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5:00 PM
What is $X$?
 
It does not say anything about $X$ but I am assuming a topological space
 
I did not know this fact, but I'll believe you that it's true. What about the usual straightline homotopy in $\Bbb R^{n+1}$ and projecting to $S^n$?
 
But then what about that property?
 
The property is to ensure the homotopy is well defined - something nonvanishing denominator. You know, the standard trick. I am not sure if it works.
 
I do not know where to start because I fail to see the relation between points not being each others opposites on the sphere and being homotopic
 
5:05 PM
$F : X \times I \to S^n$, $F(x, t) = (tf(x) + (1-t)g(x))/|tf(x) + (1-t)g(x)|$? Does it really work?
At $t = 1/2$, well defined because $f(x) + g(x) \neq 0$.
Yeah, I think that works. OK.
 
Hmm thats understandable
Its part of an exercise that proves the hairy ball theorem
So I'll get on with that
 
@Krijn Because, geometrically, you're straightline homotoping in $\Bbb R^{n+1}$ and then projecting to $S^n$ by rays through the origin. If the straightlines pass through the origin, you cannot do that in a well-defined way.
 
@BalarkaSen Nice interpretation, thanks!
 
No problem.
@Krijn This is something more than the hairy ball, but ok. The deal is that degree is an invariant for maps $S^n \to S^n$.
The standard proof tries to break that, assuming a tangent vector field on $S^2$.
By the way, @Krijn, are you aware of the converse of the statement "if two maps of $S^n$ are homotopic, then they have equal degree"?
 
5:25 PM
@BalarkaSen can you do the Borsuk Ulam theorem without knowing the covering spaces and fundmental group of a circle ?
in munkres
 
Does it stand that $e^{x}-1 \mid e^{kx}-1$ if and only if $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ ?
 
You could prove it without ever using algebraic topology, if you wanted.
 
well, I read the the section of homotopy and fundmental group and just a little bit about covering spaces.
but as I was reading the proof yesterday about the question I asked yesterday I think I am missing some background for covering spaces.
and fundmental group of a circle.
I still didn't figure out why qh induces a continous map from $S^1$ to $S^1$
@MikeMiller
 
What is the universal property of a quotient map $f: X \to Y$?
 
@DanielFischer Could I also ask you something else?

Let $A$ be a $n \times n$ matrix ($A \in \mathbb{R}^{n \times n}$). Then for each $x \in \mathbb{R}^n$ the vector $Ax$ is defined and so we can see the matrix $A$ as a function $A: \mathbb{R}^n \to \mathbb{R}^n$ and this function is linear.


I want to show that if $x_m \overset{||\cdot||_2}{\to} x$ then $A x_m \overset{||\cdot||_2}{\to} Ax$.

There is a hint that we could use the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality.

But how can we use that $|\langle x,y \rangle| \leq ||x|| ||y||, \forall x,y \in X$ ?
 
5:38 PM
It's that if $g: X \to Z$ is constant on every level set $f^{-1}(y)$, then $g$ descends to a map $g': Y \to Z$. (That is, there exists a $g'$ with $g'f = g$.) Now apply this to $f = q$, and $g = qh$.
 
oh I see
I didn't know of this universal property
 
It is the point, and the only point, of quotient maps and quotient spaces.
 
@evinda Look at the components of $A(x - x_m)$. Every such component, you can view as the inner product between a row of $A$ and the vector $x-x_m$.
 
I see
 
@DanielFischer So you mean that it is like that?

$$||Ax_m- Ax||_2=||A(x_m-x)|_2| \leq ||A|| ||x_m-x||_2 \to 0 \text{ since } x_m \overset{||\cdot||_2}{\to} x$$
 
5:47 PM
Does it stand that $e^{x}-1 \mid e^{kx}-1$ if and only if $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ ? @robjohn
 
@evinda That's when you use the operator norm. But to do that, you need to know that $\lVert A\rVert < +\infty$. If you already know that, that's more natural than using Cauchy-Schwarz. But if you don't know that, you can use Cauchy-Schwarz to obtain the result (and a bound for $\lVert A\rVert$).
 
It is not given that $\lVert A\rVert < +\infty$. You mean that we use the components of x_m and x to obtain the result? @DanielFischer
 
@evinda No, we use the rows of $A$ (and the vector(s) $x-x_m$) to obtain the result.
 
@DanielFischer How do we use them?
 
13 mins ago, by Daniel Fischer
@evinda Look at the components of $A(x - x_m)$. Every such component, you can view as the inner product between a row of $A$ and the vector $x-x_m$.
 
