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4:02 PM
@user379685 And what does that yield ?
 
$$\int \frac{P(x)e^x}{Q(x)}=\left(\int \frac{1}{Q(x)}\right)P(x)e^x-\int (P'(x)+1)e^x \left(\int \frac{1}{Q(x)}\right)$$
$(P'(x)+1)\left(\int \frac{1}{Q(x)}\right)=1$ when:
 
Integration by parts is definitely the right thing to try with that integral.
@AbdullahUYU But it's best split it as $e^x\cdot \frac{x}{(x+1)^2}\,dx$
 
@Hippalectryon sketchtoy.com/68125999 that's the probability distribution for Z, when X>Y
?
 
$$Q(x)P''(x)\int \frac{1}{Q(x)}dx+P'(x)+1=0$$
 
split and then?
I solved the problem with IBP btw
 
4:17 PM
though I guess integrating that is indeed obvious once you write $\frac{x}{(x+1)^2}=\frac{1}{x+1}-\frac{1}{(1+x)^2}$
Yeah. I hadn't realized.
 
@user379685 Sorry, my connection dropped.
 
(sorry the above rambles are all wrong, retyping...)
 
It was fxy
 
(Nvm, that $Q(x)$ has to be quite specific to produce that desired result)
 
@user379685 What you wrote looks right, but it's more complicated than it needs to be
 
4:21 PM
guess that for this integral it is just a coincidence that $P,Q$ are in a form such that they cancel to 1 in the 2nd term of the IBP, thus allowing the $x$ that is stuck to the $e^x$ to be nuked
 
How would you do it
Can it be done without splitting it into two cases?
 
IIRC means?
 
@user379685 Probably the place to start is to draw contours of constant Z on that unit square.
 
@BAYMAX If I Recall
 
thanks
 
4:22 PM
@Secret Yeah, it's stuff like that which makes me dislike IBP examples. It's easy to make an example which looks artificially complicated just by starting with an obvious case and doing an integration by parts.
 
@user379685 Alright let me write it down :-)
 
I thought it was "if i remember correctly" but I suppose that's not all that different
 
yeah
 
@Semiclassical Oh, never heard of that one but it totally makes sense
 
@Semiclassical For that example, $e^x$ being an eigenfunction of the integral operator does contribute towards that result, but still, $P,Q$ has to be just right to allow the 2nd IBP term to cancel out the 1st, and it is quite unlikely to randomly select a $P,Q$ from the space $P(\Bbb{C})$ to make that work
since $Q$ has to satisfy two constraint equations which is quite specific to this particular integrand
 
4:25 PM
@Lozansky The easiest way, if you're lucky, is to write down an $f$ such that $\mathbf{A}=\nabla f$. If you can do that, then the path independence is obvious.
 
Just wondering: Soon I'm gonna teach 6 years old some mathematics, and I'm thinking from where to start?
 
@Salech: Probably better to ask that on the Math Educators site.
 
@user379685 Alright here's how I'd do it. Do you agree that $P(Z>x)=\int_0^1P(X=t)[P(Y>t+x)+P(Y<t-x)]$ ?
 
That's pretty open-ended, yeah.
 
@Te
@TedShifrin: Thanks
 
4:27 PM
@Semiclassical Yeah but that's more work in most cases
 
Eh, depends on the case.
 
The best I can say is that, the results of that integral relies on the following 2 properties:
1. $e^x$ is an eigenfunction of the integral operator
2. Polynomials are nilpotent under differential operator

After that, $P,Q$ has to satisfy two more equations to reproduce that result
 
Probably I'll do some chess first
chess is fun
 
There are some cases where you can see $f$ at a glance.
If you can't find such a potential function, though, then taking the curl probably is the best route.
 
@Hippalectryon could you elaborate
 
4:29 PM
I wonder if there exists a function such that if I plug in any integrand, it spits out all the system of constraint equations the integrand has to satisfy when operating under the integral sign, but then I might be accidentally entering hodge conjecture territory from this overthinking...
 
@user379685 Alright, first of all do you agree that $P(Z>x)=\int_0^1P(X=t)P(Z>x|X=t)$ ?
 
