« first day (5019 days earlier)      last day (17 days later) » 
00:00 - 22:0022:00 - 00:00

12:03 AM
It's counterproductive to forget about the grouping if you want to combat racism. For example, if suddenly you want to declare that we should not be calling the native americans as exactly that -- this has the effect of showing lip service solidarity with them while making it impossible for any kind of reparation to happen (eg, giving them back their lands)
It's important to remember who committed acts of atrocities towards whom, in the context of combatting racism. Race therefore cannot be forgone.
But even outside of that, I find the premise that race was developed just for racists to perpetrate racial crimes inane. Race is just a condensed term for the ethnic and historical background of a group of people --- that's a good thing! Why would you abandon that?
 
Okay I give in, I was being simplistic
 
And yes, you did not explicitly say any language was racist towards white people, but your scaremongering language (I paraphrase) "mention of race (and other intersectional identifiers or "groupings" as you call it) itself is racist! This is very dangerous!" in the context of a post made by someone who merely identified as a normative white man in the beginning of his post, is very problematic.
 
I appreciate the reflection
 
You had no ill will, but realize this is the kind of logic that is actively used by bad-faith actors.
 
@BalarkaSen I don't think that's dangerous, I had a second point that said something like, you thinking that you're not capable of being as inclusive as other people by being, lets say, normative white man as you said, is what the dangerous ideology was mainly referring to.
 
12:11 AM
There's a historical record of Caucasians not being inclusive yes? :-)
I get your point though
 
I don't think that was the implication! He is capable of being as inclusive and the post was made in an effort to realize that capability.
The point of the self-identification is not that there is some inherent factor preventing white people from being inclusive, but that white people are typically socialized in ways that makes them not as inclusive (all going back to the society and history again)
 
Is it possible for $f'(x)/(g(x)f(x))$ to be oscillatory if $f'(x)$ nor $g(x)$ nor $f(x)$ is oscillatory?
cool graph!
 
@Thorgott well I've imagined the situation like this. You're putting those things like, you're white, male, western, monolinguist. And in American media I see this sort of self-shaming for identifying as a white person, or however you want to call it. Of course, stereotypes go in, you can see Balarka's comment. That's how it sounded, after all, what else purpose does it serve to state those things
Monolinguist, western. Okay this makes sense with how you understood it
 
silly topology question: Is there anything that goes wrong if you define characteristic classes for a non-Lie topological group? I know we won't get Chern-Weil theory obviously, but as long as we can compute some cohomology groups, you should get some char classes? In particular for discrete groups this should be related to group cohomology and covering spaces
 
Simply, it serves the purpose of stating "I am aware of the huge amount of atrocities the people who look like me have committed throughout history, but we are trying to be better." I think it's less self-shaming and more a sign of historical maturity, a hopeful signal that the world is changing.
@LukasHeger I think $BG$ for a topological group $G$ has rational homotopy type of a product of some bunch of $K(\Bbb Q, n)$'s.
I forget the exact $n$'s. But you should be able to derive all characteristic classes from here.
 
12:24 AM
intersting thanks!
 
@BalarkaSen We can grant this the benefit of the doubt and assume this. But I still see it as self-shaming. No need to apologize for crimes you haven't commited
 
I never think of it as an apology (Because, as you said, why apologize for something you haven't done?), but an acknowledgement. A nod to history.
This was very hard to get out of people even in the 50's!
 
Well okay. What purpose would what you are saying serve in that specific post
 
I think it was a nice, considerate preamble. I wouldn't mind if they didn't put it.
I don't think of every Caucasian male as a racist lol
 
Its very suspicious. Why would someone be this mindful without stating it as such, on some random academia post
I find it more believable that it was a byproduct of some inner thoughts
 
12:29 AM
Such kinds of preambles certainly should not be enforced
I know that's another loud minority opinion which I find inane.
 
Moreover, the author was here, and didn't comment to even hint at an explanation of this type
 
this self-shaming aka "white guilt" is also one of those thing crypto-Nazis (and actual Nazis, for the record) really love to emphasize, but it's largely a boogeyman
 
This suggests that my explanation with self-shaming, if the author gone through my insane ramblings and actually understood them, might be more plausible
 
no significant amount of people is apologizing for crimes they haven't committed
there is simply an awareness of how history has shaped our society and ourselves
 
@BalarkaSen As a German I have to say that is something we're reasonably good at: accounting for the past, admitting that our history is really dark and our ancestors committed unfathomable attrocities. We learn a lot about Nazi Germany in school and this kind of "Erinnerungskultur"(remembrance culture) is quite important imo.
 
12:33 AM
well I did see it in media, maybe they picked those people
 
media has a tendency to depict extremes and be divisive
especially American media
cause it's all privately owned over there
 
But the fact that its, probably widespread, in media can be a factor
because we're talking about an individual here and not a statistic
 
Hah yeah the US 24 hour news cycles are probably the one thing decidedly ripping the country apart
 
@BalarkaSen couldn't there intersting say $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$-valued char classes, too?
 