5:58 PM
hello everyone
 
So do we use indeces, $A_1 \cdot (x - x_m)_1, A_2 \cdot (x - x_m)_2 $ and so on... ? @DominicMichaelis
Hello @DominicMichaelis
How are you? @DominicMichaelis
 
I am fine but a bit confused
Someone told me without axiom of choice, one isn't able to prove that counatable spaces are lindelöf. But she uses that a set is countable if a bijection into $\mathbb{N}$ exists
 
I'm not sure what else countable means.
 
And I thought about proving it in the following way: at first I show that $\mathbb{N}$ is countable which I can do via the well ordering of $\mathbb{N}$ so at first I pick some set that covers $1$ and afterwards one which covers $2$ and so on
because of the definition of $\mathbb{N}$ in this way I get a countable subcover
Now it is clear that continuous images of lindelöf spaces are lindelöf and that every function from the natural numbers is continuous
 
Sorry, was away
 
6:05 PM
As I have a bijection I am done
 
@L33ter Yes, using homology theory.
 
@MikeMiller countable means for me that there is an injection into $\mathbb{N}$
 
I was asking mike a question yesterday @BalarkaSen in some proof of some corollary
but now I get it
I was asking him how come the map qh induces a continuous map k
but that is since q is a quotient map
 
The universal property.
 
yeah
 
6:07 PM
It's in Munkres's chapter on quotient spaces.
Have you not studied it?
 
maybe I did but I don't remember it
oh yeah
I skipped it
 
It's a useful tool.
 
its theorem 22.2 I skipped reading i
it*
yeah I will read it quickly
 
@DominicMichaelis: I see, thanks.
 
6:23 PM
@MaryStar usually $a\mid b$ is defined for integers $a$ and $b$ or possibly for polynomials. How are you defining it here?
 
When we consider the ring $\mathbb{C}[e^{\lambda x} \mid \lambda \in \mathbb{C}]$ is the divisibility defined? @robjohn
 
6:42 PM
@MaryStar How would you define divisibility there so that it is not useless? e.g. divisibility on $\mathbb{R}$ is useless since everything is divisible by everything else except $0$.
 
Aren't the elements of the ring polynomials in $e^{\lambda x}$ ? So is the divisibility defined as for polynomials? @robjohn
 
@MaryStar Why are you writing them as $e^{\lambda x}-1$ if you are simply thinking of the polynomial $x^\lambda-1$?
You seem to be making things more difficult
 
But in the exponential ring aren't the elemens of the form $e^x$ ? I got stuck right now... @robjohn
 
Can I ask someone a simplicial set question?
 
@MaryStar without more clarification, I don't know what ring you are actually talking about. Are you talking about a ring of polynomials in $e^{\lambda x}$ with coefficients in $\mathbb{C}$. That is $c_0+c_1e^{\lambda x}+c_2e^{2\lambda x}+c_3e^{3\lambda x}+\dots+c_ne^{n\lambda x}$ where $c_k\in\mathbb{C}$?
 
6:53 PM
Let alone anyone that knows category theory?
 
Yes @robjohn
 
@MaryStar Then how does the divisibility differ from polynomials in $x$ with coefficients in $\mathbb{C}$? That is, $c_0+c_1x^1+c_2x^2+c_3x^3+\dots+c_nx^n$?
Why make things more difficult?
 
@JulianRachman "just ask, don't ask to ask"
 
I am not asking to ask @BalarkaSen I don't want to waste my time if there is no one to speak to about my problem
That can actually answer it
 
There might be people in here who knows about simplicial sets. Anyway, a place where you might get definitive answers is the homotopy theory chat (but I usually hesitate asking questions there unless it's very nontrivial).
 
6:59 PM
So do you mean the following?
$f(e^{\lambda x}) \mid g(e^{\lambda x}) \Leftrightarrow \exists r(e^{\lambda x}) : g(e^{\lambda x})=f(e^{\lambda x})r(e^{\lambda x})$
@robjohn
 
Is the question about a technical aspect, or just some theoretical question? I know what a simplicial set is, and I know why it's there but any technical question I defer to homotopy theorists.
 
@MaryStar How is that different than $f(x)\mid g(x)\iff \exists r(x):g(x)=f(x)r(x)$ where all are polynomials?
 
How's things, by the way, @Julian?
 
Things are moving alright for now. And you, @BalarkaSen
 
I'm fine. What kind of math are you studying?
 
7:08 PM
@robjohn It is the same, just the variable is different, isn't it?
 
@MaryStar I guess. This is completely divorced from any context, I don't know if this is actually applicable to how it needs to be applied.
 