I want to do $\oint z^4 dS$ with $S:|r|=R$. Since $z^4 = (R^2-x^2-y^2)^2$, I think I can say that $\int z^4 = \int (R^2-2z^2)^2 = \int R^4-4R^2z^2+4z^4 \leftrightarrow \int z^4 = -\dfrac{1}{3} \int R^4-4R^2z^2 = -\dfrac{1}{3} \int R^4-\dfrac{4}{3}R^2z^2$. Does this look correct?
 
thanks @AlessandroCodenotti
 
Huh? @Lozansky
 
Wait. Do you mean $dS$ or $ds$?
 
4:32 PM
dS
 
1
Q: Proving that $\frac{1}{2 \pi i}\oint_{\gamma_{1}} \frac{d \zeta}{(\zeta - 1)\zeta + 1}$ is equal to itself?

ZophikelIn the text "Functions of a Complex Variable" I'm having trouble verifying if my proof of $(0.)$ $(0.)$ $$\frac{1}{2 \pi i}\oint_{\gamma_{1}} \frac{d \zeta}{(\zeta - 1)(\zeta + 1)} = \frac{1}{2 \pi i}\oint_{\gamma_{2}}\frac{d \zeta}{(\zeta - 1)(\zeta + 1)}$$ Remark: $\gamma_{1}$ is $\partial{d...

 
@TedShifrin I don't write out all the notation, but the integral is over the sphere
 
The first step looks like garbage.
 
oh yes @nbro I thought as I saw you in cs SE so I thought you may help about the default directory
 
I know what you're doing in general.
 
4:32 PM
How to find $$\lim_{x \to \pi/6} \frac{8\sin x -4}{\cos (x) (\frac{\pi}{6}-x)}$$
 
@TedShifrin Which step is garbage exactly?
 
@AbdullahUYU: If you mean $(\pi/6-x)\cos x$ in the denominator, please write that.
 
$(\cos x)(\pi/6-x)$ or $\cos(x(\pi/6-x))$?
 
Where did $R^2-2z^2$ come from, @Lozansky?
 
@AbdullahUYU Make the variable change $h = x - {\pi \over 6}$
 
4:33 PM
first one
 
@TedShifrin I figured $-x^2-y^2 = -2z^2$ under integration
 
Hi @Ted, @Semi, @everyoneelse
 
Okay. First thing to note is that $\cos x\to \sqrt{3}/2$ as $x\to \pi/6$, so that's finite and can be taken out of the limit without issue.
 
But that was a shot in the dark
 
You can't do symmetry arguments in the middle of algebraic computations. Integrals do not commute with algebra.
 
4:34 PM
Argh
 
(supposing the rest of the limit exists, of course)
 
That's why I said it was garbage.
 
@Semiclassical OK
 
Okay then I guess I should just Gauss this thing
 
Similarly, you can pull 8 out of the top.
 
4:35 PM
yeah
 
One thing I don't really understand, despite $\lim_{x_i\to a_i}$ and $\int$ are linear operators, they are like the most nontrivial ones to evaluate. I suspect these operators in general don't have a matrix representation (even an infinite one)
 
Remember that to "Gauss" it, you have to have the integral as the flux of a force field.
 
So that gives $\frac{48}{\pi}\lim_{x\to\pi/6}\frac{\sin x-1/2}{x-\pi/6}$.
But that limit should look awfully familiar, moreso if you let $f(x)=\sin x$.
 
Provided you remember what $\sin(\pi/6)$ is.
 
SBM
huh hello
 
4:37 PM
True. (Though the limit would likely be trivial if it wasn't of that form)
 
Of course. I was being explicitly helpful.
 
SBM
Gaussian integrals?
like
 
@TedShifrin What? Don't I just need $\mathbf{u}$ to be $\mathcal{C}^1$ in $|r|\leq R$?
 
True.
 
What is $\mathbf u$, @Lozansky?
 
4:38 PM
@Hippalectryon yes
 
SBM
$$\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x^2} \mathrm{d} x$$
 
@TedShifrin Oh sorry, I thought I had written that out. $\mathbf{u} = (x^2y^2,xy,z^3)$
 
$\sqrt\pi \over 2$
 
@BAYMAX was it correct? That's the default on linux and I guesses it should be more or less the same on window
 
@user379685 Great. Now, can you see why $P(Z>x|X=t)=P(Y>t+x)+P(Y<t-x)$ ?
 
