To give you some broader context, I'm trying to find a norm on $\Bbb R^2$ such that the only isometries are the identity and its opposite. To do this I showed that given any convex compact containing a neighbourhood of 0 and that has a central symmetry through the origin is the unit ball of a norm
And I want to argue that therefore if we find such a compact that has no other symmetry than the one stated above, then the norm induced by it satisfies the property
So I just have to draw such a compact to find the norm
@FrankScience My experience so far has been that courses serve to bait me into something interesting, and then it is up to me to really learn to content. With very few exceptions, I never learned anything substantial from courses.
So, one advantage to being a University of Minnesota student: One of the things that the University has is the IMA (Institute for Mathematics and its Applications)
which among other things hosts quite a few workshops/conferences during the year.
@MathematicsStudent1122 "Hey there, it seems we have a lot in common. What say we have a one-to-one correspondence, to see if the isomorphism is natural?"
To see why it works, remember what it means to have a root of multiplicity n: $f(z)$ has a root of multiplicity $n$ at $z=z_0$ if $f(z)=(z-z_0)^n \tilde{f}(z)$ where $\tilde{f}(z)$ is analytic and nonzero at $z=z_0$.
So if $f(z)$ and $g(z)$ both have a zero of multiplicity $n$ at $z=z_0$, then you can write $f(z)/g(z)=\tilde{f}(z)/\tilde{g}(z)$ which is analytic and finite at $z=z_0$.
@Semiclassical I may be misremembering something I've read, but I thought a root of multiplicity $n$ at $z_0$ meant that the function and its first $n-1$ derivatives are zero at $z_0$, but the $n$th derivative is non-zero. I know these are equivalent for polynomials, but are they equivalent otherwise? They don't seem like they would be, and my characterization might not be true for non-polynomials, hence "I may be misremembering".
For a second, I thought that trig functions might be a problem, but they aren't--all of $\sin z$'s roots are multiplicity 1, as $\cos z \neq 0$ whenever $\sin z = 0$. It doesn't skip a derivative. Oh well.
The easiest scenario is when you can organize the function as $f(z)=g(z)/(z-z_0)$ where $g(z)$ is analytic and nonzero at $z=z_0$. In that case the residue is just $g(z_0)$.