@JulianRachman re: your question on homotopy theory - why do you want to think about categories where your hom sets are not sets?
 
@BalarkaSen I am currently studying Algebra and category theory from Aluffi and trying super hard to get algebraic topology into the mixed because the project I am working on is taking up a lot of time
 
that's a very odd thing to do, because a lot of important categorical theorems do not work there.
 
@BalarkaSen ? Could you elaborate?
 
7:14 PM
So the implication $e^{x}-1 \mid e^{kx}-1 \Leftrightarrow k \in \mathbb{Z}$ stands, right? @robjohn
 
@JulianRachman I see. A word of caution: simplicial sets are motivated by a very concrete theorem in classical homotopy theory (the nerve theorem: essentially, it says to do homotopy theory you only need to take care of the combinatorial data of the space, so homotopy theory is just a form of combinatorics), so you'd better off learning classical alg top first before doing them.
@JulianRachman Elaborate on what?
 
@MaryStar if you are only dealing with polynomials, it would seem so. Since I have no grasp on the context, I can't make a definitive statement.
 
Can I ask a question regarding revised simplex method?
 
On your re: to my question on homotopy theory @BalarkaSen
 
Yeah, I don't know what to elaborate.
Small categories need not have hom-sets as sets. They're just proper classes. So set theory is not going to work properly.
Why think about such pathological categories?
 
7:21 PM
@BalarkaSen You mean non-small
 
Sorry, yeah, I mean large categories.
:P
 
balarka
 
Yeah, @L33ter?
 
did you see some topology videos by some prof
on youtube
they are good
 
usually locally small suffices for most purposes (mainly because most locally small non-small categories one might be interested in are equivalent to some small category)
 
7:23 PM
By what prof?
 
I think he comes to mse aswell
 
Aren't Wildberger's videos bad places to learn stuff?
 
I saw couple of them I didn't mind it
 
Probably I'm wrong, but no, I did not see them. I attended algebraic topology classes.
 
but I prefer munkres
I actually always prefer books rather than learning from people
 
7:25 PM
@L33ter I don't think I would want to learn algtop from a guy that doesn't like infinite sets
 
Talking to people helps you acquire intuition and perspective, which books do not have.
 
yeah
yeah I agree @BalarkaSen
actually last summer I had a reading class in advanced mechanics what we did is that I learned subject on my own then I meet with prof once a week to discuss what I learned
I really liked this type of learning
 
@L33ter Have you read this question and its answers related to that guy? math.stackexchange.com/questions/356264/…
 
no I didn't @TobiasKildetoft
 
Apparently, he does not believe in infinite sets, which must make algtop somewhat tricky (or very easy of course)
 
7:28 PM
That was why I hypothesized that learning from his lectures must be a bad idea.
 
lol
people you know think math is like physical world thing
they don't realize it is a logical system that depends on axioms
like giving analogy of math to real physical world is very bad thing.
ofcourse there is alot of uses of math to the physical world
for example Lagrangian mechanics etc
 
And a lot of uses of physics in math...
 
yeah
but yeah I agree with Asaf's answer
 
7:56 PM
@BalarkaSen I was aware of the statement, not the converse of it
 
The converse says any two maps $f, g : S^n \to S^n$ of equal degree are homotopic :)
I felt pretty awed by this fact when I first heard it.
 
hey so in the universal property rpoof
proof *
For each $y \in Y$, the set $g(p^{-1}(\{y\}))$ is a one point set in Z.
if we let f(y) denote this point then we have defined a map f(p(x)) = g(x)
why is that ?
wouldn't that be always constant ?
@BalarkaSen ?
 
was away, I'm sorry.
 
no its ok
 
@L33ter I don't have Munkres with me, no idea about the notations.
 
8:10 PM
1 sec I will take a pic
let is say that $g(p^{-1}(\{y\})) = c$, where c is some constant.
so do they mean here that f(y) = c for all y in Y ?
or how did they define f ?
 
No, you define $f(y) = c$.
 
I don't understand how did we get f(p(x)) = g(x) then
 
Also, $c$ is not constant. It depends on $y$.
For each $y \in Y$, $g(p^{-1}(y))$ is a point in $Z$. So you define the map $f : Y \to Z$ as $y \mapsto g(p^{-1}(y))$.
 
I see
 
@L33ter $f(p(x)) = g(p^{-1}(p(x))) = g(x)$.
 
8:18 PM
I see ok yes that makes sense
thank you
 
user174558
@I'mmostlyjustanidiot Are you Alex in disguise?
 
user174558
@BalarkaSen I am going to take a look at Munkres again. Maybe it isn't so bad after all.
 