@LukasHeger this is a good question honestly
Try looking in Sullivan's "Localization, Periodicity & Galois Symmetry", he might have something to say about the p-localized cohomology ring of BG
 
12:37 AM
@Jakobian well, I don't think he did anything but acknowledging your response, but I don't wanna speculate on his motivations, none of us should really
 
@Thorgott seems it's not a consequence that an ordinary cohomology vanishes
 
my point is that the introduction to his post does not necessitate some warped worldview
 
@BalarkaSen I'll look into it, thanks
 
if I don't accept the explanation I've given already then I don't have a good one
 
it could also just mean to indicate that his background and how he was socialized was comparatively non-inclusive and he's trying to change that
 
12:38 AM
I think I heard that paper mentioned before
 
@Thorgott No, but I do think that it is symptomatic of (1) a real misunderstanding of what "diversity" and "inclusion" mean, and (2) a fear of "stepping out of line" and being subjected to a struggle session.
 
@Lukas @Balarka wasn't there a huge industry of trying to make topological Pontryagin classes work
 
yeah lol
 
@Thorgott Honestly, a lot of that is garbage. Yes, the Aztecs had a somewhat more sophisticated numeration system than their European counterparts, but the Aztec approach to mathematics has had essentially zero influence on the Western practice of mathematics. What the Aztec were doing is interesting, but from an anthropological/historical point of view, rather than a mathematical point of view.
 
ended with someone becoming a very successful US senator
 
12:43 AM
@XanderHenderson it could be, I don't really have a particular opinion on the post as such, I just didn't like the way Jakobian was taking issue with it first and foremost
@XanderHenderson yeah
 
haven't we learned by experience already that I have bad way of handling issues, especially those political ones
 
@LukasHeger this is an interesting question btw, it's true when we take profinite instead of residually finite groups
 
if the hypotenuse of a triangle is a multiple of the square root of two, does it necessarily imply that the two legs of the triangle are equal?
 
@Thorgott I think something to understand about @Jakobian is that he comes from a place where there is very little diversity. Everyone around him is Polish. It makes it very hard to understand the struggles in places like the US, where there are groups who have been historically systematically oppressed.
 
i.e if $x^2+y^2 = 2k^2$ does it mean $x=y$? And what if $x,y,k \in \mathbb{N}$?
 
12:45 AM
@Thorgott the answer is no, because there are residually finite groups with the same profinite completion. But at least one can say that two res. finite groups have the same profinite completion iff their restricted Hom functors are isomorphic
 
ooh nice
 
It is also worth keeping in mind, @Jakobian, that "white" and "black" actually have very little to do with skin tone. Indeed, there was a well-researched book published a decade or two ago which made a pretty strong case that both the Irish and Italians were considered "colored" in the US for a period of time.
 
i think its an important question to understand if profinite completion of 3-manifold fundamental groups distinguish the 3-manifolds
when and when not
heard a talk by Alan Reid on this a while ago
 
@Balarka intersting. Does every residually finite group arise as the fundamental group of a 3-manifold? I know that (somehow through geometrization magic) the $\pi_1$ of 3-folds is always res. finite
 
No :) $\Bbb Z^2$ is not fundamental group of a closed $3$-manifold.
 
12:49 AM
oh I see
 
@LukasHeger ah, that's cool
@BalarkaSen end reasons?
@XanderHenderson to be fair, I would not assume my background is all too dissimilar
 
@Thorgott I have no idea about your background. I just know that I have discussed these issues before with Jakobian, and have found that his perspective is very much one of an outsider.
 
(1) Universal cover Z^2-sheeted cover so noncompact
(2) pi_2 = 0 otherwise by sphere theorem the manifold would be a connect sum and Z^2 is not free product of two groups in a nontrivial way
(3) so pi_1 = pi_2 = 0 of the universal cover and pi_3 = H_3 = 0 by noncompactness. ad infinitum, pi_n = 0 for all n.
(4) universal cover contractible so manifold is homotopy equivalent to K(Z^2, 1) = T^2.
(5) there is no such 3-manifold as H_3(T^2; Z/2) = 0
 
@Thorgott Yeah I heard the cause of our lack of diversity is the genocide caused by Adolf Hitler
 
@BalarkaSen nice
 
12:53 AM
pre-war there was lots of diversity in our country, including Jews, Romas, and so on.
 
Ah the glory days of Kakania
This reminds me I need to finish Man Without Qualities by Robert Musil
 
I don't quite get the sphere theorem step though
 
This is why they attacked us in the first place after all, Hitler was aiming at Jews and Poland had the most population of them from what I recall from history
 
@BalarkaSen ah nice, the middle part is similar to the argument that knot complements are Eilenberg-McLane
 
@Jakobian It is a factor, but Poland has never really had the kind of diversity that US has. It is mostly all a bunch of Slavs, as opposed to forced labor from Africa, poor itinerant workers from China, immigrants from Ireland and Italy, as well as all of the early European settlers and First Nations people.
 
12:55 AM
@LukasHeger It states that if $\pi_2(M) \neq 0$ for a 3-manifold $M$, then there must be an embedded sphere in $M$ representing a nontrivial element of $\pi_2(M)$.
Now if you cut along that sphere the manifold separates out into a connect sum
 
oh I see
 
(Unless it's $S^1 \times S^2$ or some weird Klein bottle variant, but there are the only exceptions)
 
So, while Hitler killing of a bunch of folk certainly didn't help the diversity on the continent, the state of low-diversity existed before he came along.
Honestly, I suspect that is part of what allowed him to be successful---he could scapegoat small minority populations, and win over a populist crowd.
 
But hey, I did see like 5 people with black color of skin in our country (in my entire life)
 
@Thorgott yeah.
 
