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Mad
12:39 PM
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2335986/695930
How can i show that the sets are equal?
if i pick a discontinuity point, then it is not hard to show it is in the the union of cuts, but how do i go in the other way.
 
1:17 PM
Hi everyone, wondering if someone can point me in the right direction before I resort to asking a question. I'm analysing numerical stability of an operation and can incur in an error that is (number of elements of the vector smaller than machine precision)×ε, which obvs. ≤ (size of the vector)×ε, but this seems super loose?
 
2:13 PM
I'm awake!!!!!!!!!! But at what cost?
 
i hav a 1D manifold which is the real line, R. i define two atlases : Atlas 1 : ψ(x)=x. Atlas 2: ψ(x)=2x,x≥0;ψ(x)=−3x,x<0
why arent these two atlases two different smooth structures?
the first one is a smooth structure becuz it's a homeomorphism onto $R^1$ and there's only one chart so the compatibility of charts holds. the second one is also smooth for the same reason
sorry i meant $\psi (x)=2x ; x\geq0$ and $=3x , x<0$ for the second atlas
 
2:30 PM
Pickin up speed, runnin outta time. Math test aproachin, scary way of life :O
 
@RyderRude they are. But if you equip $\mathbb{R}$ with either of them you get diffeomorphic manifolds
perhaps thats what you meant
 
@Jakobian but the functions that are smooth in one atlas are no longer smooth in the other
im asking this because i read the real line admits only one smooth structure
 
2:45 PM
@RyderRude what are you objecting. Which part of what I said
@RyderRude there's multiple smooth structure on $\mathbb{R}$ but no matter which one you equip $\mathbb{R}$ with, those will be, up to diffeomorphism, your standard $\mathbb{R}$
The important word here is up to diffeomorphism
 
sorry i thought "up to diffeomorphism" meant that the atlases have a smooth transition map between each other
 
Diffeomorphism between manifolds $f:M\to N$ is a smooth map with smooth inverse
You're confusing it with the situation where the identity map on $\mathbb{R}$ would be a diffeomorphism
 
What is editing a tag wiki? I looked it up before asking but found nothing O.o
 
Another example. You can have two distinct topologies on a set, but both spaces to be homeomorphic
It doesn't contradict anything. They would only be the same topologies if we required the homeomorphism to be the identity map
what about another thing, for example, group structures on a two element set
they are all isomorphic, but there is exactly two, depending on which point we require to be the identity element of the group
 
2:56 PM
I'm reading a proof of the fact that the space $C_c(\mathbb R^n)$ of compactly supported continuous functions on $\mathbb R^n$ is dense in $L^1(\mathbb R^n)$. The proof starts by a reducing the proof to simpler special cases. We can assume $f$ has compact support by DCT and moreover that it's positive. I understand that. However, then it is claimed, since $f$ is measurable, there is an increasing sequence of simple functions of, note, compact support, that converge to $f$.
I understand why there's such a sequence, but I don't understand why the sequence can be compactly supported. Why?
 
@YourLordJoyBoy Tags can be given descriptions. You generally shouldn't touch that since if you add a useless tag and give it a description then it will stay forever until it gets moderated
Unless you're trying to give description to an already existing tag
creating tags is at 1000 rep so you couldn't even if you tried, but yeah
@psie they approximate $f$ from below, so if $f$ has a zero then so do they
 
ah, makes sense actually, didn't think that far, thanks!
 
 
3 hours later…
6:07 PM
@ZaWarudo See above, though this applies for pretty hard problems
 
7:02 PM
is there an easy way to prove that the sum of the ideals $V(x^2-y)$ and $V(y^2-x)$ is not the entire ring?
 
7:14 PM
@Derivative ideals in what ring
 
$\mathbb C[x,y]$
 
Is $V(x^2-y)$ the principal ideal generated by $x^2-y$
 
yes
 
Suppose $1 = f(x, y)(x^2-y)+g(x, y)(y^2-x)$. Do you see how this leads to a contradiction?
 
no, I did try
 
7:21 PM
Polynomial on the right has no constant term
 
ah sorry I think I misunderstood
I'm trying to find two complex analytic varieties such that the sum of their ideals is strictly included in the ideal of the intersection
where the ring I'm working with is the ring of holomorphic germs in $\mathbb C^n$ localized at the identity
and your example doesn't do what I want because I want a function that vanishes at the origin
 
its your example
 
how?
 
@Derivative what do you mean how. Its you who gave the example, here. I only proved it to you
 
the example proves the claim about complex analytic varieties and not just the claim about polynomial rings, correct?
I can much more easily take the planes {xy=0} and {xz=0} duh
nevermind
 
8:32 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti What's the relationship between a Dieudonne complete space and Cech complete space?
 
> Theorem 2.25. A subset $A \subset \mathbb{R}^{n}$ is Lebesgue measurable if and only if for every $\epsilon>0$ there is an open set $G$ and a closed set $F$ such that $G \supset A \supset F$ and $$\mu(G \backslash F)<\epsilon.$$ If $\mu(A)<\infty$, then $F$ may be chosen to be compact.
I'm reading a proof of the fact that the space $C_c(\mathbb R^n)$ of compactly supported continuous functions on $\mathbb R^n$ is dense in $L^1(\mathbb R^n)$. Let $A$ be a bounded set. Somewhat out of the blue, it is claimed that from the Borel regularity of Lebesgue measure, there exists a bounded open set $G$ and a compact set $F$ such that $G \supset A \supset F$ and $\mu(G \setminus F)<\epsilon$.
I know the theorem above, but it doesn't say that we can choose $G$ to be bounded. Does anyone have any clue why $G$ can be bounded?
 
the simpler question might be, what is the quickest path in your document to seeing that G can be bounded. i might look at the proof of "theorem 2.25" to see where the existence of its "G" comes from. it might be as simple as tracing through that argument
 
ok, good idea, I'll have a look
 
as a background vibe, you could think about covering of A by "simpler" open sets (e.g. dyadic rectangles, or other sets whose diameter you can control), and convince yourself that if A is bounded and the sets in your cover have controlled enough diameters, the union of the cover will be bounded too
but that might not be the simplest route in your reference
and that is more of a vibe than an argument
 
9:03 PM
I think I found an answer. If $A\subset\mathbb R^n$, then $\mu^\ast(A)=\inf\{\mu(G):A\subset G, G \text{ open }\}$. If $A$ is measurable, we can find an open set $G$ such that $\mu(G)<\mu(A)+\epsilon$ for some $\epsilon>0$, and if $\mu(A)<\infty$, we'll have $\mu(G)<\infty$.
 
@psie If you have an unbounded $G$, intersect it with a ball containing $A$
 
... and that's the cleanest answer
 
ah yeah :) thanks
 
9:19 PM
@robjohn did you get any good pictures of the eclipse?
 
9:36 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti I figured there exist spaces which are Dieudonne complete but not Cech complete, and there are spaces which are Cech complete but not Dieudonne complete
So seems there is no relationship
 
9:59 PM
I see
I've never encountered Dieudonne complete spaces before
 
 
1 hour later…
11:08 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Do you know about realcompact spaces?
 
11:32 PM
In this question, shouldn't $f_F(x) = d(x,F) = \inf\{d(x,y) \ : \ y \in M\}$ read $f_F(x) = d(x,F) = \inf\{d(x,y) \ : \ y \in \color{red}{F} \}$? This confuses me.
 
psie: yes
 
great, thanks for the quick answer :)
 
thanks for asking something with such a quick answer :)
 
11:47 PM
@psie yes.
 
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