Well suppose I said the man on the plane thinks his mass is 70kg. Would you agree with that?
 
user128101
10:47 AM
I can't agree on people's ungrounded opinions, John, can you? Can we conclude this example, i have to go to lunch , shortly
 
OK, see you later.
 
@JohnRennie ...you are a very optimistic man :P
 
@Secret are you still interested?
 
Let me just rearrange my thought process because I was destracted by a video...
 
user128101
I can conclude this example if you have any more considerations, do you agree that even if you consider more observer anywher on earth, in the air, moving in any direction reaching all sortsof conclusions, the Ke of the man in the plane is not affected and remains an objective fact?
 
10:51 AM
No, I disagree - that is completely wrong.
If you define the KE as the KE measured by an observer at rest on the Earth then I agree everyone will agree on that quantity, but you have omitted that condition from your statement.
 
user128101
We agreed it is understood. If you want to make an articulate example you think can disprove that, take your time, open a chat room and ping me in the afternoon or any time in the future, we are almost on same time zone. Thanks for your attention
 
You are welcome
 
@JohnRennie ok, using @Acuriousmind's answer, when we switch frames, the time derivative of energy changes, although we knew in all momentarily comoving frame energy is still conversed.

So if in all momentarily comoving frames, energy is still conversed (meaning that the time derivative of energy is zero), where does the energy difference came from before and after the change of the frames from e.g. one that is stationary with a moving object, to one which is stationary wrt the lab frame?
what supplied the extra energy to boost from one frame to another if it is only the frame that is changing (and in every infitesimal step of the process the time derivative of the energy vanishes)?
 
@Secret No, the time derivative of energy doesn't change. It's zero in any fixed inertial frame. Always. The change of energy you are "seeing" is not a consequence of time evolution but of you switching your reference frame.
 
@Secret Have a read through:
32
Q: How am I able to stand up and walk down the aisle of a flying passenger jet?

user2800708The energy of a moving object is $E = mv^2\;.$ That is it increases with velocity squared. I walk at say 3 miles per hour, or lets round that down to 1 meter per second for a slow walk. I weigh less than $100~\mathrm{kg}\;,$ but lets just round that up to $100~\mathrm{ kg}$ for convenience (it i...

I think it contains a lot of relevant stuff.
It doesn't directly address your question, but the arguments about relative accelerations and energy changes are relevant.
As for myself, I have a bottle of gin somewhere - a large one. I may be some time.
 
10:59 AM
I think ally is playing dumb :P
 
@JohnRennie It's the middle of the day!
 
When backed into a corner he refuses to accept fact.
 
@ACuriousMind yes, but I feel like I've just gone twelve rounds with Tyson Fury :-)
 
Tyson
 
@skillpatrol Ah yes Tyson Fury - a Brit!
 
11:03 AM
Indeed, fighting July 5
 
@JohnRennie So a large bottle of alcohol is what one should consume after physical exertion? oO
 
@ACuriousMind it's mental oblivion I am seeking :-)
 
I might take up sports, then...
 
It's a good cure for post traumatic stress disorder
 
> The change of energy you are "seeing" is not a consequence of time evolution but of you switching your reference frame.
how is the energy supplied so that switching frames will result in different energy "seen".
Since you say the time derivative of energy is always zero, is the picture sort of like there exists many reference frames for an object in motion, and in each reference frame a unique value of energy is assigned to this object. Thus switching reference frames is akin to moving through these stack of reference frames from A to B in parameter(?) space?

->Meanwhile still reading the answer, but I get the argument about energy supplied by muscles to both the plane and the person. What I am wondering ab
 
11:06 AM
@Secret There is no "energy supplied". Why do you think there needs to be "energy supplied"?
It's simply the case that energy is not a frame invariant.
 
>It's simply the case that energy is not a frame invariant
...
As I've spent the last two hours trying to explain :-)
 
Ding, round 2 :P
 
OK, I give up, what are the conditions for getting that vertical bar on the left?
 
@JohnRennie Writing > text, I think. If you write no space between the > and the rest, it doesn't appear.
> test
 
> Ah yes
That was easy, thanks :-)
 
11:16 AM
Clarification of my question to be posted in a few sec, John, you might be able to help translate it to Acusioudmind because I am not sure how to mke it more linear...
@JohnRennie
typo: Does it mean that as the observer changes from frame A to frame B
typo: Hence energy can change with changing frames but not due to nonzero time derivative, because each frame has a unique value of energy assigned to the object (which value measured wrt other frames) and we are jsut moving between these stack of frames
 
You really need to stop drawing so many pictures and learn how to actually say what you mean instead of other people guessing it.
 
OK I think I've recovered.
@Secret Let's take a simplified example. You start at rest and the ball with mass $m$ moves at velocity $+v$.
Now at time $t=0$ you start accelerating at a constant acceleration $+a$, and you continue this acceleration until you have matched velocities with the ball.
@Secret Is this a satisfactory scenario to address your question?
 
yes, and the question is then, what slows down the ball wrt me given I am not in contact with it (in fact, nothing is actually contacting or exerting a field)
 
I see we need to exorcise the ghost of "causation" again :P
 
OK initially the KE of the ball is $\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2$, and at the end the KE of the ball is zero, so that implies work was done on the ball. Yes?
 