12:57 AM
@Jakobian Polish Jews were obviously a target, but Hitler also committed genocide on the indigenous Poles if that's what you can call them
 
math.stackexchange.com/a/3271966/668308 @BalarkaSen during the proof of the knot complement is a K(G,1) space, why can I assume PL embedding for $S^2\hookrightarrow M$ not just a topological embedding?
 
their intent was to ethnically cleanse most of Eastern Europe under the name "Generalplan Ost"
 
I have a basic question.
 
Yeah Slavs in general were also targeted, definitely
 
Consider the sets of half open intervals in $\mathbb R$, that is $(a,b]$, $(a,\infty)$ and $\varnothing$, where $-\infty\leq a<b<\infty$. The collection $\mathcal A$ of finite disjoint unions of h-intervals forms an algebra. Now consider any sequence of disjoint h-intervals $(I_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ with $\bigcup_1^\infty I_n\in\mathcal A$. Then $\bigcup_1^\infty I_n$ is a finite disjoint union of h-intervals, call them $\Delta_1,\ldots,\Delta_n$.
Put $$A_i=\{j\in\mathbb{N}: I_j\subset \Delta_i\}, \ i=1,\dots,n.$$ Is it true that $$\bigcup_{j\in A_i} I_j=\Delta_i?$$ I have big problems with the $\supset$ inclusion...
 
1:01 AM
@onepotatotwopotato Hah, good question. This is part of the sphere theorem, comes out of the way it's proved.
 
Hmm... because the base manifold has a PL structure, the statement of the sphere theorem can be improved to a PL embedding you mean
 
Yes, during the proof you start with a triangulation of M
Then try to resolve the singularities of a self intersecting PL sphere in M
 
Ok, Alexander horned sphere does not count because $\Bbb R^3$ is simply connected
 
@BalarkaSen That makes it a "porism". :)
Like a corollary, but it follows from the proof, not the statement.
 
Oh, good to know
That's a good word for it.
 
1:06 AM
regarding the fact that fundamental groups are residually finite in dimension $\leq 3$, but not in dim $\geq 4$: I find it amusing that this implies together with a bunch of other stuff that in dimension $\leq 3$ a closed manifold is simply connected iff all bundles admitting a flat connection are trivial, but this equivalence is no longer true in dim $\geq 4$
 
Alas not many simply connected closed 3-manifolds!
 
true
the purely algebraic part of that statement is nontrivial. It's not clear that there's a finitely presented group with no nontrivial finite-dimensional representation over $\Bbb R$
 
@psie its not true
Imagine you are dissecting $I = (0, 1]$ into a bunch of smaller intervals $\Delta_i$
the issue is that $\Delta_i$ need to be assumed maximal in some sense
 
It's inspired from Folland's, but maybe there's something missing, hmm
 
Instead of taking arbitrary such half-intervals $\Delta_i$, take convex components or however you call them
 
1:12 AM
But one can show that finitely generated linear groups are residually finite, thus a f.g. group has trivial profinite completion iff all finite-dimensional representations over all fields are trivial
so that reduces the search to a f.p. group with trivial profinite completion
 
@Jakobian here, but it's a bit out of context, so you need to probably have the book at hand
 
@psie what are you trying to tell me
 
that is where I got it from
 
okay. I didn't need to know that, but thanks
1) This is still false as was stated. 2) To fix it you consider components whetever you want to think of it as topological or convex as in order theory
I.e. for a point $x\in A$ you consider the union of all intervals $I\subseteq A$ containing $x$
This now will have the property that every $I_i$ is contained in exactly one $\Delta_j$ (basically from definition)
 
1:40 AM
I've been bullied to oblivion today *sigh*
I'm not sure if I'm tired because I'm tired or I'm tired because I've been arguing at this ungodly hour
both
and now I'm talking to myself as if I'm some kind of teenager that can't trigger their inner monologue otherwise
 
2:12 AM
@Shaun Yes, I came up with that simultaneous Hexagon Mall shoppers problem.
 
 
2 hours later…
4:39 AM
Is it okay to vote to reopen a question of one's own given that it was closed?
 
4:51 AM
if the system allows it, there can be nothing generally wrong with it (it would even make perfect sense to allow that behavior, to let an OP draw attention to an improvement to a closed question). i would just apply to the decision the same criteria you would to any vote to reopen (i.e., have a reason for voting to reopen that relates to the usual reasons for voting to reopen, and not just because it's your question and the system allows it)
 
5:26 AM
sanity check: $f,g,f'$ are strictly decreasing analytic functions on the real line, can f'/fg exhibit oscillatory behavior? Osciallotrying behavior I will define as neither strictly increasing nor strictly decreasing, but rather non strictly increasing monotonically.
nvm
 
 
1 hour later…
6:56 AM
0
Q: Show $M$ is a compact surface diffeomorphic to $\Bbb T^2$

John ZimmermanTake $H = w_1^{\mathbb Z} \odot w_2^{\mathbb Z},$ where $w_1=(a,1)$ and $w_2=(1,b)$ for some $a,b>0; a,b\neq 1,$ and $(x_1,y_1)\odot(x_2,y_2)=(x_1 x_2, y_1 y_2)$ and $w^{\mathbb Z } = \{ w^n \mid n \in \mathbb{Z} \}.$ Consider the quotient space $ M=\Bbb R^2_{\gt 0}/H $. I want to show that $M$ i...

thoughts?
 