4:39 PM
Hi @Ted
 
Oh, so your surface integral started with a flux integral. I had no idea.
Hi @Alessandro.
Of course, @Lozansky: Whenever possible you should use Stokes's Theorem and Gauss's Theorem to avoid line integrals and surface integrals and do easier integrals instead.
 
Yeah, the integral itself wasn't the problem. I wanted to do it using symmetry arguments but that failed
 
Hello.
How do I find the cube root of a number with a decimal?
 
Well I see it as good practise to do some brute force computing every now and then
 
(without a calculator)
 
4:41 PM
@Semiclassical after pulling $\cos x$ and $8$, are you sure you write it true?
 
How do you find cube root of a number without a decimal, like 24, @Abcd?
 
@TedShifrin No idea :(
 
Why are you trying to do this?
 
@TedShifrin whom was that addressed to?
 
You.
 
4:43 PM
@TedShifrin I have a stoichiometry question that requires this
 
Use a calculator, for goodness sake.
In my high school days, we would have used log tables.
 
@TedShifrin That's not allowed in my exams :(
 
Or slide rule. Now you use calculators.
 
SBM
We still do use at school
 
Well, they do not expect you to do something ridiculous like that by hand.
 
4:44 PM
That's not allowed here.
 
@Hippalectryon yes
 
These values should be given, like $\sqrt 3$ etc
 
SBM
log tables
 
@Astyx They aren't :(
None.
 
SBM
but remember trig values
 
4:45 PM
@user379685 Great, so combining those two together gives us my original formula, $P(Z>x)=\int_0^1P(X=t)[P(Y>t+x)+P(Y<t-x)]$. So far so good ?
 
@SBM I do.
 
What's the general question ?
As in, what's the context of these ?
 
If you can't use a calculator and they give you a cube root of some non-obvious number, you'd better use log tables. You aren't expected to calculate Taylor series by hand in a chemistry test when there are so many other things to do.
 
@Hippalectryon yes
 
Or maybe you're doing the problem wrong and there's really no cube root in the first place.
 
4:46 PM
@user379685 Great. Now, can you calculate each term in this integral ?
 
@TedShifrin I am sure of my solution as there is a solved example given.
 
Or approximate your number by cubes
 
of the same question type.
 
oh sorry no @AlessandroCodenotti
I searched it but could not get it
 
@Hippalectryon could you show me how?
 
4:47 PM
Well, @Abcd, I've told you all I know.
Ask your teacher; don't ask us.
 
@TedShifrin okay.
 
@user379685 Well, what's $P(Y<t-x)$ for instance ? You know that $Y$ follows a uniform distribution on $[0,1]$
 
t-x?
 
@user379685 Exactly (as long as $t-x>0$). Now, likewise, what's $P(Y>t+x)$ ?
 
@AbdullahUYU should be 8/cos(pi/6)=8/(pi/2)=16/pi. so yeah, i was being silly
@Abcd If it's coming up in the context of gen-chem, they may want you to do a few successive approximations
 
4:51 PM
@Hippalectryon 1-t-x?
 
(I have vague recollections of needing to do that in pH-problems)
 
@Semiclassical Nope. Mole concept.
 
cos(pi/6)=pi/2 ? you should take a rest
 
...wow. nah, I just need to actually wake the f* up :P
 
4:52 PM
@user379685 Yep. So, what's the whole integral ?
 
SBM
$0.5\sqrt{3}$
 
isn't P(X=t)=0?
 
@user379685 Not exactly. $P(x=t)=dt$
@user379685 Basically it's $P(x\in[t,t+dt])$
 
Suppose U is an open subset of the complex plane C, f : U → C is a holomorphic function and the closed disk D = { z : | z − z0| ≤ r} is completely contained in U. Let γ be the circle forming the boundary of D. Then for every a in the interior of D:f(a)=$$\frac 1 {2 \pi i} \oint \frac{\phi (\zeta)}{\zeta - z} \, d \zeta.$$
      ^ Is this definition valid
 
and why didn't we continue to calculate the limit? @Semiclassical
 
4:54 PM
@Hippalectryon =dt*(1-t-x+t-x)=dt*(1-2x)
 
Because I was waiting for you to recognize it as something more familiar. But I may have missed your reply on that regard.
Namely, what kind of ratio is $\frac{\sin x-1/2}{x-\pi/6}$?
 
and the denominator should be $\pi/6 -x$ btw
 
@user379685 Nearly; be careful with the integral's bounds, you need to make sure that $t+x<1,t-x>0$. So that'd give you $\int_0^{1-x} P(Y>t+x)dt +\int_x^1P(Y<1-x)dt$. Can you simplify that ?
 