@L33ter Note that the second equality comes from the fact that $g$ is constant on each preimage. So regardless of any element of $p^{-1}(p(x))$ you choose, $g$ of that is going to be $g(x)$.
 
yeah
I figured that out because I was just about to ask
 
@JasperLoy Munkres is good. Has nice exercises.
 
8:26 PM
how come g(p{-1}(p(x))) = g(x) we don't know if p(x) is injective
but I realized yeah it is constant on the pre-image
 
$p^{-1}(p(x))$ is just a notation for the whole fiber over $p(x)$.
 
yeah
 
PS, Karim, I wouldn't recommend Wildberger's lectures. He's sometimes sloppy with notations and the intuitions he convey aren't quite accurate either.
Well, to be honest, intuitions are never accurate but the pictures he draws are not quite standard, or so I gather from seeing a few of his lectures.
Plus, I don't like his notations.
 
alright
I will just stay with books prof and you guys :D
next semester I will be taking algebraic topology and will meet with prof weekly
so hopefully will be able to cover alot next semester
 
Anyone an expert on here?
I have a question.
 
8:36 PM
By the way, can you see why the universal property implies $\pi_1(X, x_0)$ can be analogously defined as homotopy classes of maps from $(S^1, s_0)$ to $(X, x_0)$, relative to $s_0$?
hi @SanathK.Devalapurkar
 
user105491
Good day.
 
How's life?
 
user105491
It's pretty good, you?
 
user105491
I'm trying to learn theoretical computer science now, so less algtop haha
 
By life, I mean mathematical life. (What else kind of life is there?)
@SanathK.Devalapurkar I'm cool, went to a topology & condensed matter physics conference a few days ago.
 
user105491
8:39 PM
Nice, what did they talk about?
 
hm thinking 1 moment
 
@SanathK.Devalapurkar Ah, then I believe Sanath will turn out to be a homotopy type theorist :P
 
user105491
@BalarkaSen No comment.
 
lol.
 
user105491
lol I'm just kidding, I don't know what I'm going to become yet.
 
user105491
8:40 PM
Evolutionary biology is also really appealing right now.
 
@SanathK.Devalapurkar Um, bunch of stuff. I didn't really understand much. There was a lecture on K-theory and physics where the word K-theory was never really mentioned.
 
user105491
As is theoretical physics.
 
user105491
Oh wow
 
user105491
I only know a little about general relativity and QFT
 
user105491
(from a physics perspective, that is)
 
8:42 PM
Pretty interesting way to lure mathematical people into lectures, right?
 
user105491
lol yup, for sure
 
I don't know any QFT, unfortunately.
 
user105491
I only know the basics
 
I know what a topological QFT is, but I never understood where the field theory jumps in.
 
user105491
at least I should say I only know whatever is established in Feynman-Hibbs
 
user105491
8:43 PM
(Atiyah's original paper is great btw for physics and TQFTs)
 
user105491
so how's (mathematical) life for you?
 
@SanathK.Devalapurkar I'll note that down. I learnt TQFTs from Lurie.
 
user105491
Oh man Lurie's cobordism hypothesis paper is dense
 
user105491
at least physics-wise it doesn't give you intuition
 
I didn't really went through everything. The first 2 chapters were exciting and very easy to understand, iirc.
 
user105491
8:44 PM
although it's great mathematically, of course; Lurie's exposition is simply amazing.
 
I learnt about them a year ago.
 
If a continuous function from R^2 to R^2 has |f(x)-x|<epsilon for every epsilon does this guarantee that f(R^2)=R^2?
 
@SanathK.Devalapurkar ah, indeed
@SanathK.Devalapurkar I'm great. Do you know any geometric topology?
 
user105491
No, I don't think I do.
 
Out of curiosity. I have been getting slowly lur(i)ed into that stuff lately.
 
user105491
8:46 PM
hahaha your puns really are becoming better
 
user105491
I think I'm getting pulled more into number theory now.
 
Ah, welcome to the dark side. What kind of NT?
I don't know much, but I was once interested in it.
(still am)
 
user105491
I do recall that :-)
 
user105491
Elliptic curves
 
user105491
8:48 PM
I'm currently working under Noam Elkies, who I presume you've heard about
 
So, 2-dimensional representations of Gal(Q). Good stuff.
Yeah, I know, you told me that you were working under him.
 
user105491
mhm
 
user105491
Anyway, what are you learning right now?
 