7:08 AM
I have some thoughts on this
quotienting R^2 by purely transcendentally valued ordered pairs which get sparser tending to infinity
I don't think this $M$ can be related to a torus actually... 🤔
Clearly $\{(a^m,b^n)\mid m,n\in\Bbb Z\}$ is isomorphic to $\Bbb Z^2$
via $(a^m,b^n)\leftrightarrow (m,n)$
however this easibility is destroyed via the quotient
I think this boils down to
 
given a and b satisfying your conditions, is H intended to be {(a^m, b^n): m, n in Z}? your question (and other questions like this) might get a wider audience if you presented the relevant definitions in shorter ways, instead of in terms of nested defined concepts that are not used more than once
or even fully defined at all (e.g. you purport to define "w^Z" for an element w of R^2 in terms of "w^n" for integers n, but you do not expressly say what "w^n" means, when w is in R^2 and n is an integer; similarly you purport to define cdot on R^2, but then write w_1^Z "cdot" w_2^Z where "w_1^Z" and "w_2^Z" themselves appear to be some kind of sets, and not elements of R^2)
 
Hmm
@leslietownes I guess I will change it to $\{(a^m,b^n)\mid m,n\in\Bbb Z\}$ I think it's more concise you're right
 
7:24 AM
it might also be kind to define what R^2_{>0} is, i mean, i can guess because you're always asking questions about this, but a random MSE reader stumbling across the post shouldn't have to guess
my last bit of feedback would be to say more about what you mean by the quotient of R^2_{>0} by H
and by "more" i don't mean "everything you can think of that might be relevant to the problem," just, "enough so that someone knows what this object is"
 
true!!
ok
 
(e.g. if it's some standard textbook quotient construction or something with a wikipedia link, just say that, and don't unravel every definition that might go into that)
and the PSQ police would probably add: having indicated how the quotient is defined, it might help to give the reader some indication of why you might expect the quotient to be whatever you think it is
 
edited
thanks so much
0
Q: Show $M$ is a compact surface diffeomorphic to $\Bbb T^2$

John ZimmermanConsider the lattice $$H:=\{(e^m,e^n)\mid m,n\in\Bbb Z\}$$ which is isomorphic to $\Bbb Z^2$ via $(e^m,e^n)\leftrightarrow (m,n).$ Consider the quotient space $ M=\Bbb R^2_{\gt 0}/H $. I want to show that $M$ is a compact surface diffeomorphic to $\Bbb T^2$. Here $\Bbb R^2_{\gt 0}:=\big\lbrace (x...

I think it's a lot better :)
possibly related: isomorphic vector spaces admit isomorphic complexifications.
maybe isomorphic lattices admit something similar
 
7:56 AM
@LuckyChouhan That could be called doxxing. Please don't do that!
7
 
Is the notion of Fourier transformation extendable to dual number-valued functions?
Wait, let me get rid of the XY problem.
What are the primitive roots of unity in the finite field $\mathbb{Z}_2$?
$x^2 + 1 = (x+1)^2$ is reducible in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$, so
 
dannyu: are you sure that's what you want? there's only one root of unity in Z_2, whether primitive or not, it's 1. (there are only two things in Z_2 whatsoever, 0 and 1)
 
I mean... the second primitive root of unity in $\mathbb{Q}$ is $-1$, but the third primitive root of unity in $\mathbb{Q}$ is not in $\mathbb{Q}$. But in $\mathbb{Z}_2$, $-1 = 1$. Do I need some kind of split-complex numbers?
Nevermind; I guess what I wanted to define is impractical compared to NTT.
 
8:35 AM
What is NTT?
Number theory something?
 
anyone know complex analysis?
 
@SoumikMukherjee Number-Theoretic Transform
 
Basically DFT under a finite field.
 
@DannyuNDos as your comments seem to illustrate, the expression "primitive nth root of unity in F" may or may not make sense, depending on what the field F is and what n is. a better way of phrasing your observation is that Q does not contain any primitive third roots of unity. not that "the primitive third root of unity in Q" is "not in Q."
it might be helpful to note that Z_2 is not the only finite field of characteristic 2, and that there are larger finite fields of characteristic 2 that do contain roots of unity other than 1. i.e. if you are willing to work with general finite fields, you are not stuck with just Z_2, even if you want characteristic 2
[this is just an attempt to help you organize your terminology more according to the way you might find it used in references, i realize that you have not even stated the Y in your XY problem]
 
8:54 AM
@JohnZimmerman I think Xander or Leslie might be the closest we have to a complex analysis expert. But probably Xander more
 
@Jakobian okay thanks :)
 
@leslietownes can confirm/deny the accusation
 
i have forgotten most of what i know. i'm now the kind of person who feels at home in the open unit disc, and yet alarmed and despondent and out of my depth in the upper half plane.
 
Oh. Robjohn might know quite a bit about complex analysis
I have no idea who might be good at complex analysis and what subject of it to be perfectly honest
 
@JohnZimmerman I don't like these kind of meta questions. If one answers "yes", there's an immediate expectation that one is able to answer the actual question. If you have a complex analysis question, just ask it and if someone is able and willing to answer it, they shall do so
 
9:02 AM
I've basically been able to grind out a holomorphic (entire) function $K(s)$ that is on the order of $e^{-z}$ however knowing that the inverse mellin transform of $\Gamma(s)$ by examining residues yields $e^{-z}$, I think I must expect that $K(s)$ has many poles like gamma - right?
Wait
i mixed that up
Tryna show that this dude is holomorphic and understand *why* on earth that could be:

$$K(s)=\int_{1/2}^1 \zeta\bigg(-\frac{1}{\log x}\bigg)~x^{-s}~dx $$
 
@JohnZimmerman strictly speaking, $\Gamma(s)$ as a Mellin transform of $e^{-z}$ is only something that is defined for positive real part, as else the integral in the Mellin transform doesn't converge
 