SBM
Some limit
 
Eh. I prefer my version :)
 
SBM
4:56 PM
What's it?
 
To see where I'm going, let $f(x)=\sin x$.
What's $f(\pi/6)$?
 
SBM
$$\lim_{x \to \frac{\pi}{6}} \frac{\sin x - 0.5}{\frac{\pi}{6} - x}$$ ?
 
Right. So we can rewrite that ratio as $\frac{f(x)-f(\pi/6)}{x-\pi/6}$
 
SBM
hoh
 
4:58 PM
And you're interested in the limit as $x\to\pi/6$. That should look familiar!
 
sorry i am so dumb :)
 
$\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}=?$
 
@Hippalectryon in the right integral where's t?
 
@user379685 oops. $\int_0^{1-x} P(Y>t+x)dt +\int_x^1P(Y<t-x)dt$
 
f'(a) :)
 
5:00 PM
l'hopital's rule?
because it is not trivial with this form, is it?
oh, derivative's definition :D @Semiclassical
 
@Hippalectryon x^2-2x+1?
 
yuuup
 
i can't believe i can't remember it quickly
 
@user379685 Exactly, $(1-x)^2$. Which makes a lot of sense since $P(Z>0)=1,P(Z>1)=0$. To finish, $P(Z<x)=1-P(Z>x)$
 
SBM
uh oh
 
5:04 PM
Happens.
So, let's review. We wanted to find $\lim_{x \to \pi/6} \frac{8\sin x -4}{\cos (x) (\frac{\pi}{6}-x)}$
Noting the linear factor on the bottom and the resemblance to a difference quotient, we rewrite that quotient as $\frac{8}{-\cos{x}}\cdot \frac{\sin x-1/2}{x-\pi/6}$
 
@Hippalectryon 1-(1-x)^2 and differentiate it to get the distribution?
 
@user379685 yes
 
@Hippalectryon thank you very much
 
At this point, we've factored the quotient into two terms which each have a well-defined limit.
 
@user379685 :-)
 
SBM
5:07 PM
:)
 
So we can use the product rule to say that the limit of the product is the product of the limits, and just compute those two limits.
 
yeah, exactly
 
So, do that :)
 
i am doing it now
 
mmkay.
it'll end up being rather simple.
 
5:09 PM
$-8$. Thanks for patience
 
Right.
 
SBM
I hope nobody tries $$\int \ln (\sin x) \mathrm{d} x$$ at least indefinitely to waste a few hours
Great
 
Effectively the limit ends up being $\frac{1}{f'(x)}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}$ as $x\to a$
Which, yay, is just 1.
 
SBM
absolutely
reciprocals
 
(so long as $f'(a)\neq 0$ etc. etc.)
 
SBM
5:13 PM
true
 
Ordinal question: Is $\sup (\{{}^j\epsilon_{{}^k\omega}|j,k\in \Bbb{N}\})=\epsilon_{\epsilon_0}$ or $=\epsilon_{\epsilon_0+1}$?
 
@Secret Don't quite understand what $k_\omega$ means
Ah, okay
 
${}^k\omega=\omega^{\omega^{\omega^{\ddots^{\omega}}}}$ k times
 
It's supposed to read $~^k\omega$
It's equal to $\varepsilon_{\varepsilon_0}$
 
Hey there chat!
 
5:25 PM
Hey there! @Daminark
 
How's it going?
 
\('-')/
 
Kirby praises the sun!
 
Wait hold on @Semi this is actually the best description of that I've ever seen
 
5:28 PM
@SimplyBeautifulArt If I try to evaluate $k$ first I get ${}^j\epsilon_{\epsilon_0}$. If I then evaluate $j$, shouldn't I get the successor epsilon number $\epsilon_{\epsilon_0+1}$ as I have a tower of $\epsilon_{\epsilon_0}$, or that does not happen because since $\epsilon_{\epsilon_0}$ is already an infinite tower of the $\alpha < \epsilon_0$ many epsilon exponential tower thus that extra tower just end up bing absorbed by $\epsilon_{\epsilon_0}$?
 