11:24 AM
yes, based on work energy theorem
 
OK let's switch to your rest frame. In this frame you are stationary and you feel a constant acceleration of $a$. So far so good?
 
yup, until the point I match the ball's velocity, where I stopped accelerating
 
Good. Now the key point is that this is not an inertial frame, and in none inertial frames we generically expect there will be fictitious forces.
A fictitious force, also called a pseudo force, d'Alembert force or inertial force, is an apparent force that acts on all masses whose motion is described using a non-inertial frame of reference, such as a rotating reference frame. The force F does not arise from any physical interaction between two objects, but rather from the acceleration a of the non-inertial reference frame itself. As stated by Iro: Such an additional force due to nonuniform relative motion of two reference frames is called a pseudo-force. Assuming Newton's second law in the form F = ma, fictitious forces are always p...
In this case, we will find that if we use the frame coordinate $x$ then every object whose position we describe by $x$ and whose velocity is given by $dx/dt$ will experience a fictitious force.
That fictitious force will be F = -ma$, where $a$ is the acceleration I introduced above.
This is the key point, and you have to be happy with this because the rest is just algebra.
 
Have you seen the movie The Exorcist? @ACuriousMind :P
 
So basically in the accelerating frame, everything except me and anything that is "co-accelerating" with me is being exerted by a field of fictious force -ma, thus naturally the ball will be retarded by this fictious force field, because it is not "co-accerlerating" with me?
 
11:31 AM
@Secret Exactly. And if you work out how long the force acts for, i.e. how long it takes to bring the ball to rest, then work out the distance moved by the ball, then work out force times distance, you will find it comes to 1/2mv^2.
i.e. in this frame the work done by the fictitious force on the ball to bring it to rest is exactly the same as its original kinetic energy
Now ask me about string theory - I'm good at that :-)
 
I see, before today's discussion, I always thought fictitious force act locally (i.e. in the free body digram, I only have one arrow instead of a field of them), which is why it is not apparent to me initially
 
As long as the ball is not a 'savy' observer :D
 
@Secret and that is why if a student attempts to solve a problem using a fictious force you mark them zero out of ten and tell them to come back when they've done it properly.
Fictitious forces are the root of all evil
Even hardened old physicists like me can get confused if you attempt to work with fictitious forces
 
I thought you're a physical chemist?
 
he's a soapologist
 
11:37 AM
We physical chemists have an inferiority complex, so we claim to be physicists when we think we can get away with it.
 
@Slereah actually I never did any work on soap, or at least no serious work.
I worked on:
antiperspirants
shampoo
 
So...you infiltrated this SE and gave good answers to an incredible number of physics questions just to compensate an inferiority complex?
 
toothpaste
 
So what would you say is the best shampoo
 
11:39 AM
mayonaise (can't remember how to spell that)
tomato ketchup
and so on, but never soap
 
Yeah, but "toothpastologist" doesn't have a nice ring to it ;)
 
What about mayologist
 
@Slereah is that a serious question i.e. do you want the long answer?
 
Well I have no hair
So guess
 
@Slereah what?
I remember a photo of you eating a reindeer where you had hair
 
11:40 AM
That was a reindeer hat, @ACuriousMind
 
What's your favorite physical chemistry textbook @JohnRennie
 
The hair was not my own!
 
Oh :D
 
@JohnRennie
I also understood that fictious force arises due to the coordinate transformation between frames (i.e. it has a geometric origin).

Now since I prepared that diagram. Is the "more geometric way" to explain that is that since energy is frame dependent (i.e. not lorentz invarient as acuriousmind highlighted), thus we can imagine there is an abstract space which there's a field of reference frames, and in each frame the target object has its frame dependent quantity being assigned a value unique to the frame (but the numbers can look different depending on which other frame you are
 
Also I do have some hair but usually I keep it shaved
 
11:41 AM
@skillpatrol Both Moore and Atkins are good in their own ways
I still have my copy of Moore, though my Atkins has gone astray over the years
 
Do you remember IPAC chemistry nomenclature, or do you look it up when you need to
 
as a rough analogy, it is similar to how the world look different in red glasses compared to green glasses?
 
@Slereah in industry nobody uses the IUPAC names.
 
Do you just call it "water" instead of oxidane
 
For example you might use the chemical sles
 
11:43 AM
You filthy casuals
 
meaning sodium lauryl ether sulphate
and even the long form isn't a proper IUPAC name :-)
@Secret err, yes, I think so, though I'm not 100% confident I grasped what you mean.
KE is coordinate dependent (are you listening to me ally? :-) so the figure you get is dependent on what coordinates you choose.
The change in KE when you change coordinates has no physical significance
Now if you discovered you'd changed the norm of the energy-momentum four-vector that would be a different matter ;-)
 
Ok, let me simplify

Consider the linear accelerated frame scenario:
Suppose we measured everything not frame invarient wrt a frame called the lab frame (it's just any arbitrarily chosen frame to get a reference point)

Suppose we have an abstract space. Inside this space, there's a straight line.

On this straight line, each point is a sequences of frames with increasing v.

We start at the point which correspond to the frame where the ball has v=0.

When we change frames, we move up the stright line, until we reached the frame where $v=v0$
 
I have to go. See you (all but one of you) later.
 
user116211
 
@Secret You don't "move" in the "space of frames". Motion happens in spacetime any nowhere else. And the "space of frame" is either the Poincaré group (for inertial frames) or the diffeomorphism group (for arbitrary frames)
 
user116211
11:53 AM
Does a physics office room look like that o.O
 
"Change of frame" is not something that happens in reality. It's just something that happens in your theoretical description of the situation.
 
user116211
Okay, this is John Ellis' office at CERN ;/
 
@ACuriousMind I see, but is the idea of a "space of frames" a good way to interpret the theoretical/computational(?) process of changing frames?
 
Yes, applying an element of the Poincaré group to everything is the charge of one inertial frame to the other.
 
I see
 
11:57 AM
Note, however, that the Poincaré group is not a vector space, so you need to be careful with notions such as "lines" in it.
 
ok
 

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