@LukasHeger yes I know
 
ofc you can argue through analytic continuation to extend it to a larger domain
 
The integral converges for $-\infty <\Re(s)<\infty$ it seems 🤔
 
isn't the only question why the integral converges? if it does, holomorphic is automatic as $x^{-s}$ is holomorphic in $s$
 
9:11 AM
implying that $K(s)$ is entire I feel like there is something I'm missing or some contradiction
oh i see @LukasHeger This means you could take the inverse mellin transform on $K(s)$ and use it to extend the domain of $\zeta(-1/\log x)$
via analytic continuation
It is known to me that $\zeta(-1/\log x)$ is a composition s.t. it admits a meromorphic extension to all of $\Bbb C$ aside from a pole at $1/e$ and a branch cut due to the logarithm
I wonder if the former extension would coincide with the latter extension.
 
@JohnZimmerman yes! due to the identity theorem
 
@LukasHeger ah yes this makes so much more sense now
 
Bml
9:43 AM
Hi everyone. How to calculate the fourth roots of a complex number like $z = e^{-i \frac{\pi}{3}}$?
 
@Bml think geometrically. Put it in polar form first, your example already is in polar form. Note that taking the fourth power corresponds in polar form to taking the fourth power of the radius and multiplying the argument by 4. This should give you an idea for how to solve such questions
 
Bml
@LukasHeger z^4 = 1^4 e^{-4 i \frac{\pi}{3}}?
 
10:01 AM
@Bml no, you want $w^4=e^{-i\pi/3}$
so write $w=re^{i\theta}$, then solve $w^4=e^{-i\pi/3}$ for $r$ and $\theta$
 
Bml
10:19 AM
@LukasHeger OK, so $w = 1 e^{-i \frac{\pi}{3 \cdot 4} + \frac{2 k \pi}{4}}$, right?
 
@Bml correct
 
Bml
With k = 0, 1, 2, 3, right?
 
right
 
10:42 AM
You can just go for e^{-i\pi/12} and multiply by 4th roots of 1, namely i, -i, -1, 1
 
Bml
Thank you all!
I have another question, however... How do you solve $x \ln^2(x) -2 \geq 0$?
 
10:59 AM
Topology question
consider a topological surface $M$ homeomorphic to $S^1$
Nevermind no
 
11:35 AM
How do you construct a compact complex manifold with quartic ramification loci?
by quartic ramification loci I mean that $L_1,L_2,L_3$ are complex algebraic varieties of degree four and their union yields the ramification locus
of proposed complex manifold
 
11:55 AM
nvm
that is probably the dumbest question ive asked
 
 
3 hours later…
2:46 PM
I am just learning (somewhat) about affine spaces (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Affine_space#Definition) and am struck by the following question: what role does the "set of points" actually play? It seems like what matters from the perspective of "size" is the "direction space" (vector space)
For example, in this case of the zero vector space, I can have the biggest set of points $E$ imaginable but as long as $V = \{0\}$ there is no size to the corresponding affine space?
 
what do you mean by set of points
 
Sorry, that's what my book and Wikipedia above call it. It's the $A$ in the $A \times \arrow{A}$ definition of the space
oops i don't know the latex for arrow over a letter
anyway, this is just an aside so if i'm being unclear no worries
i suspect affine spaces won't be too important, but could be wrong
 
@EE18 Do you understand the underlying idea or intuition behind an affine space?
 
I do, especially as it relates to the canonical one (our "real world")
 
I.e. the key example is a vector subspaces of $\mathbb{R}^n$, translated away from the origin.
 
3:02 PM
I see my earlier claim regarding the zero vector space was nonsense now
We would have the fact that for $Q,P \in E$, there is a $v \in V$ such that $Q = P + v$ but, since $v = 0$, this means $Q = P + 0 = P$
But I suppose for $\dim V > 0$, then there is no limit on the set of points $E$
 
isn't $E$ supposed to be the ambient space
 
Again, you seem to be working very abstractly. Do you understand the simple examples, i.e. affine spaces seen as subsets of $\mathbb{R}^n$?
 
I think I am being confusing so I will just get back to reading rather than asking highly imperfect questions and wasting both of your times
Sort of, Xander, But this is how my book introduced it. Anyway, I won't belabor this right now, sorry again about the confusion.
 
Okay, but any time you are hit with a new definition, you're very first action should be to cook up a simple example.
3
You have a definition of an affine space, which is cool and all. Now try to come up with some very concrete examples.
 
That's well taken, thanks Xander
 
3:09 PM
The more general learning principle is to try to make connections between what you know and what is new :^)
 
3:30 PM
In Folland's book, there is a simplification made that I do not understand. After showing $\mu_0$ is well-defined, we want to show $\mu_0$ is a premeasure on $\mathcal A$ (the algebra of all finite disjoint union of half-open intervals or 'h-intervals'). In particular, we want to show countable additivity. Folland considers a sequence of disjoint h-intervals $(I_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ with $I=\bigcup_1^\infty I_n\in\mathcal A$.
Then it is claimed that since $I$ is a finite union of h-intervals, the sequence can be partitioned into finitely many subsequences such that the union of the intervals in each subsequence is a single h-interval. By using finite additivity of $\mu_0$, we may simply assume $I$ is an h-interval of the form $(a,b]$. Is there any loss of generality by not assuming $I$ to be of the form $(a,\infty)$? After all, this is also an h-interval.
 