@Secret But that's not how it works
 
Now I'm suddenly imagining Kirby doing a Dark Souls run
 
You can't evaluate with respect to $k$ first
 
As in, Kirby being a character in Dark Souls? Or Kirby at the controller?
 
5:29 PM
What you can do is apply a squeeze
 
Former.
 
Which, given how much one inevitably dies during that, means that I also am envisioning a Hollowed Kirby.
 
Ok so I'm doing this complex analysis exercise. Suppose $f(z)$ and $g(z)$ both have an essential singularity at $z_0$, must $f(z)g(z)$ have an essential singularity at $z_0$? My first thought was to look for a function $f$ such that both $f$ and $\frac1f$ have an essential singularity at $z_0$
 
$$\varepsilon_{~^k\omega}<~^j\varepsilon_{~^k\omega}<\varepsilon_{~^{k+1}\omega}‌​$$
 
SBM
5:30 PM
essential singularity ...
 
hello
 
And I think $\frac{e^{1/z}}{z\sin(1/z)}$ could work
 
@Secret So it tends to $\varepsilon_{\varepsilon_0}$
 
Essential is when there is no limit, right?
 
Ah ok
 
5:31 PM
@Hippalectryon ...that is horrifying.
 
I... guess I'm not surprised that someone has thought to do that but dear god why? @Hippalectryon
 
@Daminark Essential is when the Laurent series has infinitely many nonzero coefficents with a negative index. There also isn't the limit (actually if $f(z)$ has an essential singularity at $z_0$ and $U$ is a punctured nbhd of $z_0$ then $f(U)$ is dense in $\Bbb C$)
 
@Daminark Why not :-)
 
You make a convincing point (and I'm not even being sarcastic) @Hippa
 
@Secret Have you made it to the ordinal collapsing functions yet?
 
5:33 PM
@SimplyBeautifulArt I do, that's how that question pop up
 
@Alessandro Ah, right, and pole is finite
 
Incoming ordinal collapsing function workflow
$$C_0(\alpha)_0=\{0,1,...,\omega,\omega_1\}$$

\begin{align}
C_\beta(\alpha)_0 & =\{\gamma,\omega_{\beta+1}|\gamma\le\omega_\beta\}\\
C_\beta(\alpha)_{n+1} & =C_\beta(\alpha)_n\cup\{\gamma+\delta,\gamma\delta,\gamma^\delta,\omega_\gamma,\psi_\Gamma(\eta)|\gamma,\delta,\Gamma,\eta\in C_\beta(\alpha)_n,\eta<\alpha\}\\
C_\beta(\alpha) & =\bigcup\limits_{n<\omega}C_\beta(\alpha)_n\\
\Psi_\beta(\alpha) & =\min\{\gamma|\gamma\notin C_\beta(\alpha)\}\\
i=\{1,2,3\}
\end{align}


\begin{align}
C_0(0)_1 & =\{j,\omega+j,\omega j,\omega^j,\omega^{\omega},...|j\in \Bbb{N}\}\\
 
@Daminark yup
 
5:34 PM
@SimplyBeautifulArt Is it correct so far? (note I omitted many many terms that are not interesting, and place them all beyond the dot dot dot)
 
can we prove that $\int_0^1 |f(t)| dt\leq \alpha \sqrt{\int_0^1 |f(t)|^2 dt}$ ?
 
OK, well, instinct says that since it's analytic nearby, you should be able to do formal products of power series
Though I'm very suspicious that this is true
 
@Secret Give me a few minutes x.x
 
(I also don't know complex analysis)
 
@Vrouvrou Cauchy–Schwarz ?
 
5:36 PM
:P
This isn't quite Cauchy-Schwarz, it's saying that $\|f\|_1 \le \alpha \|f\|_2$
 
@Daminark But doesn't it follow from CS ? Doesn't it just say that $<f,1>\le \sqrt{<f,f>}$ ?
 
we must say that $||f||^2_2$ is a scalar pruduct @Hippalectryon
 
Guys, I need to head to sleep. I will respond any replies tomorrow
 
Oh right, my bad @Vrouvrou
 
@Secret g'night!
 