Do you understand how 2-dim reps of Gal(Q) arise from modforms yet? I still don't grok it.
@SanathK.Devalapurkar I am trying to get some multicalc straight because I want to get to differential topology. I did some basic stuff from Guillemin-Pollack during my stay on the topology & condensed matter physics conference.
Want to learn some Morse theory.
 
user105491
@BalarkaSen Unfortunately, I don't understand it.
 
8:54 PM
@SanathK.Devalapurkar A question I had: Serre (?) posed the question of whether there's an easy way to see if two algebraic varities X/\bar Q and X'/\bar Q belong to the same Gal(Q)-class (Gal(Q) acts on algebraic varieties over \bar Q naturally). Do we know the answer for elliptic curves?
All I know is that Grothendieck did some work on this for algebraic curves, using the theory of dessins. I think it's an open-ended problem, though.
 
user105491
@BalarkaSen I didn't know about that. Do you have a link to a reference?
 
No, I don't think I have a reference :)
 
user105491
Ah, ok :-)
 
what nonsense at 15:30 here.
up to that point, he was being sloppy. now he's making downright false claims.
 
user105491
lol wut
 
user105491
9:02 PM
R/Z is isomorphic to the circle group, its torsion subgroup is isomorphic to Q/Z haha
 
i feel sorry for the students attending that lecture, and the ones watching this.
 
user105491
So do I
 
Is he not also the same guy that says infinte sets do not exist or something like that
 
yeah
 
user105491
that's incredible.
 
9:08 PM
@BalarkaSen Is that related?
 
I do agree with his claim that we are often too nonchalant with infinity
 
He sticks to rational numbers.
 
oh lord
 
9:20 PM
I just watched this video on e^(pi*i) = -1:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=F_0yfvm0UoU

He says that numbers can be thought of as 3 things, a point on a number line, an adder, and a multiplier. He says combining 2 adders results in another adder, combining 2 multipliers results in another multiplier, and that e^x takes an adder (x) and turns it into a multiplier. Does this actually make sense to anyone? ... What do you get when you combine an Adder and a Multiplier?
 
I do not understand what he is trying to say either. Maybe he is trying to explain in laymens terms that $a \mapsto e^a $ is a group homomorphism from an additive group to a multiplicative group?
 
9:42 PM
ok, after some research, I am now totally awed by Wildberger's view of mathematics. He's the greatest math crank I have ever known.
 
Yeah, it beats me how he is an associate professor of a university.
 
he even got his phd from yale ...
 
@BalarkaSen Is this the guy with the algebraic topology course on youtube? :P
 
Yes.
 
Huy
9:50 PM
is that like the JD of maths?
 
^lol
 
what's the JD?
 
Well this guy actually has a degree
@BalarkaSen "that guy" in the h bar that always spouts nonsense
 
ah.
 
ok good @BalarkaSen I am starting to understand now the proof of h isn't nulhomotopic
good
 
9:52 PM
What is $h$?
 
In physics?
 
Huy
^lol
 
$\hbar$ is one of the fundamental constants of nature
 
that is
 
It is derived from $h$ by dividing it by $2\pi$
 
9:53 PM
If $h : S^1 \rightarrow S^1$ is continuous and antipode preserving then h is nulhomotopic.
 
The Planck constant (denoted h, also called Planck's constant) is a physical constant that is the quantum of action, central in quantum mechanics. First recognized in 1900 by Max Planck, it was originally the proportionality constant between the minimal increment of energy, E, of a hypothetical electrically charged oscillator in a cavity that contained black body radiation, and the frequency, f, of its associated electromagnetic wave. In 1905 the value E, the minimal energy increment of a hypothetical oscillator, was theoretically associated by Einstein with a "quantum" or minimal element of the...
 
Huy
@Danu: I don't think $h$ or $2 \pi$ exist, really.
Much like $\infty$.
 
^lol?
 
I have to finish understanding it today as Ulam Borsuk theorem follows as corollarly
I will also do the bisection theorem today
then I will rewrite my own notes for the thing tomorrow
because I will present it next week
the bisection theorem seems very interesting
is there also other interesting application of ulam borsuk theorem ?
Ulam Borsuk *
because I have 2 hr lecture have to add little more I think
 
Saying $2\pi$ doesn't exist on a math chatroom is strange, I have to admit. xD
 
9:58 PM
@L33ter All the real world stuff!
Like... "there exist two antipodal points on earth where the weather is the same"
:P
 
Wouldn't that usually be the poles? xD
 
no, I mean exactly the same
 
@Huy yeah, because R is not defined.
 
Huy
True.
 
@BalarkaSen why is q defined here a covering map ?
 
Huy
9:59 PM
-Morpheus
 
oh great, now I have a cough and I'm feeling feverish.
 
cool
 

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