OK I am back lol...
So in the very next sentence after I got back to reading I am told (as is clear) that I can consider any vector space as an affine space in particular
Is that the concrete example you were alluding to @XanderHenderson?
 
@EE18 Sure, any vector space is an affine space, but that example might be too narrow.
Instead, consider, perhaps, a line in the plane.
(Specifically, a line which does not pass through the origin.)
 
Oh ya, I see what you mean. Take the vector (direction) space as a one-dimensional subspace of $V$ and then fix $E$ as some singleton from $V$ in order to get your case
I did have a question about considering $V$ itself as an affine space. The book says "We choose, of course, the zero vector to be the origin." I want to be sure since sometimes language like "we choose" can mean "we must choose" or "we can choose". This is a case of the latter right? i.e. choosing the zero vector as the origin is the obvious choice, but not the only one?
 
3:46 PM
@EE18 I mean, maybe? But, again, that seems too abstract...
For example, in $\mathbb{R}^2$, take $A$ to be the set $\{ (x,y) : y = 2x + 1\}$. Then you can take $\vec{A}$ to be the vector subspaces of $\mathbb{R}^2$ generated by $\langle 1, 2\rangle$.
@EE18 You can choose the zero vector to be the origin, which is how that particular example is chosen. But consider the real number line, translated to the left by one unit. This is an affine space which isn't quite the original vector space.
 
Fair, thanks Xander
My book finishes the section with the following (which was why I came back here for follow up):
The interpretation of finite dimensional vector spaces as affine spaces has also an extremely important computational aspect. The introduction of coordinate systems leads to concrete descriptions of geometric objects in terms of equations and inequalities for the coordinates. A coordinate system is determined by the choice of an origin and basis, and it is essential to make these choices so that the calculations are as simple as possible. The right choice of the coordinate system can be decisive for a successful solution of a given problem.
I don't at all see why interpreting finite-dim vec spaces as affine spaces matters at all here. The canonical isomorphism between a finite-dim space and $K^m$ has nothing to do with affine spaces?
 
@EE18 I don't have the physics background to really have the intuition for this, but the basic idea is that there is no "real" origin, so you can choose the origin to be whatever you like.
Suppose that you are trying to model the motions of two bodies (say, two boats on an ocean). You could choose some origin independent of the two ships, but you might choose the origin to actually be one of the ships, because then you only have to track the relative motion of the other ship. Or vice versa.
 
@psie not sure I follow your suggestion, there are intervals that do not look like $(a,\infty)$
 
Are they saying (or, rather, is it possible that they are saying) that sometimes it is fruitful to interpret the vector space as an affine space, use that the choice of an origin induces an isomorphism between the affine space and the vector space, and then use the canonical isomorphism between that vec space and $K^m$?
 
imvho that comment also seems overblown, unless by "computational aspect" they just mean "the handwritten formulas look nicer"
 
3:55 PM
@leslietownes That, too.
 
@EE18 what is $E$
 
@Thorgott The fifth letter of the English alphabet!
 
i don't think there's a "real world" problem where a team full of people in front of NASA computers is high fiving like, oh, thank god we found the right origin
 
Oops, sorry Thorgott. I realize now I forgot to include this at the beginning of the discussion:
 
@Thorgott yes, but there are h-intervals that do not look like $(a,b]$ too, or?
 
3:56 PM
$E$ is the "set of points", part of the structure that defines the affine space
 
@leslietownes No, but I don't think that the author is quite claiming that, either.
 
note that "the right choice of the coordinate system can be decisive for a successful solution of a given problem" sounds like something in the spirit of, say, a schaums outline in college physics
and not a statement about any kind of non hand calculational difficulty
 
@leslietownes OOF, a brutal takedown ;)
 
i'm not trying to be brutal! i'm trying to put it in context
 
No that's fair
 
3:59 PM
changing the choice of origin is not going to affect whether or not you can successfully solve a problem, unless a "successful" solution is just one that looks nicer and maybe took less paper to find by hand
choice of origin is important, but it's just a choice of origin
 
@Thorgott what I'm trying to say is that Folland assumes $I$ to be an h-interval. He writes $I=(a,b]$, but h-intervals can also be of the form $(a,\infty)$.
 
to be brutal, you might google the background of the author and see if they've ever worked on applied problems in their own "real life," or if they're the kind of author who repeats the stuff that they've read in their textbooks about "here is where you say that this is sometimes really important for applications"
 
That's fair. I guess what I'm hoping to clarify is that in the paragraph I copy-pasted above, there seem to be two things at play: the vector space, and the vector space as an affine space. Am I right to say that given a vector space, you would never go back and consider it an affine space. But, instead, you would take an affine space, fix an origin and so be able to reegard it via isomorphism as a vector space, and then take coordinates etc.
 
@psie read till the end, he addresses this
 
@leslietownes This is the chap: scholar.google.com/… I don't know if these sorts of problems are considered applied but what I am sure of is that they're way above my pay grade!
 