5:40 PM
@Vrouvrou Wait, what about $\int|f|=<f,sgn(f)>\le\sqrt{<f,f><sgn(f),sgn(f)>}=\sqrt{<f,f>}$ ?
 
@Secret Doing quite look, it looks right.
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Er, why can't $\exp(1/z)$ and $\exp(-1/z)$ work for a counterexample?
Nevermind, the latter does not have an essential singularity.
Yeah, so you need an $f$ such that Laurent expansion has infinitely many terms of the form $z^n$ both towards the right and left.
So you can take $1/f$, which would also have essential singularity, and look at $f \cdot 1/f$
 
why doesn't $\exp(-1/z)$ have an essential singularity? Isn't its Laurent series $\sum\limits_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^k}{k!x^k}$?
 
Er, yeah. Sorry, you just plug in $-1/z$ in the Taylor expansion, and that gives infinitely many $z^{-k}$ terms.
So that's an example?
 
I have another question. I am trying to show that the subset (0,1](0,1] is not compact in RR with the usual topology. Note that ⋃n∈N(1n,n)⋃n∈N(1n,n) covers (0,1](0,1]. Thus, if (0,1](0,1] were compact, then there would exist {n1,...,nk}⊆N{n1,...,nk}⊆N such that ⋃ki=1(1ni,ni)⋃i=1k(1ni,ni). WLOG, take 1n1≤1ni1n1≤1ni for every ii. Hence, there exists an m∈BbbNm∈BbbN such that 1m<1n11m<1n1 and...
therefore an element in (0,1](0,1] but not in not in ⋃ki=1(1ni,ni)⋃i=1k(1ni,ni), a contradiction.
Does this sound right?
 
5:52 PM
@BalarkaSen I think so
 
I think the one I wrote earlier works too, but it's definitely much uglier
 
Ok. Sorry for being dumb.
 
@AlessandroCodenotti Pretty sure it has an essential singularity.
 
Yes, we just decided that.
 
5:54 PM
Yeah that's essentially correct
 
@Semiclassical picture above is the original question of the limit i wrote
 
@user193319 Can you write that in LaTeX ? Some of your symbols are not very clear (e.g: (1n,n))
 
Seems legit.
 
Does anyone have a simple proof for $\nabla \cdot (\mathbf{A} \times \mathbf{B}) = (\nabla \times \mathbf{A}) \cdot \mathbf{B} - (\nabla \times \mathbf{B}) \cdot \mathbf{A}$ ?
 
5:56 PM
Does index notation count as simple?
 
Yes
 
(sorry, gtg. Bbl)
 
I am trying to show that the subset $(0,1]$ is not compact in $\Bbb{R}$ with the usual topology. Note that $\bigcup_{n \in \Bbb{N}} (\frac{1}{n},n)$ covers $(0,1]$. Thus, if $(0,1]$ were compact, then there would exist $\{n_1,...,n_k\} \subseteq \Bbb{N}$ such that $\bigcup_{i=1}^k (\frac{1}{n_i},n_i)$. WLOG, take $\frac{1}{n_1} \le \frac{1}{n_i}$ for every $i$. Hence, there exists an $m \in Bbb{N}$ such that $\frac{1}{m} < \frac{1}{n_1}$ and...
therefore an element in $(0,1]$ but not in not in $\bigcup_{i=1}^k (\frac{1}{n_i},n_i)$, a contradiction.
Does this sound right?
 
$\partial_i \epsilon_{ijk} A_j B_k = \epsilon_{ijk} (A_{j,i}B_k+A_jB_{k,i})$ which I don't know how to complete
Maybe write out the implied sum?
 
Well, start by writing out the first term as $\epsilon_{ijk}A_{j,i}B_k.$
 
5:58 PM
We should only get 6 terms (2 for every i = 1,2,3)
 
Fun fact about essential singularity: $f(z)$ has an essential singularity at $z = 0$ iff the various "directional limits" $\lim_{z \to 0} f(z)$ while approaching along various lines through origin in $\Bbb C = \Bbb R^2$, are lots and lots of stuff
To be rigorous, $f$ takes every possible complex value, with at most one exception, infinitely often in any puncture neighborhood of $0$.
 
For that to match, it should be the case that $\epsilon_{ijk}A_{j,i}=(\nabla\times \mathbf{A})_k$.
 

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