4:02 PM
@EE18 oh, that's how they define it
@EE18 so this does not make sense
 
EE18 looks like a pure mathematician to me (PDE/ODE people are not uncommonly accustomed to getting a pass, where everyone in their department thinks they are "applied" because, hey, who knows) :)
 
@Thorgott Why not? $E = \{a\}$ for some $a$ in $V$, and $E = W$ for some 1D subspace $W$ of $V$?
 
remember kids, rationalize the denominator because it can be decisive for the solution of your problem
 
@Thorgott well, he addresses the case when $b$ is infinite in $(a,b]$. Is this the same as addressing $(a,\infty)$?
 
Leslie on a ROLL this morning
 
4:07 PM
@psie that's the same interval, yes
@EE18 now you're saying $E$ is two different things?
 
OMG sorry that was me typing too fast. The second $E$ should be $V$ (the vector space in the affine space definition, not the underlying $V$ for this specific example)
 
yeah, this still doesn't work
note if $E$ is an affine space over $V$, then $v\mapsto P+v$ defines a bijection $V\rightarrow E$ for any $P\in E$
 
Yup, the authors mention as much (this is "taking an origin")
But I don't see why my example fails?
Or how my examples is related to this comment (there is no mention of an origin in my example, merely a construction of a particular--or so i thought--affine space)
 
your $E$ has a single element and your $V$ is a 1-dimensional vector space
there is no bijection between those things
so $E$ cannot be an affine space over $V$
 
Hmm, let me think on this but at first glance I see I've erred somewhere
Ah OK, my error was that what I really mean was $E =\{a + w \mid w \in W \}$
That's where you and Xander were leading me
 
4:15 PM
that works
to be honest, I'm not a big fan of this definition, but it is what it is
 
Wikipedia gives some more abstract definition in terms of a free and transitive group action which maybe you prefer?
If possible can someone confirm if this (chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/65587999#65587999) suspicion was correct?
 
nah, that's the same thing
 
Oh, true (at least to the experts like you!)
 
what they're considering is what's called a torsor of the underlying abelian group of a vector space
I don't really find this notion geometrically useful
but don't mind my preferences
 
Bml
4:41 PM
Hi everyone. I would like to know if two bases of different sizes could be added together (in linear algebra). If you have a 5×1 matrix (5 rows and 1 column) of the type A = (-1, 2, -t, 0, -(t+1)), and a 4×1 matrix (4 rows and 1 column) of the type B = (-t, 1, 0, 0), can A and B be summed if, for example, t= -1?
 
4:53 PM
@Bml no
 
Bml
@SoumikMukherjee Why?
 
That's how matrix addition works, you can add an m×n matrix to a p×r matrix iff m=p and n=r
 
5:14 PM
you can certainly 'make it happen,' but in more than one way, and only at the cost of making choices of how to get those things in a form where you can add them together. the data itself won't just make that choice for you
in situations where you want to do this, the reason that you want to do this is usually some signal about how to approach
 
5:32 PM
lolol referring to Amann’s words as something sounding like “Schaums outline in college physics”
 
@peek-a-boo Leslie was "in their bag" this morning (Leslie not sure if that reference hits or not)
Have you read Amann Escher peekaboo?
maybe ive asked you before tbh i can't remember
 
@EE18 we do this all the time in math though. Sometimes, we have extra structure at our disposal, and we frequently disregard extra structure if it’s not “relevant”, or sometimes
yea I know about their books
and I read vol III in a fair amount of detail… but not the first two, because I had already learnt that material elsewhere
 
Ah gotcha gotcha
@peek-a-boo As for this, I'm not sure I follow so I'll try to clarify what I mean in the hope it helps (me). I see them as referring to two (related but distinct) things in this paragraph. (1) they say consider a vector space $V$ as an affine space (not sure why we'd do this given the former is "simpler" than the latter, in the sense I'll describe in (2)) and then what? (2) given an affine space, use a choice of origin to thereby identify $E$ with $V$, and now you can use isomorphism to $K^m$.
 
also to leslie’s point above about NASA not celebrating at finding the right origin… ok sure if taken literally, but if we put on our narcissistic hats on and pretend the Earth and the Sun are the only things in the solar system (i.e a 2-body problem), then working in a coordinate system where the center of mass is at the origin is absolutely a win (granted here, the origin ‘moves’ relative to a ‘fixed’ frame but still…)
 
I understand (2) but not what they mean with (1)
That is, I don't understand why you would do (1). I understand that you can do it, but not why you would do it
 
5:43 PM
you might want to forget the origin because perhaps the origin you chose was ‘wrong’, or perhaps it was an extraneous choice. For example in physics, we really only care about time differences, but yet we call this the year 2024. Obviously in the grand scheme of things, this is not really ‘significant’
Similarly, sometimes if we have an inner product space, we might want to forget the inner product and just focus on the vector space aspect. Similarly, on $\Bbb{R}^n$, which has the structure of a smooth manifold, we might want to ignore the smooth structure, and just focus on the topology.
 
because you can apply theorems or operations that are defined for affine spaces, but not necessarily just vector spaces. Let me give an example. Consider the vector space $\Bbb R^3$ and let $V$ be the xy-plane inside $\Bbb R^2$. Now consider a plane $P$ inside $\Bbb R^3$ that does not include the origin.
We would like to say that $P \cap V$ is again an affine space. It's easy to prove that an intersection of two affine subspaces of an affine space is again an affine space. To apply this here, though you need to treat $\Bbb R^3$ and $V$ as affine spaces. But you might say, they are not affin
 
etc. forgetting extra structure is a very common thing to do in math
 
this is a really trivial example, there are more sophisticated things you can do with affine spaces. Their join operation is a bit more subtle than just sum of vector spaces iirc
 
That's well taken Lukas. I guess what was confusing was that in their paragraph (I'll include it again below) they seem to be alluding to the use of considering $V$ an affine space as arising from the ability to take coordinates, whereas this has nothing to do with $V$ being an affine space
"The interpretation of finite dimensional vector spaces as affine spaces has also an extremely important computational aspect. The introduction of coordinate systems leads to concrete descriptions of geometric objects in terms of equations and inequalities for the coordinates.
A coordinate system is determined by the choice of an origin and basis, and it is essential to make these choices so that the calculations are as simple as possible. The right choice of the coordinate system can be decisive for a successful solution of a given problem."
 
oh yes, the thing I was implicitly getting at (and which thankfully Lukas explicitly said) is that by forgetting extra structure, you can apply all the theorems available to the previous structure
 
5:48 PM
this is getting into physicsy terminology right now, but I guess you might say that an affine space is something that can take linear coordinates (whatever that means). Technically introducing an isomorphism with a vector space is not the same as choosing (linear) coordinates, choosing linear coordinates would be choosing an isomorphism with a vector space with a fixed basis
so the bottom line is that I agree that that quote is confusing
 
@LukasHeger That's what I guess I'm saying/confused about with what Amann Escher are saying. Choosing coordinates is just choosing a basis (i.e. the particular isomorphism with $K^m$), and we can only do it in the case that the affine space is itself a vector space AFAIK (or, if not, if we've chosen an origin to the affine space and so defined an isomorphism from $E$ to $V$)
oh ok, thank you!
good to know my confusion is somewhat warranted
 
dictionary:
affine space <-> something that can take linear coordinates
vector space <-> something that can take linear coordinates and has a chosen origin
vector space + basis <-> actual concrete linear coordinates
 
@peek-a-boo This is a good point which I will keep in mind going forward. Definitely a lot of AE proofs of larger structures do this trick of considering only substructure and then using theorems already developed therefor (thinking vector space proof using that vec addition makes $V$ an abelian group for e.g.)
@LukasHeger Possible to say more about what you mean by "can take linear coordinates"? Does that just mean that by the procedure I outlined above (first choose origin, then a basis of the vec space which we obtain), it is possible to induce an isomorphism to $K^m$?
 
@EE18 basically yes. I thought that people more trained in physics than I am would have a more intuitive understanding of "linear coordinates" as well
 
there is a notion of affine basis
 
5:53 PM
I am not sure I am more trained in physics than you ;)
But thank you very much for all the help Lukas and peekaboo!
 
Bml
@leslietownes Are you referring to me?
 
@Bml yes
 
@EE18 one thing I wanted to add is that if you noticed it or not, you probably have practiced forgetting structure before: like when you treat a vector space as a set or a linear transformation as a mapping (something which can be injective or surjective for example)
 
Bml
@leslietownes But the discussion below refers to something else entirely, right?
 
@LukasHeger Yup, that's well taken too. Even though it somewhat triggers the set theory demons, I do do this :)
 
5:58 PM
 
I'm going to be sick^
 
forgetful functor is not precisely defined. If you want demons, go here: ncatlab.org/nlab/show/amnestic+functor
Certainly the fact that any monadic functor that is also an amnestic isofibration is necessarily strictly monadic is helpful for this discussion
 
ncatlab is the best place to resolve basic doubts :)
 
@Bml as far as i can tell, yes
@LukasHeger FINALLY. THIS. I FEEL SO SEEN
[i just love how categorical that language is, and thought it would be funny to react to it as though it were a powerful statement about the human condition]
and how is it that i'm learning only today about amnestic functors
 
I was about to make a (bad) joke
 
6:10 PM
oh god that's awful
 
About how long until we start learning about quantum category theory
BUT
 
you know you're in the bad part of the nlab when they start making nonsensical definitions in order to avoid AoC
 
turns out that's a thing
 
the bad part of the nlab is the good part of the nlab
 
@leslietownes maybe you learned about them before, but you're amnestic about it
 
6:21 PM
maybe i am an amnestic functor
 
@EE18 at this point, I wouldn't be surprised if condensed condensed matter theory becomes a thing
 
lol good point
 
 
2 hours later…
9:03 PM
I have a basic doubt. Consider the Lebesgue-Stieltjes measure and a distribution $F$. $F$ is simply increasing and right-continuous (in Folland's, $F$ apparently need not be bounded). We first consider some premeasure $\mu_0$ on an algebra of all finite disjoint unions of h-intervals. This includes of course the set $\mathbb R$. Does then $\mu_0(\mathbb R)=F(\infty)-F(-\infty)$ always make sense despite that $F$ is not bounded?
Increasing means nondecreasing. My thought process went like this; if $F$ is constant $\infty$, then we'd get $F(\infty)-F(-\infty)=\infty-\infty$, which doesn't look good. On the other hand, $F$ is constant, so $\mu_0(A)$ should be $0$ for any set $A$.
Maybe I'm forgetting that $F(\infty)$ is actually a limit...
...though, if $F$ would be constant $\infty$, we'd still get $F(\infty)=\infty$ and $F(-\infty)=\infty$. Hmm.
 
9:29 PM
$F$ is induced by a function $\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$
it cannot be constant $\infty$
 
ok, yeah, I was going off the rails there. Sorry, but thanks :)
 
00:00 - 22:0022:00 - 00:00

« first day (5019 days earlier)      last day (17 days later) »